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Cats > unit 9 (antimicrobial methods and eukaryotic microorganisms) > Flashcards

unit 9 (antimicrobial methods and eukaryotic microorganisms) Flashcards

1
Q

two factors that influence the level of cleanliness required for a particular fomite

A

application for which the item will be used, level of resistance to antimicrobial treatment by potential pathogens

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2
Q

sterilization definition

A

the complete removal or killing of all vegetative cells, endospores, and viruses from the targeted item or environment

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3
Q

sterilization can be accomplished through

A

physical means: high heat, pressure, or filtration and chemical means

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4
Q

sterilants definition

A

chemicals that can be used to achieve sterilization

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5
Q

aseptic technique definition

A

involves a combination of protocols that collectively remain sterility, or asepsis, thus preventing contamination of the patient with microbes and infectious agents

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6
Q

antisepsis definition

A

reduces microbial load on skin or tissue through application of antimicrobial chemical

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7
Q

sepsis definition

A

a systemic inflammatory response to an infection that results in high fever, increased respiratory and heart rates, shock, and possibly death

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8
Q

sterile field definition

A

a designated area that is kept free of all vegetative microbes, endospores, and viruses

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9
Q

disinfection definition

A

reduces or destroys microbial load of an inanimate object through application of heat or antimicrobial chemicals

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10
Q

ideal characteristics for disinfectants/antimicrobials

A

fast acting, stable, easy to prepare, inexpensive, and easy to use

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11
Q

disinfection is not sterilization because

A

some microbes remain, endospores tend to survive even when all vegetative cells have been killed

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12
Q

what are antiseptics

A

chemicals safe for use on living skin or tissues

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13
Q

critical items definition

A

must be sterile because they will be used inside the body, often penetrating sterile tissues or the bloodstream

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14
Q

semi-critical items definition

A

items that do not need to be sterilized but require a high level of disinfection because they come in contact with mucous membranes or nonintact skin but do not penetrate tissues

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15
Q

noncritical items definition

A

items that need to be cleaned but not highly disinfected because they come in contact with, but to not penetrate, intact skin

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16
Q

degerming definition

A

microbial numbers are greatly reduced by gently scrubbing living tissue with a mild chemical

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17
Q

sanitization definition

A

cleansing of fomites to remove enough microbes to achieve levels deemed safe for public health.

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18
Q

-cide or -cidal refers to

A

physical and chemical methods of microbial control that kill the targeted microorganism

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19
Q

-stat or -static refers to

A

physical or chemical methods that do not kill the organism, but stop their growth

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20
Q

factors that determine whether a particular treatment is -static or -cidal

A

types of microorganisms targeted, the concentration of chemicals used, and the nature of the treatment applied

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21
Q

microbial death curve

A

how degree of microbial control is evaluated, describes the progress and effectiveness of a particular protocol

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22
Q

decimal reduction time (DRT) definition

A

the amount of time it takes for a specific protocol to produce a one-order-of-magnitude decrease in the number of organisms, or death to 90% of the population

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23
Q

factors that contribute to the effectiveness of an antimicrobial protocol

A

length of exposure, amount of microbes, susceptibility of microbe to antimicrobial, concentration of antimicrobial, temperature, conditions that limit the contact between the agent and the microbe

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24
Q

physical methods of control examples

A

heat, cold, pressure, desiccation, radiation, sonication, filtration

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25
Q

thermal death point (TDP) definition

A

the lowest temperature at which all microbes are killed in a 10 minutes exposure

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26
Q

thermal death time (TDT) definition

A

length of time needed to kill all microorganisms in a sample at a given temperature

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27
Q

boiling kills

A

kills vegetative cells and some viruses

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28
Q

boiling mode of action

A

moist-heat control that denatures proteins and alters membranes

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29
Q

categories of heating protocols

A

dry-heat sterilization and moist-heat sterilization

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30
Q

dry-heat sterilization examples

A

aseptic technique of inoculating loops, incineration

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31
Q

moist-heat sterilization example

A

autoclave

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32
Q

most effective heat sterilization category is __ because

A

moist-heat sterilization because it can penetrate cells better than dry heat does

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33
Q

autoclaves function by

A

raising temperatures above the boiling point of water (steam) and pressure to sterilize items

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34
Q

autoclaves kill

A

vegetative cells, viruses, and endospores (everything except for prions basically)

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35
Q

autoclave mode of action

A

moist-heat control that kills cells by denaturing proteins and alters membranes

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36
Q

autoclave tape function

A

indicates when appropriate temp is reached: white strips turn black when appropriate temp is achieved

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37
Q

biological indicator spore test function

A

uses strip of paper of endospores to determine whether endospores were killed or not during the autoclave process

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38
Q

Diack tube function

A

indicates when proper sterilization temperature is reached in an autoclave; a temperature sensitive pellet melts at proper sterilization temp

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39
Q

traditional pasteurization kills

A

pathogens and reduces the number of spoilage causing microbes

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40
Q

pasteurization mode of action

A

denatures proteins and alters membranes

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41
Q

high-temp short-time (HTST) pasteurization

A

exposes milk to 72 degrees for 15 secs, which lowers bacteria numbers while preserving quality

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42
Q

ultra-high-temp (UHT) pasteurization

A

milk is exposed to 138 degrees for 2 seconds, causing slight change to taste and smells

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43
Q

refrigeration mode of action

A

inhibits metabolism, slows or arrests cell division

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44
Q

freezing mode of action

A

stops metabolism, may kill microbes

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45
Q

high-pressure processing kills

A

vegetative bacteria (not endospores), yeast, molds, parasites, and viruses (not endospores)

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46
Q

high-pressure processing mode of action

A

denatures proteins and can cause cell lysis

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47
Q

hyperbaric oxygen treatment mode of action

A

inhibits metabolism and growth of anaerobic microbes

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48
Q

desiccation kills

A

can kill all types of cells because all cells require water, except endospores

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49
Q

simple desiccation (drying) mode of action

A

inhibits metabolism

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50
Q

reduce water activity (addition of solute) mode of action

A

inhibits metabolism and can cause cell lysis

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51
Q

lyophilization (freeze-drying) mode of action

A

inhibits metabolism

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52
Q

ionizing radiation types

A

x-rays, gamma rays, and high-energy electron beams

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53
Q

ionizing radiation mode of action

A

sterilizes by altering molecular structures, introduces double strand breaks into DNA

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54
Q

ionizing radiation is used on

A

packaged items that cannot be autoclaved (plastic)

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55
Q

what is nonionizing radiation

A

ultraviolet light that sterilizes but does not penetrate cells or packaging

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56
Q

nonionizing radiation mode of action

A

introduces thymine dimers, leading to mutation that eventually kill the cell

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57
Q

sonication definition

A

use of high frequency sound waves to disrupt cell structures

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58
Q

sonication mode of action

A

cavitation disrupts cells, lysing them

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59
Q

cavitation definition

A

formation of bubbles inside the cell

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60
Q

filtration mode of action

A

physically removes microbes from air or liquid

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61
Q

high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters trap

A

bacterial cells, endospores, viruses, nearly sterilizing the air

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62
Q

membrane filters remove __ from ___

A

microbes from liquid samples

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63
Q

factors to consider when choosing chemical antimicrobials

A

type of microbe targeted, how clean the item needs to be, the disinfectant’s effect on item integrity, its safety, its expense, and its ease of use

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64
Q

chemical antimicrobial examples

A

phenolics, heavy metals, halogens, alcohols, surfactants, bisbiguanides, alkylating agents, peroxygens, supercritical fluids, and chemical food preservatives

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65
Q

phenol mode of action

A

inhibit microbial growth by denaturing proteins and disrupting membranes

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66
Q

phenols are used in

A

mouthwash and toothpaste, lysol, agriculture, impregnated into products

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67
Q

phenolics characteristics

A

tend to be stable and persistent on surfaces

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68
Q

heavy metals mode of action

A

kill microbes by binding to proteins, thus inhibiting enzymatic activity

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69
Q

oligodynamic definition

A

very small concentrations show significant antimicrobial activity

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70
Q

heavy metals examples

A

mercury, silver, copper, nickel, zinc

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71
Q

mercury mode of action

A

bacteriostatic; bind to sulfur-containing amino acids within proteins, inhibiting their functions

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72
Q

silver is used as __ in __

A

antiseptic in antibiotic creams, making them thousands of times more effective

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73
Q

copper sulfate is a common

A

algicide used to control algal growth in pools and fish tanks

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74
Q

halogen examples

A

iodine, chlorine, and fluorine

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75
Q

iodine mode of action

A

disinfects by oxidizing cellular components

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76
Q

chlorine mode of action

A

disinfects by producing a strong oxidant that is uncharged and enters cells easily

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77
Q

chloramine characteristics

A

disinfect, stable, release chlorine over long periods of time

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78
Q

fluorine mode of action

A

accumulates in plaque-forming bacteria, interfering with their metabolism

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79
Q

alcohol mode of action

A

disinfect and antiseptic by rapidly denaturing proteins, inhibiting cell metabolism, disrupting membranes, leading to cell lysis

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80
Q

alcohols effective against

A

bacteria, fungi, enveloped viruses

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81
Q

surfactant definition

A

group of chemical compounds that lower the surface tension of water

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82
Q

surfactant mode of action

A

degerm by physically lifting away dirt and microbes from surfaces and skin

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83
Q

quaternary ammonium salts (quats) mode of action

A

insert into the bacterial phospholipid bilayer and disrupt membrane integrity

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84
Q

characteristic of quats

A

stable, nontoxic, inexpensive, colorless, odorless, and tasteless

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85
Q

quats kill

A

fungi, protozoans, bacteria, enveloped viruses (not endospores or nonenveloped)

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86
Q

bisbiguanide (chlorhexidine) mode of action

A

disrupts cell membranes and causes cell’s cytoplasmic contents to congeal and is bacteriostatic at lower concentration, bactericidal at higher

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87
Q

bisbiguanide (chlorhexidine) kills

A

yeasts, gram+ and - bacteria, enveloped viruses

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88
Q

alkylating agents mode of action

A

replace a hydrogen atom within a molecule with an alkyl group, thereby inactivating enzymes and nucleic acids

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89
Q

alkylating agents examples

A

formaldehyde, glutaraldehyde, o-phthalaldehyde (OPA), ethylene oxide, beta-propionolactone

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90
Q

formaldehyde kills

A

bacteria, viruses, fungi, and endospores

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91
Q

formaldehyde leads to

A

sterilization at low temperatures

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92
Q

ethylene oxide

A

highly penetrating, gaseous sterilizer

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93
Q

peroxygen examples

A

hydrogen peroxide, peracetic acid, benzoyl peroxide, carbamide peroxide, ozone gas

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94
Q

hydrogen peroxide mode of action

A

produces free radicals that damage cellular macromolecules

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95
Q

hydrogen peroxide kills

A

gram- and + bacteria (more effective against gram+), fungi, viruses, endospores, decreased efficacy against bacteria that produce catalase and peroxidase

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96
Q

peracetic acid characteristics

A

can be used as a liquid or plasma sterilant, readily kills endospores, more effective than hydrogen peroxide, immune to inactivation by catalase and peroxidase, and breaks down into environmentally innocuous compounds

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97
Q

ozone gas characteristics

A

disinfectant used to clean air or water supplies

98
Q

supercritical fluid definition

A

carbon dioxide that is brought to 10 times atmospheric pressure and gains physical properties between those of liquids and gases

99
Q

supercritical carbon dioxide mode of action

A

penetrates cells and forms carbonic acid, which lowers cell pH considerably

100
Q

supercritical carbon dioxide kills

A

vegetative cells, can kill endospores when combined with peracetic acid

101
Q

characteristics of supercritical carbon dioxide

A

nonreactive, nontoxic, nonflammable, effective at low temps, preserves object’s integrity

102
Q

chemical food preservative examples

A

sorbic acid, benzoic acid, propionic acid and their soluble salts potassium sorbate, sodium benzoate, calcium propionate; sulfur dioxide, nitrites

103
Q

sorbic acid mode of action

A

inhibits various cellular enzymes (those in Krebs cycle, catalase, peroxidase)

104
Q

benzoic acid mode of action

A

decreases intracellular pH, interfering w/ mechanisms such as oxidative phosphorylation and the uptake of molecules such as amino acids into cells

105
Q

propionic acid mode of action

A

inhibits enzymes and decreases intracellular pH, working similarly to benzoic acid

106
Q

sulfur dioxide (sulfites) mode of action

A

may interfere w/ the disulfide bond formation in proteins, inhibiting enzymatic activity. they may reduce cell pH, interfering w/ proton motive force

107
Q

nitrite mode of action

A

reacts w/ enzyme ferredoxin in bacteria, this electron transport chain carrier is destroyed, preventing ATP synthesis

108
Q

natural chemical food preservative examples

A

nisin, natamycin

109
Q

nisin mode of action

A

disrupts cell wall production, leaving cells prone to lysis

110
Q

high level germicide definition

A

have the ability to kill vegetative cells, fungi, viruses, and endospores, leading to sterilization

111
Q

intermediate-level germicides

A

less effective against endospores and certain viruses

112
Q

low-level germicides

A

kill only vegetative cells and certain enveloped viruses, ineffective against endospores

113
Q

disk-diffusion method for testing antimicrobial effectiveness

A

chemicals are applied to separate, sterile, filter paper disks. the disks are then placed on a plate w/ the target bacterium and the chemicals form a zone of inhibition based on their effectiveness against the target bacterium

114
Q

use-dilution test

A

cylinder of stainless steel is dipped into culture of target microorganism, cylinder is dipped in solutions of disinfectant at various concentrations for specific amount of time, cylinder is transferred to a medium to see if bacteria grow

115
Q

in-use test determines

A

whether disinfectant solutions are being used correctly in clinical settings

116
Q

protist definition

A

informally refers to a diverse group of microscopic eukaryotic organisms: “animal-like” protozoans, “plant-like” algae, and “fungus-like” protists such as water molds

117
Q

algae basic characteristics

A

photosynthetic organisms that can be unicellular or multicellular

118
Q

protozoa basic characteristics

A

non-photosynthetic, heterotrophic, motile organisms that are always unicellular

119
Q

plankton definition

A

microorganisms that drift or float in water, moved by currents

120
Q

types of plankton

A

zooplankton, which are motile and non-photosynthetic, and phytoplankton, which are photosynthetic

121
Q

trophozoites

A

protozoans that are beneficial symbionts that feed on small particulate food sources like bacteria

122
Q

cyst definition

A

a cell with a protective wall

123
Q

encystment definition

A

the process by which a trophozoite becomes a cyst when environmental conditions are too harsh

124
Q

excystment definition

A

process by which cysts are triggered by environmental cues to become active again

125
Q

protozoans reproduce sexually, asexually, or both

A

reproduce both sexually and asexually

126
Q

modes of asexual reproduction in protozoans

A

binary fission, budding, or schizogony

127
Q

schizogony process

A

nucleus of the cell divides multiple times before the cell divides into many smaller cells

128
Q

merozoites definition

A

the products of schizogony

129
Q

schizonts definition

A

structures that merozoites are stored in

130
Q

modes of sexual reproduction in protozoans

A

syngamy, conjugation

131
Q

syngamy definition

A

production of haploid gametes that fuse

132
Q

conjugation (protozoan sexual reproduction)

A

exchange genetic material by joining to exchange DNA (different than bacterial conjugation)

133
Q

protist conjugation definition

A

refers to a true form of eukaryotic sexual reproduction between two cells of different mating types

134
Q

all protozoans have a

A

plasma membrane, or plasmalemma

135
Q

pellicle formed from

A

bands of proteins just inside the plasma membrane that add rigidity that some protozoans have

136
Q

ectoplasm definition

A

outer gel layer of the cytoplasm under the plasma membrane that some protists have

137
Q

endoplasm definition

A

inner layer and sol (fluid) region of the cytoplasm that some protists have

138
Q

cytosome definition

A

specialized structure for taking food in through phagocytosis that some protozoans have

139
Q

cytoproct definition

A

specialized structure for the exocytosis of wastes that some protozoans have

140
Q

holozoic definition

A

protozoans that ingest whole food particles through phagocytosis

141
Q

saprozoic definition

A

protozoans that ingest small, soluble food molecules

142
Q

protozoan motile structures

A

flagella or cilia made of microtubules, pseudopodia

143
Q

contractile vacuoles definition

A

organelles that can be used to move water out of the cell for osmotic regulation that are found in some protozoans

144
Q

mitochondria in parasites

A

may be absent or altered to kinetoplastids or hydrogenosomes

145
Q

polyphyletic group definition

A

group that lacks a shared evolutionary history

146
Q

domain Eukarya six supergroups

A

Excavata, Chromalveolata, Rhizaria, Archaeplastida, Amoebozoa, Opisthokonta

147
Q

Amoebozoa includes

A

protozoans that used amoeboid movement

148
Q

amoeboid movement

A

actin microfilaments produce pseudopodia, into which the remainder of the protoplasm flows, thereby moving the organism

149
Q

Amoebozoa subgroup examples

A

slime molds, Entamoebas

150
Q

slime mold types

A

cellular slime mold and plasmodial slime molds

151
Q

cellular slime mold exist as

A

exist as individual amoeboid cells that periodically aggregate into a mobile slug, which then forms a fruiting body that produces haploid spores

152
Q

plasmodial slime mold exist as

A

large, multinucleate amoeboid cells that form reproductive stalks to produce spores that divide into gametes

153
Q

Chromalveolata is united by

A

similar origins of its members’ plastids and includes the apicomplexans, ciliates, oomycetes, diatoms, and dinoflagellates

154
Q

apicomplexans

A

intra- or extracellular parasites that have an apical complex at one end of the cell

155
Q

apical complex

A

concentration of organelles, vacuoles, and microtubules that allows the parasite to enter host cells

156
Q

apicomplexan life cycle

A

complex life cycles that include an infective sporozoite that undergoes schizogony to make many merozoites

157
Q

examples of apicomplexan

A

the genus Plasmodium, Toxoplasmosis gondii, Cryptosporidium parvum

158
Q

ciliates (Chromalveolata) characterized by

A

the presence of cilia on their cell surface

159
Q

ciliate nucleus comes in the form of

A

a micronucleus and macronucleus

160
Q

micronucleus

A

diploid, somatic, and used for sexual reproduction by conjugation

161
Q

macronucleus

A

derived from the micronucleus, becomes polyploid, and has a reduced set of metabolic genes

162
Q

polyploid definition

A

multiple sets of duplicate chromosomes

163
Q

reproduction by conjugation produces

A

two cells that are genetically different from each other and from their previous versions

164
Q

oomycetes are called

A

water molds

165
Q

oomycetes characteristics

A

cell walls of cellulose, generally diploid

166
Q

Excavata members characterized by

A

depression on the surface of the cell called an excavate

167
Q

Excavata subgroups

A

Forincata, Parabasalia, Euglenozoa

168
Q

Forincata characteristics

A

lack mitochondria but have flagella

169
Q

Parabasalia characteristics

A

frequent animal endosymbionts, basal bodies, modified mitochondria (kinetoplastids), large complex cell structure w/ an undulating membrane, often have many flagella

170
Q

Euglenozoa characteristics

A

cells have two flagella, a pellicle, a stigma to sense light, and chloroplasts for photosynthesis

171
Q

major groups of parasitic helminths

A

roundworms (Nematoda) and flatworms (Platyhelminthes)

172
Q

monoecious definition

A

having both male and female reproductive organs in a single individual

173
Q

dioecious definition

A

having either male or female reproductive organs

174
Q

Phylum Nematoda worms are

A

unsegemented worms that have a full digestive system even when parasitic

175
Q

Nematoda are parasites of what area of the body

A

common intestinal parasites, their eggs can sometimes be identified in feces or around the anus of an infected individual

176
Q

Nematoda parasite examples

A

Ascaris lumbricoides, Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm), Toxocaria canis and T. cati (toxocariasis), Necator americanus (hookworm), Trichinella spiralis (trichinosis), Dirofilaria immitis (heartworm)

177
Q

Phylum Platyhelminthes includes

A

flukes, tapeworms, and turbellarians

178
Q

flukes (trematodes) are characterized by

A

nonsegmented flatworms that have an oral sucker and attach to inner walls of intestines, lungs, large blood vessels , or the liver

179
Q

important examples of flukes

A

liver flukes, intestinal flukes, oriental lung fluke, and schistosomiasis

180
Q

tapeworms (cestodes) characterized by

A

segmented flatworms that may have hooks or suckers at the scolex (head region)

181
Q

proglottids

A

what body of tapeworm is made up of, contains reproductive structures that detach when the gametes are fertilized, releasing gravid proglottids w/ eggs

182
Q

tapeworm intermediate host function

A

consumes the eggs, which then form into larval form called oncosphere that travels to a particular tissue or organ to form a cysticerci

183
Q

after cysticerci are consumed by definitive host

A

they develop into adult tapeworms in the host’s digestive system

184
Q

tapeworm examples

A

Taenia saginata (beef tapeworm), Taenia solium (pork tapeworm), Diphylobothrium latum (fish tapeworm), Echinococcus granulosus (dog tapeworm)

185
Q

fungi characteristics

A

heterotrophic, saprozoic, unicellular and multicellular

186
Q

mycoses definition

A

illnesses caused by fungi

187
Q

hyphae

A

filaments that make up most multicellular fungal bodies

188
Q

Hyphae can form

A

tangled network called a mycelium and form the thallus (body) of fleshy fungi

189
Q

septate hyphae

A

hyphae that have walls between the cells

190
Q

nonseptate (coenocytic) hyphae

A

hyphae that lack walls and cell membranes between the cells

191
Q

unicellular fungi are

A

yeasts

192
Q

budding yeasts

A

reproduce asexually by budding off a smaller daughter cell

193
Q

pseudohyphae

A

budding yeast cells that sometimes stick together as a short chain

194
Q

example of a common yeast that forms a pseudohyphase

A

Candida albicans

195
Q

dimorphic fungi definition

A

having more than one appearance during their life cycle, appearing as yeasts or molds

196
Q

example of a dimorphic fungi

A

Histoplasma capsulatum, the pathogen that causes histoplasmosis

197
Q

fungal cell wall have

A

chitin and ergosterol

198
Q

fungi reproduce sexually through either

A

cross-fertilization or self-ferilization

199
Q

plasmogamy (fungi sexual reproduction)

A

cytoplasms of the + and - type gametes fuse, producing a cell w/ two distinct nuclei

200
Q

karyogamy (fungi sexual reproduction)

A

the two nuclei fuse to create a diploid zygote, which undergoes meiosis to form spores that germinate to start the haploid stage, which eventually creates more haploid mycelia

201
Q

sexually produces spores are known as

A

zygospores (in Zygomycota), ascospores (in Ascomycota), or basidiospores (in Basidiomycota)

202
Q

fungi can reproduce asexually by

A

mitosis, mitosis w/ budding, fragmentation of the hyphae, and formation of asexual spores by mitosis

203
Q

seven major groups of Fungi

A

Urediniomycetes and Ustilagomycetes, Glomeromycota, Chytridiomycetes, Zygomycota, Ascomycota, Basidiomycota, Microsporidia

204
Q

Urediniomycetes and Ustilagomycetes include

A

plant rusts and smuts, respectively

205
Q

Glomeromycota includes

A

mycorrhizal fungi, obligate symbionts associated w/ plant roots: fungi receives carbs from plant roots, plant benefits by increased ability to take up nutrients and minerals from the soil

206
Q

Chytridiomycetes characteristics

A

small fungi that are generally aquatic and have flagellated, motile gametes

207
Q

Zygomycota characteristics

A

mainly saprophytes with coenocytic hyphae and haploid nuclei; they use sporangiospores for asexual reproduction

208
Q

zygospores

A

what Zygomycota uses for sexual reproduction, have hard walls formed from the fusion of reproductive cells from two individuals

209
Q

Ascomycota characteristics

A

septate hyphae, cup-shaped fruiting bodies called ascocarps, use sexually produced ascospores, use asexual spores called conidia

210
Q

medically important ascomycota

A

Trichophyton, Microsporum, Epidermophyton, Blastomyces dermatitidis, Histoplasma capsulatum, Candida albicans

211
Q

unicellular Ascomycota examples

A

Saccharomyces

212
Q

Basidiomycota characteristics

A

have basidia (club-shape structures) that produce basidiospores within fruiting bodies called basidiocarps

213
Q

Basidiomycota disease example

A

Cryptococcus neoformans can cause serious lung infections when inhaled by individuals w/ weakened immune systems

214
Q

Microsporidia characteristics

A

unicellular fungi that are obligate intracellular parasites; lack mitochondria, peroxisomes, and centrioles; spores release a unique polar tubule that pierces host cell membrane to allow the fungus to enter

215
Q

microsporidiosis definition

A

human infections w/ microsporidia pathogen

216
Q

algae are

A

autotrophic protists that can be unicellular or multicellular

217
Q

algae are found in supergroups

A

Chromalveolata (dinoflagellates, diatoms, golden algae, and brown algae) and Archaeplastida (red and green algae)

218
Q

harmful algal bloom occur when

A

algae grow too quickly and produce dense populations, can produce high concentrations of toxin

219
Q

pyrenoids

A

structures inside of algal chloroplasts that synthesize and store starch

220
Q

primary chloroplasts membranes

A

have two membranes, one from original cyanobacteria that the ancestral eukaryotic cell engulfed, and one from the plasma membrane of the engulfing cell

221
Q

seaweeds differ from plants because

A

they do not have true tissues or organs like plants do, they do not have a waxy cuticle to prevent desiccation

222
Q

algal reproduction

A

may be asexual by mitosis or sexual using gametes

223
Q

algae that fall in Chromalveolata

A

dinoflagellates and stramenopiles

224
Q

dinoflagellates nutritional types

A

may be phototrophic, heterotrophic, or mixotrophic

225
Q

photosynthetic dinoflagellates use what chlorophylls

A

chlorophyll a, chlorophyll c2, and other photosynthetic pigments

226
Q

dinoflagellates have how many flagella

A

two flagella that cause them to whirl

227
Q

theca on dinoflagellates

A

cellulose plates that form a hard outer covering as armor

228
Q

dinoflagellates neurotoxin causes

A

paralysis in humans and fish

229
Q

red tide

A

a harmful algal bloom created by a dense population of dinoflagellates

230
Q

stramenopiles include

A

golden algae, brown algae, and the diatoms

231
Q

stramenopiles photosynthetic pigments

A

chlorophyll a, chlorophyll c1/2, and fucoxanthin

232
Q

stramenopile storage carbohydrate

A

chrysolaminarin

233
Q

diatom characteristics

A

have flagella and frustules, which are outer cell walls of crystallized silica; their fossilized remains are used to produce diatomaceous earth; can reproduce sexually or asexually

234
Q

brown algae characterisitics

A

multicellular marine weeds; have leaf-like blades, stalks, and structures called holdfasts that are used to attach to substrate

235
Q

brown algae photosynthetic pigments

A

chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b, beta-carotene, and fucoxanthine

236
Q

brown algae storage carbohydrate

A

laminarin

237
Q

Archaeplastids include

A

green algae (Chlorophyta), red algae, another group of green algae, and the land plants (Charophyta)

238
Q

Charaphyta are most similar to land plants because

A

they share a mechanism of cell division and an important biochemical pathway, among other traits

239
Q

like land plants, Charaphyta and Chlorophyta have

A

chlorophyll a and b as photosynthetic pigments, cellulose cell walls, and starch as a carbohydrate storage

240
Q

Chlamydomonas is a green alga that has

A

a single large chloroplast, two flagella, and a stigma

241
Q

red alga characteristics

A

mainly multicellular but have some unicellular forms, rigid cell walls containing agar or carrageenan

Cats (6 decks)

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