1 Flashcards

1
Q

cell theory

A

All life is made of cells, cells come from other cells, cells are the fundamental unit of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

six basic categories of microorganisms

A

bacteria, archaea, algae, fungi, protozoans, helminths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

acellular microorganisms

A

viruses, prions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

domains of life

A

Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

all cells possess these:

A

cytoplasm, plasma membrane, one or more chromosomes made from DNA, and ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

prokaryotes vs eukaryotes

A

prokaryotes lack a nucleus, do not have membrane bound organelles, have DNA in the for, of single, circular chromosome. eukaryotes have a nucleus, have membrane bound organelles, have 1+ chromosomes in linear strand, tend to be bigger than prokaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

cell morphology

A

cell shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bacteria: unicellular or multicellular?

A

unicellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

prokaryotic microorganisms

A

bacteria, archaea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

bacterial cell wall contains

A

peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

bacterial replication/reproduction

A

binary fission, asexual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

bacteria: pathogenic or not?

A

can be pathogenic, not all are pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

archaea: unicellular or mutlicellular?

A

unicellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

archaea replication/reproduction

A

binary fission, asexual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

archaea: pathogenic or not?

A

not human pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

archaea differs from bacteria in

A

evolutionary history, genetics, metabolic pathways, and cell wall/membrane compostition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

archaea cell wall composed of

A

pseudopeptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

eukaryotic microorganisms

A

algae, fungi, protozoa, helminths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

algae: unicellular or multicellular?

A

can either be unicellular or mulitcelluar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

algae: pathogenic or not?

A

not known to be human pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

algae cell wall composition

A

cellulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

algae replication/reproduction

A

mitosis, both sexually and asexually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

protozoa: unicellular or multicellular?

A

unicellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

protozoans: pathogenic or not?

A

most are harmless, some are human pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

fungi: unicellular or mulitcellular?

A

can be unicellular (yeasts) and multicellular (mold)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

fungi cell wall composition

A

chitin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

fungi: pathogenic or not?

A

can cause disease in humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

helminths: unicellular or multicelluar?

A

multicellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are helminths?

A

parasitic worms that aren’t technically microorganisms, their eggs are

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

helminths: pathogenic or not?

A

can be human pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are viruses

A

proteins and genetic material (either DNA or RNA) that are inert outside of host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

viruses: pathogenic or not?

A

can be human pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are prions

A

misfolded proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the cause of the formation of a prion?

A

genetic mutation, can also happen spontaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Prions: pathogens or not?

A

can be pathogenic (causes transmissible spongiform encephalopathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

taxonomy definition

A

classification, description, and naming of living organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

classification definition

A

practice of organizing organisms into different groups based on their characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

phylogeny definition

A

takes into account of the evolutionary relationships of all different species of organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

binomial nomenclature

A

two word naming system for identifying microorganisms by genus and species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Bergey’s Manuals

A

standard reference for identifying and classifying different prokaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Theory of spontaneous generation

A

theory that life arises from nonliving material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

endosymbiotic theory

A

theory that eukaryotic organelles, mitochondria and chloroplasts, came from prokaryotic origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Germ theory of disease

A

states that microorganisms known as “germs” can lead to disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

last universal common ancestor

A

all life can be traced back to one ancestor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

epidemology

A

concerns the geographical distribution and timing of infectious disease and how they are transmitted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

goal of epidemology

A

recognizing and controlling outbreaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

etiology

A

included in epidemology, the study of the causes of disease and investigation of disease transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

sporadic disease

A

seen only occasionally and w/o geographic concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

endemic diseases

A

diseases that are constantly present at a low level in a population within a certain geographical area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

epidemic

A

diseases for which a larger than expected number of cases occur in a short amount of time within a certain geographical area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

pandemic

A

epidemics that occur on a worldwide scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Koch’s Postulates purpose

A

determines whether a particular organism is the cause of a particular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

First Koch’s postulate

A

the suspected pathogen must be found in every case of the disease and not in healthy individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Second Koch’s Postulate

A

the suspected pathogen can be isolated and grown in pure culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Third Koch’s Postulate

A

A healthy test subject infection w/ the suspected pathogen should present the same signs and symptoms of the disease as in postulate 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Fourth Koch’s Postulate

A

the pathogen must be reisolated from the new host and must be identical to postulate 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Molecular Koch’s Postulates purpose

A

to identify a specific gene that may cause an organism to be pathogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

First Molecular Koch’s Postulate

A

The phenotype (signs and symptoms of disease) should be associated w/ only the pathogenic strain of a species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Second Molecular Koch’s Postulate

A

Inactivation of suspected gene(s) associated w/ pathogenicity should result in measurable loss of pathogenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Third Molecular Koch’s Postulate

A

Reversion of the inactive gene should restore the disease phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

pathogenicity definition

A

the ability of a microbial agent to cause disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

virulence definition

A

degree to which an organism is pathogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Median infectious dose

A

number of pathogen cells required to cause active infection in 50% of subjects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

median lethal dose

A

number of pathogenic cells required to kill 50% of infected subjects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Emerging infectious disease

A

either new to human population or has shown an increase in prevalence in the previous 20 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Reemerging infectious disease

A

increasing in frequency after a previous period of decline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

reservoirs

A

where pathogens normally reside to persist over long period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

carrier

A

an individual capable of transmitting a pathogen w/o displaying symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

passive carrier

A

contaminated w/ pathogen and can mechanically transmit it to another host; however passive carriers are not infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

active carrier

A

infected individual who can transmit disease to others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

asymptomatic carriers

A

active carriers who do not present signs and symptoms of disease despite being infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

living reservoirs

A

animals can act as reservoirs of human disease and transmit the infectious agent to humans through direct or indirect contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

definitive hosts

A

host in which the parasite reaches sexual maturity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

intermediate hosts

A

host in which parasite go through several immature life cycles or reproduce asexually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

first step in transmission

A

transmission from reservoir to individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

second step in transmission

A

individual transmits infectious agent to other susceptible individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

third step in transmission

A

pathogenic microorganisms employ diverse transmission mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

contact transmission

A

direct transmission (person to person) and indirect transmission (inanimate objects contaminated by pathogens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

vehicle transmission

A

transmission of pathogens through food, water, or air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

vector transmission

A

transmitted by a mechanical or biological vector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Mechanical vector

A

an animal that carries a pathogen from one host to another w/o being infected itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Biological vector

A

pathogen reproduces within a biological vector that transmits the pathogen from one host to another (bug bites)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

nosocomial infections

A

infections spread in a healthcare setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

light microscopes

A

brightfield microscopes, darkfield microscopes, phase-contrast, differential interference contrast, fluoroscence, confocal scanning laser, and two-photon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

simple staining

A

single dye is used to emphasize particular structure of a specimen, will make all organisms the same color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

differential staining

A

distinguishes organisms based on their interactions w/ multiple stains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

First step in Gram Staining

A

crystal violet is applied to a heat fixed smear, making all cells purple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Second step in gram staining

A

a mordant, iodine, is applied to set the crystal violet and make it stay contained in thick layers of peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Third step in gram staining

A

Decolorizing agent, alcohol is added, removes crystal violet from thin layers of peptidoglycan, making them colorless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Fourth step in gram staining

A

A counterstain, safranin, is added and color the decolorized thin layers of peptidoglycan pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Acid fast stain purpose

A

differentiates between two types of gram+ cells: those that have waxy mycolic acid in their cell wall, and those that don’t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

First step in acid fast staining

A

waxy, acid fast cells will retain the carbolfuchsin after a decolorizing agent is added (acid-alcohol solution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Second step in acid fast staining

A

a secondary counterstain, methylene blue, is then applied which renders non acid fast cells blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Capsule staining technique

A

negative staining technique used, capsules cannot pick up dye, appear as halo around cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

common negative stains for capsule staining

A

india ink or nigrosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

endospore staining first step

A

Schaeffer-Fulton method uses heat to push primary stain (malachite green) into the endospore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

endospore staining second step

A

wash with water to decolorize the cell, endospore remain green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

endospore staining third step

A

cell is counterstained pink w/ safranin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Important genera of endospore producing bacteria

A

Bacillus and Clostridium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Flagella staining

A

thickens flagella w/ mordant (tamic acid or potassium alum) which coats the flagella; specimen is stained w/ pararosaniline or basic fuchsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Cell wall function

A

envelops cell membrane, protecting the cell from changes in osmotic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

isotonic medium

A

solute concentration equal in and out of cell; water moves equally in and out of cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

hypertonic medium

A

solute concentration greater outside the cell, water diffuses out of cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

hypotonic solution

A

solute concentration greater inside the cell, water diffuses into cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

plasmoslysis

A

cell membrane shrinks and detaches from cell wall in a hypertonic solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

tugor pressure

A

pressure of cell membrane’s expansion on the cell wall when a cell is in a hypotonic environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Nucleoid-associated proteins

A

assist in the packing and organization of the chromosome in prokaryotic organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Plasmids

A

small, circular, double-stranded DNA molecules found in some prokaryotic cells that are not part of the chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Prokaryotic ribosomes

A

made from proteins and RNA, found in cytoplasm, called 70S ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Inclusions

A

some prokaryotic cells have ability to store excess nutrients within cytoplasmic structures called inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

endospores

A

structures that protect the cell in a dormant state when environmental conditions are unfavorable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Sporulation

A

the process by which vegetative cells transform into endospores:
dna replicates, septum forms around DNA, divides cell asymmetrically, …, endospore is released upon disintegration of mother cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

germination

A

process of a cell becoming vegetative again after being an endospore; cell becomes metabolically active again and is able to perform all its normal functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Fluid mosaic model

A

refers to the ability of the cell membrane components to move fluidly within the plane of the membrane, as well as the mosaic like composition of the components (lipids and proteins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

plasma membrane structure

A

bilayer composed of phospholipids formed w/ ester linkages and proteins (for bacteria and eukaryotes) can be monolayer for some archaea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

passive transport (simple diffusion)

A

molecules moving from higher concentration to lower concentration across membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

facilitated diffusion

A

a type of passive transport in which larger molecules that need carriers (protein channels in the membrane) that ferry them across the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

active transport

A

cell moves molecules across their membrane against the concentration gradient, require ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Group translocation

A

molecule moves into cell against gradient and is chemically modified so that it does not require transport against an unfavorable concentration gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

photosynthetic membrane structures

A

infolding of the plasma membrane that encloses photosynthetic pigments such as green chlorophylls and bacteriochlorophylls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

composition of peptidoglycan

A

long chains of alternating molecules of N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

gram positive bacteria cell wall

A

cell wall consisting of many layers of peptidoglycan and are commonly embedded with teichoic acid, carbohydrate chains that extend through and beyond the peptidoglycan layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Gram negative bacteria cell wall

A

thin layer of peptidoglycan, periplasmic space, outermembrane w/ lipoproteins and porein proteins embedded. outer leaflet of outermembrane contains lipopolysaccharide (LPS), which functions as an endotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

glycoalyces

A

structures exterior to the cell wall, a sugar coat, two important types: capsules and slime layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

capsules

A

organized layer outside of the cell wall and usually composed of polysacchs or proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

slime layers

A

loosely attached to cell wall, composed of polysacchs, glycoproteins, or glycolipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

function of glycoalyces

A

allow cell to adhere to surfaces aiding in the formation of biofilms. protects them from desiccation, predation, and hinders the action of antibiotics and disinfectants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

filamentous appendages functions

A

attach to other surfaces, transfer DNA, or provide movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

filamentous appendages types

A

fimbriae, pili, and flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

fimbriae

A

short, bristle like proteins that extend out of the cell surface by the hundreds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

fimbriae functions

A

enable a cell to attach to surfaces and other cells; pathogenic bacteria adherence to host cells is important for colonization, infectivity, and virulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

pili

A

longer, less numerous protein appendages that aid in the attachment to surfaces and transfer of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

flagella

A

stiff, spiral filaments that are composed of flagellin protein subunits and act as motors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

polar flagella

A

flagella located at one or both ends of a bacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

peritrichous flagella

A

flagella that cover the entire surface of a bacterial cell

136
Q

polar arrangements of flagella

A

monotrichous (one flagella), amphitrichous (two flagella on opposite ends), and lophotrichous (many flagella on one end)

137
Q

flagella movement

A

increasing the length of runs and decreasing lengths of tumbles

138
Q

phototaxis

A

bacteria move in response to light

139
Q

magnetotaxis

A

bacteria move in response to magnetic fields

140
Q

chemotaxis

A

bacteria move in response to chemical gradients

141
Q

axial filaments

A

endoflagella that are located in periplasmic space and wraps around the cell giving it a corkscrew shape (spirochetes, spirilla), aids in movement

142
Q

Mycobacterium

A

genera of acid-fast bacilli that are covered in a waxy coat of mycolic acid

143
Q

classes of Gram positive bacteria

A

Actinobacteria and Bacilli

144
Q

Class Actinobacteria

A

comprises high G+C gram positive bacteria, which have more than 50% guanine and cytosine nucleotides in their DNA

145
Q

Class Bacilli

A

comprises low G+C gram+ bacteria, which have less than 50% guanine and cytosine nucleotides in their DNA.

146
Q

Mycoplasmas

A

genera of bacteria that do not posses a cell wall

147
Q

chemotherapy

A

broad term that refers to any use of chemicals or drugs to treat disease

148
Q

antimicrobial drugs

A

typically destroy or interfere w/ microbial structures or enzymes either killing microbial cells or inhibiting their growth

149
Q

factors important when choosing an antimicrobial drug

A

bacteriostatic vs bactericidal mechanisms, spectrum of activity, dosage and route of administration, potential side effects, and potential interactions between drugs

150
Q

bacteriostatic drugs

A

cause reversible inhibition of growth, with bacterial growth restarting after elimination of drug

151
Q

bactericidal drug

A

kill their target bacteria

152
Q

spectrum of activity

A

relates to the diversity of targeted bacteria: narrow spectrum or broad spectrum

153
Q

narrow-spectrum drug

A

only targets specific subsets of bacterial pathogens (ex: targeting only gram positive cells)

154
Q

broad-spectrum drug

A

targets a wide variety of bacterial pathogens, can harm normal microbiota

155
Q

superinfection

A

a secondary infection in a patient having a preexisting infection (broad-spectrum antibiotic can cause this)

156
Q

dosage

A

amount of medication given during a certain interval of time

157
Q

factors to consider when selecting dosage

A

patient’s mass, consideration for how drugs are metabolized and eliminated, half-life of drug

158
Q

half-life

A

rate at which 50% of the drug is eliminated from plasma (time in between doses), longer half-life=more serious side effects

159
Q

route of administration

A

method used to introduce drug to body

160
Q

drug interactions

A

a drug’s inaction w/ another drug: synergistic or antagonistic

161
Q

synergistic interactions

A

two antibacterial drugs administered together that are better than either drug alone

162
Q

antagonistic interactions

A

effects depend on drugs involved by may cause: loss of drug activity, decreased therapeutic levels due to increased metabolism and elimination, or increased potential toxicity due to decreased metabolism and elimination

163
Q

selective toxicity

A

selectively killing or inhibiting growth of a microbial target while causing minimal damage to no harm to the host

164
Q

modes of action (for antibacterial drugs)

A

the way in which a drug affects microbes at a cellular level: inhibitors of cell wall synthesis, inhibit biosynthesis of proteins, disrupt membranes, inhibit nucleic acid synthesis, inhibit metabolic processes, inhibit ATP production

165
Q

Therapeutic Index

A

difference between the dose given to the patient and the dose that would cause side effects in the patient

166
Q

inhibitors of cell wall synthesis

A

several different classes of antibacterials block steps in the biosynthesis of peptidoglycan, making cells more susceptible to osmotic lysis and are bactericidal in action

167
Q

Beta-Lactam Drugs function (inhibitors of cell wall synthesis)

A

block the crosslinking of peptide chains during the biosynthesis of new peptidoglycan in the bacterial cell wall

168
Q

Beta-Lactam drug types

A

penicillin, cephalosporins, monobactam (aztreonam), carbapenems

169
Q

Penicillins

A

penicillin G and V are natural antibiotics from fungi. semisynthetic penicillins include: ampicillin, amoxicillin, and methicillin

170
Q

Cephalosporins

A

cephalosporin C is a natural antibiotic derived from fungi. semisynthetic cephalosporins include: first, second, third, fourth, and fifth generation cephalosporins

171
Q

monobactam

A

only drug used is aztreonam, narrow-spectrum against gram- bacteria and is semisynthetic

172
Q

Carbapenams

A

semisynthetic, broad-spectrum active against gram+ and gram- pathogens

173
Q

glycopeptide function (inhibitor of cell wall synthesis)

A

binds to end of peptide chain of cell wall precursors, creating a structural blockage that prevents cell wall subunits from being incorporated into peptidoglycan structure.

174
Q

vancomycin

A

member of class glycopeptide. natural antibiotic that is bactericidal towards gram+ bacteria

175
Q

Bacitracin (cell wall synthesis inhibitor)

A

drug that blocks the activity of a specific cell-membrane molecule that is responsible for the movement of peptidoglycan precursors, preventing their incorporation into the cell wall. broad-spectrum against gram+ and gram-

176
Q

aminoglycosides function (protein synthesis inhibitor)

A

bind to the 30S subunit of bacterial ribosomes, impairing the proofreading ability of the ribosomal complex which creates faulty proteins that kill the bacterial cells

177
Q

aminoglycoside types

A

streptomycin, gentamycin, neomycin, and kanamycin are broad spectrum bactericidal drugs

178
Q

tetracyclines function (inhibitor of protein synthesis)

A

blocks the association of tRNA w/ the ribosome during translocation

179
Q

tetracycline types

A

a natural antibacterial but semisynthetic versions include: doxycycline and tigecycline, which are bacteriostatic broad-spectrum antibacterials

180
Q

Protein synthesis inhibitors that bind to the 50S subunit function

A

block elongation of proteins by inhibiting peptide bond formation between specific combinations of amino acids

181
Q

Classes of 50S protein synthesis inhibitors

A

macrolides, lincosamides, oxazolidinones

182
Q

Macrolides types (50S protein inhibitors)

A

natural erythromycin, semisynthetic azithromycin and telithromycin are broad-spectrum bacteriostatic

183
Q

lincosamides types (50S protein synthesis inhibitors)

A

natural lincomycin and semisynthetic clindamycin which are narrow spectrum bacteriostatic

184
Q

chloramphenicol (50S inhibitor)

A

not a drug class, bacteriostatic and broad-spectrum. causes anemia by targeting mitochondrial ribosomes within hemopoietic stem cells

185
Q

oxazolidinone function (50S inhibitor)

A

interferes w/ the formation of the initiation complex for translocation and then prevents translocation of the growing protein from ribosomal A site to P site

186
Q

oxazolidinone types (50S inhibitor)

A

include drug linezolid, a broad-spectrum bacteriostatic

187
Q

Classes of membrane function inhibitors

A

polymyxins, lipopeptides

188
Q

Polymyxin function (membrane function inhibitor)

A

interact w/ LPS in the outer membrane of gram- bacteria, killing the cell through the eventual disruption of the outer and cytoplasmic membrane

189
Q

Polymyxin types

A

polymyxin B and E (colistin) are natural, narrow-spectrum against gram- bacteria, bactericidal

190
Q

Lipopeptide function (membrane function inhibitor)

A

insert into the cytoplasmic membrane of gram+ bacteria, disrupting the cell membrane and killing the cell

191
Q

Lipopeptide types

A

daptomycin is a natural, narrow-spectrum against gram+ bacteria, bactericidal

192
Q

Classes of Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis

A

rifamycin and fluoroquinolones

193
Q

Rifamycin function (inhibitor of nucleic acid synthesis)

A

inhibit bacterial RNA polymerase activity, blocks transcription, killing the cell

194
Q

Rifamycin types

A

rifamycin is semisynthetic narrow-spectrum w/ activity against gram+ and limited gram-, bactericidal. active against M. tuberculosis.

195
Q

Fluoroquinolone function (nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor)

A

inhibit activity of DNA gyrase and block DNA replication, killing the cell

196
Q

Fluoroquinolone types

A

ciprofloxacin, ofloxacin, moxifloxacin, levofloxacin are semisynthetic, broad-spectrum, bactericidal drugs

197
Q

Sulfonamides and sulfones function (inhibitors of metabolic pathways)

A

target folic acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme involved in the production of dihydrofolic acid, are structural analogs of PABA

198
Q

Sulfonamides and sulfone types

A

sulfamethoxazole (sulfonamide) and dapsone (sulfone) are synthetic, bacteriostatic, broad spectrum drugs

199
Q

Trimethoprim (inhibitor of metabolic pathways)

A

targets folic acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme involved in the production of tetrahydrofolic acid, structural analog of dihydrofolic acid. synthetic, bacteriostatic, broad-spectrum

200
Q

Isoniazid (inhibitor of metabolic pathways)

A

prevents mycolic acid synthesis, which is essential for mycobacterial cell walls. narrow-spectrum against Mycobacterium spp.

201
Q

Inhibitor of ATP synthase

A

synthetic class called the diaryquinolones use novel mode of action that specifically inhibits mycobacterial growth

202
Q

Diarylquinolone function (inhibitor of ATP synthase)

A

bedaquiline appears to interfere w/ the function of ATP synthases, perhaps by interfering w/ the use of hydrogen ion gradient, leading to reduced ATP production

203
Q

Antifungal drugs’ mode of action

A

most common mode of action is the disruption of cell membrane, take advantage of the small differences between human and fungi in the biochemical pathways that synthesize sterols.

204
Q

factors that accelerate the evolution of drug resistance

A

overuse and misuse of antimicrobial, inappropriate use of antimicrobials, subtherapeutic dosing, and patient non compliance w/ the recommended course of treatment

205
Q

mechanisms for drug resistance

A

enzymatic modification of drug, modification of antimicrobial target, prevention of drug penetration, prevention of drug accumulation

206
Q

drug modification or inactivation

A

resistant genes may code for enzymes that modify an antimicrobial, inactivating it or destroying it through hydrolysis

207
Q

drugs that drug modification or inactivation targets

A

aminoglycosides, beta-lactams, rifampin, macrolides, and lincosamides

208
Q

prevention of cellular uptake

A

inhibiting accumulation of drug, which prevents it from getting to its target. Can involve changes in the outer membrane lipid composition, porin channel selectivity, and/or porin channel concentrations

209
Q

efflux pump

A

prevent accumulation of drug by actively transporting them out of the cell. a single efflux pump can pump multiple types of antimicrobials

210
Q

drugs effected by efflux pumps

A

beta-lactams, tetracycline, and fluoroquinolones

211
Q

target modification

A

many antimicrobial drugs have specific targets, structural modifications to those targets can prevent drug binding rendering the drug ineffective

212
Q

target overpopulation

A

microbe may overproduce the target enzyme so that they are enough to carry out proper enzymatic action

213
Q

enzymatic bypass

A

bacterial cell may develop a bypass that circumvents the need of the functional target enzyme

214
Q

target mimicry

A

involves the production of proteins that bind and sequester drugs, preventing the drugs from binding to their target

215
Q

multidrug-resistant microbes

A

known as “superbugs” and carry one or more resistance mechanisms making them resistant to multiple antimicrobials

216
Q

cross-resistance

A

a single mechanism that confers resistance to multiple antimicrobial drugs (efflux pump)

217
Q

ESKAPE pathogens

A

important superbugs: Enterococcus faecium, Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Acinetobacter baumannii, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Enterobacter spp.

218
Q

MRSA

A

methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. opportunistic pathogens that can be spread at hospitals

219
Q

VRE, VRSA, VISA

A

vancomycin-resistant enterococci, vancomycin-resistant S.aureus, and vancomycin-intermediate S. aureus resist by target modification involving structural changes to the peptide component of peptidoglycan, preventing vancomycin from binding

220
Q

antimicrobial susceptibility testing

A

testing the effectiveness of antimicrobial drugs in a clinical lab

221
Q

Kirby-Bauer Disk Diffusion test

A

only provides info on the antibacterials to a bacterial pathogen is susceptible or resistant. measured by zone of inhibition

222
Q

Dilution tests

A

used to determine a particular drug’s minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) and the minimal bactericidal concentration

223
Q

minimal inhibitory concentration

A

lowest concentration of a drug that inhibits the visible growth of bacteria

224
Q

Minimal bactericidal concentration

A

lowest concentration of a drug that kills greater than or equal to 99.9% of bacteria

225
Q

macronutrients

A

make up 99% of dry weight of cells and include hydrogen, carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphorus, and sulfur

226
Q

complex (undefined) media

A

contain all of CHONPS in an organic form plus growth factors that allow fastidious bacteria to grow. exact chemical composition of components is unknown

227
Q

substances that make a media undefined

A

extract/digests of plants, animals, yeasts. Peptone, yeast extract, BHI, animal tissue, pancreatic digest casein

228
Q

micronutrients (trace elements)

A

required by some cells in very small amount and include sodium, potassium, magnesium, zinc, iron, calcium, molybdenum, copper, cobalt, manganese, or vanadium

229
Q

isomers

A

molecules w/ same atomic makeup but different structural arrangements

230
Q

structural isomers

A

compounds that have identical molecular formula but different bonding sequences

231
Q

stereoisomers

A

isomers that differ in spatial arrangement of atoms

232
Q

Macromolecules

A

carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, nucleic acids

233
Q

functions of carbohydrates

A

energy, storage, structure

234
Q

functions of lipids

A

energy storage, membrane structure

235
Q

functions of nucleic acids

A

storage, transfer of genetic material, protein synthesis instructions

236
Q

function of proteins

A

enzymes, receptors, transport, structure

237
Q

monosaccharides

A

simplest carbohydrate. building blocks, monomers, for the synthesis of polymers

238
Q

disaccharides

A

two monosaccharides linked together by a covalent glycosidic bond

239
Q

polysaccharides

A

polymer composed of hundreds of monosaccharides. cellulose makes up cell walls in plants, glycogen stores energy in animals and bacteria, starch stores energy in plants

240
Q

fatty acid

A

lipid monomer. saturated and unsaturated fatty acids

241
Q

triglyceride

A

lipid monomer. 3 fatty acids chemically linked to a glycerol molecule

242
Q

phospholipids

A

complex lipids that contain a phosphate group in addition to 2 fatty acids and glycerol

243
Q

isoprenoids

A

branched lipids that are formed by chemical modifications of the isoprene molecule. found in hydrophobic oils and waxes

244
Q

sterols

A

steroids, another type of lipid. found in cell membrane (cholesterol in animals, ergosterol in fungi, similar compound in bacteria called hopanoid)

245
Q

peptides

A

50 or fewer amino acids linked together

246
Q

polypeptides

A

synthesized from up to 50 amino acids. multiple are used as subunits to build proteins

247
Q

primary structure

A

sequence of amino acids that make up the peptide chain

248
Q

Secondary structure

A

H bonding between amine and carbonyl groups, resulting in localized folding

249
Q

Tertiary structure

A

large scale, 3-D shape of a single polypeptide chain. formed by interaction between R groups of amino acids

250
Q

Interactions (tertiary protein structure)

A

disulfide bridges, H bonds, ionic bonds, hydrophobic interactions

251
Q

Quaternary Structure

A

assemblies of several separate polypeptides, proteins are subunits

252
Q

Conjugated proteins

A

proteins w/ a nonprotein portion, are important components of membranes

253
Q

denaturation

A

unfolded proteins, implies loss of secondary, tertiary, and/or quaternary structure w/o loss of primary structure

254
Q

defined media

A

complete chemical composition of the media is known

255
Q

types of defined media

A

agar, agar+salts (AS), agar+salts+glucose (ASG)

256
Q

selective media

A

inhibit growth of unwanted microorganisms and support growth of the organism of interest by supplying nutrient and reducing competition

257
Q

types of selective media

A

phenylethyl alcohol agar (PEA) and MacConkey agar (MAC)

258
Q

Differential media

A

makes it easy to distinguish between colonies of different bacteria by a change in color of the colonies or the color of the medium

259
Q

types of differential media

A

MacConkey agar (MAC)

260
Q

prokaryotic reproduction

A

always asexual, although horizontal gene transfer can take place

261
Q

bacterial chromosome

A

most have single circular chromosome, some exceptions exist (B. burgdorferi has a linear chromosome)

262
Q

binary fission

A

most common method of replication in bacteria. creates two identical daughter cells

263
Q

generation time

A

in eukaryotes, time between the same points in the life cycle between two successive generations

264
Q

doubling time

A

generation time but for prokaryotes. time it takes for the population to double through one round of binary fission

265
Q

growth curve

A

microorganisms grown in a closed culture follow the same reproductive growth pattern of a lag phase, log phase, stationary phase, and death phase

266
Q

lag phase

A

cells are gearing up for the next phase of growth. number of cells does not change, cells are growing larger and are metabolically active

267
Q

log phase

A

cells are actively dividing by binary fission and their numbers are increasing exponentially

268
Q

stationary phase

A

total number of living cells reaches plateau, number of new cells is equal to number of cells dying. cells switch to survival mode of metabolism, those can can undergo sporulation

269
Q

death phase

A

medium’s nutrient are depleted, cells die in greater numbers than they are being produced

270
Q

fragmentation

A

alternate pattern of cell division. many nucleoids that accumulate in an enlarged round cell or along a filament, leading to the generation of many new cells at once

271
Q

budding

A

forms a long extension at one pole, the tip of the extension swells and forms a smaller cell, the bud eventually detaches from the parent cell

272
Q

oxygen revolution

A

cyanobacteria starting releasing oxygen as byproduct, which lead to more oxygen in the atmosphere, killing all organisms that could not survive against reactive oxygen species

273
Q

reactive oxygen species

A

highly unstable ions that can damage any macromolecule or structure they come in contact with. singlet oxygen, superoxide, peroxides, hydroxyl radical, and hypochlorite ion

274
Q

obligate aerobes

A

cannot grow w/o abundant supply of oxygen

275
Q

obligate anaerobes

A

killed by presence of atmospheric oxygen

276
Q

facultative anaerobes

A

thrive in presence of oxygen but also grow w/o it using fermentation or anaerobic respiration

277
Q

aerotolerant anaerobes

A

do not use oxygen in their fermentative metabolism but aren’t harmed by it

278
Q

microaerophiles

A

require minimum, specific level of oxygen for growth

279
Q

obligate aerobes environment

A

found in presence of oxygen, on human skin

280
Q

obligate anaerobe environment

A

places devoid of oxygen such as deep sediments of soil, still waters, bottom of the deep ocean, intestinal tracts of animals

281
Q

facultative anaerobe environment

A

found in upper respiratory tract of humans

282
Q

aerotolerant bacteria environment

A

found in human mouth

283
Q

microaerophile environment

A

found in gastrointestinal tract of humans

284
Q

optimum oxygen concentration

A

the ideal oxygen concentration for a microorganism

285
Q

minimum oxygen concentration

A

lowest concentration of oxygen that allows growth

286
Q

maximum oxygen concentration

A

highest tolerated concentration of oxygen

287
Q

enzymes that break down reactive oxygen species

A

superoxide dismutase, peroxidase, and catalase

288
Q

peroxidases

A

oxidize peroxides to water

289
Q

superoxide dismutase

A

breaks down superoxide anions

290
Q

catalase

A

converts hydrogen peroxide to H2O and O2

291
Q

neutrophiles

A

organisms that grow optimally within 1-2 pH from neutral. most bacteria are neutrophiles

292
Q

fungi pH

A

thrive at slightly acidic pH of 5-6

293
Q

acidophiles

A

microorganisms that grow optimally at a pH of less than 5.5

294
Q

alkaliphiles

A

organisms that grow best at pH of 8-10.5

295
Q

mesophiles

A

adapted to moderate temperatures of 20-45 degrees C

296
Q

psychrotrophs

A

prefer colder environments of 4-25 degrees C

297
Q

psychrophiles

A

grow at below 0 to 20 degrees C

298
Q

thermophiles

A

grow at optimum temps of 50 to 80 degrees C

299
Q

hyperthermophiles

A

grow at 80-110 degrees C

300
Q

halophiles

A

require high salt concentrations for growth (3.5%)

301
Q

extreme halophiles

A

grow in hypersaline environments such as the great salt lake and the dead sea

302
Q

halotolerant

A

do not need high salt concentrations to grow, but will survive and divide in presence of high salt

303
Q

glycolysis

A

means the breaking of glucose, used to generate ATP and as the first step in cellular respiration and fermentation

304
Q

glycolysis process

A

energy investment of 2 ATP to modify glucose molecule split into 2 phosphorylated 3 carbon molecules called glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

305
Q

energy investment phase (glycolysis)

A

energy investment of 2 ATP to modify glucose molecule split into 2 phosphorylated 3 carbon molecules called glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

306
Q

energy payoff phase (glycolysis)

A

oxidizes glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate into two pyruvate, producing 4 ATP and reducing 2 NAD+ to NADH, using electrons that originated from glucose

307
Q

substrate level phosphorylation

A

how ATP produces by glycolysis and kreb’s cycle are formed. phosphate group is removed from an organic molecule and directly transferred to ADP molecule, making ATP

308
Q

products of glycolysis

A

4 ATP (2 net gain), 2 NADH (goes to electron transport chain), and 2 pyruvate (goes to krebs/transition stage)

309
Q

glycolysis location

A

occurs in cytoplasm

310
Q

transition reaction

A

pyruvate must be converted to a 2-carbon acetyl group to enter kreb’s cycle. Pyruvate becomes coenzyme A (CoA)

311
Q

products of transition reaction

A

(for two pyruvates) 2 CoA, 2 NADH, 2 CO2

312
Q

transition reaction location

A

occurs in mitochondrial matrix of eukaryotes; cytoplasm of prokaryotes

313
Q

Kreb’s cycle

A

8 step cycle that transfers the remaining electrons from acetyl group to electron carrier molecules, thus reducing them

314
Q

Kreb’s cycle products

A

2 ATP, 4 CO2, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2

315
Q

Kreb’s cycle location

A

mitochondrial matrix in eukaryotes; cytoplasm in prokaryotes

316
Q

cellular respiration

A

process of producing ATP, begins when electrons are transferred from carriers through a series of chemical reactions to a final inorganic electron acceptor

317
Q

electron transport system

A

last component involved in cellular respiration; it is a series of chemical reactions in that electrons from NADH and FADH2 are passed rapidly from one ETS electron carrier to the next

318
Q

redox potential

A

for a protein or chemical to accept electrons, it must have a more positive redox potential than its electron donor. electrons move from carriers w/ more negative redox potential to those w/ more positive redox potential

319
Q

aerobic respiration

A

uses oxygen as its final electron acceptor that becomes reduced to water (H2O)

320
Q

anaerobic respiration

A

uses a different inorganic molecule as its final electron acceptor (nitrite, nitrate, carbonate, sulfate) and less ATP is formed through anaerobic respiration compared to aerobic

321
Q

proton motive force

A

the ETS creates an uneven distribution of protons across the membrane and forms an electrochemical gradient known as the proton motive force

322
Q

oxidative phophorylation

A

creates ATP using the potential energy from the PMF through ATP synthase

323
Q

ATP synthase

A

H+ ions diffuse across membrane through ATP synthase, which acts as a generator and generates ATP from ADP harnessing the energy from the protons moving through

324
Q

Electron transport system products

A

6 H2O, 34 ATP

325
Q

Yield of ATP from aerobic respiration

A

2 ATP from glycolysis, 2 ATP from Kreb’s cycle, 34 ATP from oxidative phosphorylation

326
Q

Yield of ATP from anaerobic respiration

A

2 ATP from glycolysis, 2 ATP from kreb’s, 1-32 ATP from oxidative phosphorylation

327
Q

reasons why some cells cannot respirate

A

cells lack sufficient amount of inorganic final electron acceptor, cell lacks genes to make appropriate complexes and electron carriers, cell lacks genes to make one or more enzymes in the kreb’s cycle

328
Q

fermentation

A

the purpose of fermentation is to ensure an adequate supply of NAD+ for glycolysis so the cell can produce energy

329
Q

lactic acid fermentation

A

pyruvate + NADH -> lactic acid + NAD+

produces lactic acid as byproduct of producing NAD+ for glycolysis

330
Q

lactic acid fermentation equation

A

C6H12O6 -> 2CH3CH(OH)COOH + energy (2 ATP)

331
Q

alcohol fermentation

A

creates ethanol as byproduct of producing NAD+ for glycolysis

332
Q

alcohol fermentation equation

A

C6H12O6 -> 2CH3CH2OH + 2 CO2 + energy (2 ATP)

333
Q

different fermentation products

A

fermentation products depend on requirements of organism and their DNA. microbes can be differentiated according to the substrates they ferment

334
Q

photoautotroph

A

get their energy from light and use an inorganic carbon sourse

335
Q

chemoautotroph

A

get their energy from chemicals and use an inorganic carbon source

336
Q

photoheterotroph

A

get their energy from light and use an organic carbon source

337
Q

chemoheterotroph

A

get their energy from chemical and use an organic carbon source