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unit 7 (specific adaptive immunity) Flashcards

1
Q

adaptive immunity defined by two characteristics

A

specificity and memory

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2
Q

specificity definition

A

refers to the adaptive immune system’s ability to target specific pathogens

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3
Q

memory definition

A

refers to adaptive immune system’s ability to quickly respond to pathogens to which it has been previously exposed

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4
Q

primary response definition

A

immune system’s first exposure to a pathogen or vaccine

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5
Q

secondary response definition

A

subsequent exposure to pathogen that is faster and stronger as a result of the body’s memory of the first exposure

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6
Q

adaptive specific immunity involves two distinct cell types:

A

B lymphocytes (B cells) and T lymphocytes (T cells)

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7
Q

B cells mature in ___ and are responsible for ___

A

mature in bone marrow and are responsible for production of glycoproteins called antibodies or immunoglobulins

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8
Q

humoral immunity definition

A

mechanisms of the adaptive specific immunity that involve B cells and antibody production

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9
Q

T cells mature in ___ and are responsible for ___

A

mature in the thymus and are responsible for destruction of cells with intracellular pathogens and orchestration of both innate and adaptive immune responses

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10
Q

cellular immunity (cell-mediated) definition

A

immunity involving the targeting and destruction of intracellular pathogens by T cells

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11
Q

antigen definition

A

pathogen-specific molecular structures that trigger activation of adaptive immune defenses

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12
Q

antigenic definition

A

a molecule that stimulates antibody production

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13
Q

antigen belong to what macromolecule

A

carbs, proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, and combinations of these molecules

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14
Q

most effective and potent antigen

A

proteins are capable of stimulating both humoral and cellular immunity

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15
Q

epitopes definition

A

very specific smaller exposed regions on the surface of antigens where antibodies bind

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16
Q

haptens

A

molecules that are too small to be antigens themselves, essentially free epitopes

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17
Q

antibodies are __ and present in __

A

glycoproteins and present in blood and tissues fluids

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18
Q

antibody structure

A

four chains held together by disulfide bonds, two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains formed into Y shape

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19
Q

Fab region (of antigen)

A

two arms of Y shaped antibody molecule

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20
Q

Fab stands for

A

fragment of antigen binding

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21
Q

variable region

A

far end of the Fab region which serves as the site of antigen binding

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22
Q

binding to the Fab region is necessary for

A

neutralization of pathogens, agglutination or aggregation of pathogens, and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity

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23
Q

constant region

A

includes trunk of Y and lower portion of each arm of the Y

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24
Q

Fc region

A

trunk of the Y, site of complement factor binding and binding to phagocytic cells during antibody-mediated opsonization

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25
Q

classes of antibodies

A

IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, and IgE

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26
Q

IgG antibody characteristics

A

monomer that is most abundant antibody. penetrates tissues effectively, only antibody that can cross placental barrier. most versatile antibody class in terms of role in body’s defense against pathogens. able to activate complement

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27
Q

IgM antibody characteristics

A

monomeric membrane bound form that serves as an antigen-binding receptor on B cells. secreted IgM has pentameric form that is the first antibody produced and secreted by B cells during primary and secondary immune response. able to activate complement and secreted IgM is able to neutralize a lot of antigens due to its form

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28
Q

IgA antibody characteristics

A

secretory IgA is most abundant antibody class in mucus secretions, assembled into a dimeric form making it resistant to degradation by proteases, able to trap pathogens in mucus

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29
Q

IgD antibody characteristics

A

membrane-bound monomer found on surface of B cells, serving as an antigen binding receptor. not secreted by B cells, may be important in the lung and in inhibiting self-reactive B cells in other peripheral tissues

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30
Q

IgE antibody characteristics

A

secreted as a monomer, role in adaptive immunity limited to anti-parasitic defenses. Fc region binds to basophils and mast cells, Fab region interacts w/ antigen specific epitopes, causing the cells to release pro-inflammatory mediators. this reaction aids in defense against parasites, but also central to allergic reactions

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31
Q

antibody functions

A

neutralization of pathogens, opsonization for phagocytosis, agglutination, complement activation, and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity

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32
Q

Neutralization

A

involves the binding of certain antibodies to epitopes on surface of pathogens or toxins, preventing their attachment to cells

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33
Q

opsonization with antibodies

A

IgG serves as opsonin that bind to specific epitopes on surface of pathogen and macrophages, dendritic cells, and neutrophils have receptors that bind to the IgG

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34
Q

agglutination or aggregation

A

involves the cross-linking of pathogens by antibodies to create large aggregates making it easier to filter out from blood and easier for phagocytes to ingest for destruction

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35
Q

complement cascade activation by antibodies

A

initial binding of IgG or IgM to the surface of a pathogen cell, allowing for recruitment and activation of the C1 complex

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36
Q

antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)

A

occurs when Fab region of an IgG antibody binds to a large pathogen; Fc receptors on effector cells (NK cells) then bind to Fc region of antibody, effector cell release cytokines perforin and granzyme that kill the pathogen

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37
Q

MHC molecules function

A

expressed on surface of healthy cells, identifying them as “self” to NK cells, play important role in presentation of foreign antigens

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38
Q

cells that express MHC molecules

A

MHC found on surface of all nucleated cells of the body, RBCs are only cell that do not express MHC molecules

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39
Q

MHC I molecules

A

found on all nucleated cells; they present normal self-antigens as well as abnormal or nonself pathogens to the effector T cells

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40
Q

MHC II molecules

A

only found on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells (APCs); they present abnormal or non-self pathogen antigens for initial activation of T cells

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41
Q

dendritic cell and macrophage antigen presentation

A

pathogen phagocytized, protease degrades pathogen, most antigenic epitope associate w/ antigen binding cleft of MHC II molecule in the phagolysosome, antigen-MHC II complex translocated to cell surface for presentation to T cells

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42
Q

Self-antigen epitopes

A

self-antigen epitopes bind within the MHC I antigen-binding cleft and then are presented on the cell surface for NK cells to recognize and not target the cell for destruction

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43
Q

cross presentation

A

subset of dendritic cells are able to take foreign antigen from their environment and present the antigen on MHC I without infection

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44
Q

intracellular pathogens

A

pathogen that have already gained entry into host cells

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45
Q

t cells are formed in

A

bone marrow

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46
Q

first steps of T cell differentiation happen in

A

red bone marrow

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47
Q

final steps of T cell maturation occur in

A

thymus

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48
Q

thymic selection definition

A

in the thymus, immature T lymphocytes go through a maturation and selection process

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49
Q

First step in thymic selection

A

development of T cell receptors (TCRs), T cells w/ defective TCRs are removed by negative selection through induction of apoptosis

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50
Q

Second step in thymic selection

A

involves positive selection of T cells that will interact appropriately w/ MHC molecules that move further in the process of maturation, T cells interacting inappropriately w/ MHC are eliminated by apoptosis

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51
Q

Third (final) step in thymic selection

A

involves negative selection to remove self-reactive T cells by apoptosis

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52
Q

central tolerance

A

third and final step of thymic selection prevent self-reacting T cells from entering the blood stream and potentially causing an autoimmune disease

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53
Q

peripheral tolerance

A

second line of defense against self-reacting T cells that enter the bloodstream. involves mechanisms of anergy and regulatory T cells (Treg)

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54
Q

anergy definition

A

refers to a state of non-responsiveness to antigen stimulation

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55
Q

anergy in peripheral tolerance

A

self-reactive T cells that escape the thymus will have a lack of a co-stimulatory signal required for activation, causing anergy and prevents autoimmune function

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56
Q

Treg cells in peripheral tolerance

A

inhibit the activation and function of self-reactive T cells and secrete anti-inflammatory cytokines

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57
Q

T cell location after maturation

A

exit the thymus through the bloodstream and lymphatic system to secondary lymph organs such as lymph nodes, tonsils, spleen

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58
Q

naive T cells definition

A

inactivated T cells that wait for activation through the presentation of specific antigens by APCs

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59
Q

classes of T cells

A

helper T cells, regulatory T cells, cytotoxic T cells

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60
Q

CD molecules function

A

cluster of differentiation molecules are used to identify and distinguish between various types of WBCs

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61
Q

cells with CD4

A

helper T cells, regulatory T cells

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62
Q

cells with CD8

A

cytotoxic T cells

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63
Q

CD4 cells are activated by antigen presented on

A

APCs presenting antigens associated w/ MHC II

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64
Q

CD8 cells are activated by antigens presented on

A

MHC I by a subset of dendritic cells or by nucleated cells infected w/ an intracellular pathogen

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65
Q

Helper T cells function

A

central orchestrators that help activate and direct functions of humoral and cellular immunity, enhance pathogen killing functions of macrophages and NK cells

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66
Q

regulatory T cells function

A

involved in peripheral tolerance and prevention of autoimmune responses

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67
Q

cytotoxic T cells function

A

primary effector cells for cellular immunity, recognize and target cells that have been infected w/ intracellular pathogens, destroying infected cells along w/ pathogens inside

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68
Q

T-cell receptor (TCR) function

A

involved in first step of pathogen epitope recognition during the activation process

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69
Q

TCR structure

A

similar to antibodies, has variable region and a constant region

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70
Q

TCR epitope specificity achieved by

A

genetic rearrangement which happens in the thymus during the first step of thymic selection

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71
Q

first step in activation of helper T cells

A

TCR recognition of the specific foreign epitope presented within the MHC II antigen-binding cleft

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72
Q

second step in activation of helper T cells

A

involves interaction of CD4 with a region of the MHC II molecule separate from the antigen binding cleft

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73
Q

second interaction in helper T cell activation function

A

ensure that the helper T cell is recognizing both the foreign epitope and the “self” antigen of the APC; both recognitions are required for activation of the cell

74
Q

third step in activation of helper T cells

A

APC and T cell release cytokines that activate the helper T cell, causing it to proliferate and differentiate into helper T cell subtypes with different functions

75
Q

Helper T cell subtypes

A

T helper 1 (TH1) cell, T helper 2 (TH2) cell, T helper 17 (TH17) cell, or a memory helper T cell

76
Q

effector cell definition

A

short-lived cells that perform various functions of the immediate immune response

77
Q

memory helper T cells function

A

long lived cells programmed to remember a specific antigen or epitope in order to mount a rapid, strong, secondary response to subsequent exposures

78
Q

TH1 cell function

A

stimulate cytotoxic T cells to enhance their killing and promote their differentiation into memory cytotoxic cells, stimulate macrophages for more effective intracellular killing of pathogens, stimulate NK cells to kill more effectively

79
Q

TH2 cell function

A

stimulate B cell activation and differentiation into plasma cells and memory B cells, direct antibody class switching in B cells, regulate eosinophils

80
Q

TH17 cells function

A

stimulate immunity and memory to extracellular pathogens, stimulate neutrophils and an inflammation response

81
Q

first step in cytotoxic T cell activation

A

recognition of antigen presented on MHC I receptor

82
Q

second step in cytotoxic T cell activation

A

interaction of CD8 with the MHC receptor complex

83
Q

third step in cytotoxic T cell activation

A

production of cytokines by APC and cytotoxic T cell activate clonal proliferation and differentiation into effector cytotoxic T cells and memory cytotoxic T cells

84
Q

effector cytotoxic T cells function

A

target pathogens for destruction

85
Q

co-stimulation for activation of CD8 T cells

A

proliferation and differentiation is also stimulated by cytokines secreted from TH1 cells activated by the same foreign epitope

86
Q

effector CD8 T cell mechanism of destruction

A

CD8 T cell recognize infected cells through antigen presentation of pathogen-specific epitopes associated with MHC I. TCR of CD8 binds to epitope and releases perforin and granzymes that induce apoptosis

87
Q

superantigens definition

A

bacterial and viral pathogens that produce toxins that cause unregulated and excessive T cell activation

88
Q

superantigen function

A

bind to MHC II molecules of APCs and TCR without specific foreign epitope recognition that results in cytokine storm

89
Q

cytokine storm definition

A

excessive uncontrolled release of cytokines

90
Q

B cells are formed in

A

bone marrow

91
Q

B cells mature in

A

primarily bone marrow, spleen

92
Q

first step in B cell maturation

A

assessment of the functionality of their antigen-binding receptors which occurs through positive selection for B cells w/ normal functioning receptors. negative selection is used to eliminate self-reacting B cells

93
Q

negative selection of self reacting B cells involves elimination by

A

editing or modification of the receptors so they are no longer self-reactive, or induction of anergy in the B cell

94
Q

second step in B cell maturation

A

immature B cells that pass selection in bone marrow travel to the spleen for final stages of maturation where they become naive

95
Q

naive B cell definition

A

mature B cells that have not yet been activated

96
Q

B-cell receptors (BCRs)

A

membrane-bound monomeric forms of IgD and IgM

97
Q

BCRs recognize epitopes on ___

A

free antigens or with epitopes displayed on the surface of an intact pathogen

98
Q

T cell-independent activation of B cells definition

A

activation of B cells without the cooperation of helper T cells, occurs when BCRs interact w/ T-independent antigens

99
Q

first signal in T-cell independent activation of B cell

A

multiple BCRs cross link w/ T-independent antigens, providing first signal of activation

100
Q

T-independent antigens examples

A

polysaccharide capsules, lipopolysaccharide

101
Q

what happens to cells only getting one signal of activation

A

the cell either dies or becomes non-responsive

102
Q

second signal in T-cell independent activation of B cells

A

signal comes from other sources such as interactions of toll-like receptors w/ PAMPs or interactions w/ factors from the complement system

103
Q

third step in T-cell independent activation of B cells

A

undergoes proliferation and differentiates into plasma cells that secrete IgM that have the same antigen specificity as BCRs

104
Q

plasma cells function

A

antibody factories that secrete large quantities of antibodies

105
Q

T cell-dependent activation occurs in response to

A

free protein antigens or to protein antigens associated w/ an intact pathogen

106
Q

First step in T cell-dependent activation of B cells

A

interaction between BCRs and a free protein antigen stimulate internalization of the antigen, interaction w/ antigens associated w/ an intact pathogen initiates the extraction of pathogen before internalization

107
Q

Second step in T cell-dependent activation of B cells

A

protein antigen is processed and present w/ MHC II and recognized by helper T cells specific to the same antigen

108
Q

Third step in T cell-dependent activation of B cells

A

TCR of helper T cell recognizes foreign antigen, CD4 interacts w/ MHC II

109
Q

linked recognition definition

A

coordination of B cells and helper T cells that are specific to the same antigen

110
Q

Fourth step in T cell-dependent activation of B cells

A

TH2 cells release cytokines that activate B cell to proliferate, after several round of proliferation, TH2 cytokines stimulate differentiation of B cells into memory cells and plasma cells

111
Q

antibody class switching process

A

cytokines secreted by TH2 stimulate plasma cells to switch from IgM production to production of IgG, IgA, or IgE

112
Q

primary antibody response initial stage

A

lag period or latent period of approx. 10 days where no antibody can be detected in the serum

113
Q

what happens during the lag period of primary response

A

naive mature B cell binding of antigen w/ BCRs, antigen processing and presentation, helper T cell activation, B cell activation, clonal proliferation, plasma cell production, memory cell programming, antibody production

114
Q

secondary response lag peroid

A

high production of IgG, antibodies produced are more effective and bind w/ higher affinity, plasma cells survive longer leading to antibody levels remaining elevated for a longer period of time

115
Q

active immunity definition

A

refers to activation of an individual’s own adaptive immune defenses

116
Q

passive immunity definition

A

refers to the transfer of adaptive immune defenses from another individual or animal

117
Q

natural active immunity definition

A

adaptive immunity that develops after natural exposure to a pathogen

118
Q

natural passive immunity definition

A

involves natural passage of antibodies from a mother to child before and after birth

119
Q

artificial passive immunity definition

A

refers to the transfer of antibodies produced by donor to another individual

120
Q

artificial active immunity definition

A

involves the activation of adaptive immunity through deliberate exposure of an individual to weakened or inactivated pathogens

121
Q

herd immunity definition

A

majority of population is immune to pathogen, protects susceptible individuals because the disease cannot spread effectively

122
Q

variolation definition

A

refers to the deliberate inoculation of individuals w/ infectious materials from scabs or pustules of smallpox victims

123
Q

classes of vaccines

A

live attenuated, inactive, subunit, toxoid, conjugate

124
Q

live attenuated vaccines contain

A

weakened strain of whole pathogen

125
Q

inactive vaccines contain

A

whole pathogen killed or inactivated w/ heat, chemicals, or radiation

126
Q

subunit vaccines contain

A

key antigens of a pathogen, not whole cells or viruses

127
Q

toxoid vaccines contain

A

inactivated bacterial toxins

128
Q

conjugate vaccines contain

A

capsule polysaccharide conjugated to a protein

129
Q

enzyme immunoassay (EIA) components

A

use antibodies to detect presence of antigens, enzymes, colorless substrate that is converted to colored end product, conducted in microtiter plate

130
Q

widely used EIAs

A

enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs)

131
Q

direct ELISA steps

A

antigens immobilized in well of microtiter plate. antibody that is specific for antigen is conjugated to an enzyme and added to well. after washing to remove unbound antibodies, colorless substrate is added. presence of enzyme converts substrate into colored end product.

132
Q

sandwich ELISA steps

A

primary antibody binds to well. blocking agent is added to bind remaining nonspecific protein binding sites in the well. sample is added; if antigen is present, it binds to the antibody. unbound sample is washed away. antibody-enzyme conjugate added. unbound secondary antibody-enzyme conjugate is washed away. substrate is added; if present, enzyme converts substrate to colored product

133
Q

direct ELISA tests for

A

whether or not a sample has the antibody for a specific antigen

134
Q

sandwich ELISA test for

A

whether or not a sample has a specific antigen present and how much of the specific antigen is present

135
Q

indirect ELISA test for

A

detects or quantifies the amount of antigen-specific antibody in sample

136
Q

indirect ELISA steps

A

antigen is bound to well. blocking agent is added. sample added; if antibody is present, it binds to antigen. unbound sample is washed away. antihuman enzyme-linked antibody added. unbound antihuman antibody is washed away. substrate is added; if present, enzyme converts substrate to colored product

137
Q

immunofiltration process

A

large volume of liquid is passed through a porous membrane into an absorbent pad. an antigen attached to the porous membrane will capture antibody as it passes

138
Q

immunochromatographic assay steps

A

fluid applied on an absorbent pad on test strip. fluid flows by capillary action through a strip of beads w/ antibodies attached to their surfaces. antibody beads will bind antigens. the antigen-antibody complexes flow over second strip that immobilizes antibody-antigen; strip will retain beads that have bound antigen. third control strip binds any beads.

139
Q

hypersensitivity reactions definition

A

undesirable reactions produced by normal immune defenses

140
Q

type I hypersensitivity quick definition

A

allergies involve IgE antibody against soluble antigen, triggering mast cell degranulation

141
Q

type II hypersensitivity quick definition

A

involves IgG and IgM antibodies directed against cellular antigens, leading to cell damage mediated by other immune system effectors

142
Q

Type III hypersensitivity quick definition

A

involve the interactions of IgG, IgM, sometimes IgA antibodies w/ antigen to form immune complexes. accumulation of immune complexes in tissue leads to tissue damage mediated by other immune system effectors

143
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity quick definition

A

T cell-mediated reactions that can involve tissue damage mediated by activated macrophages and cytotoxic T cells

144
Q

allergen definition

A

type of antigen that triggers an allergic reaction immune response

145
Q

type I hypersensitivities involve two components

A

sensitization and subsequent exposure

146
Q

sensitization to an allergen steps

A

APC processes antigen and presents it to TH2 cell. TH2 cell releases IL-4 and IL-12, which activate B cell. B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells that synthesize and secrete IgE antibody. IgE binds to mast cells by Fc region, sensitizing the mast cells.

147
Q

what happens during subsequent exposure to allergen

A

allergens bind to multiple IgE on mast cell surface, cross-linking the IgE molecules. this activates the mast cell and triggers degranulation of inflammatory molecules that cause symptoms of allergy symptoms

148
Q

localized type I hypersensitivity examples

A

hay fever, asthma, rhinitis, hives

149
Q

systemic type I hypersensitivity examples

A

anaphylactic shock

150
Q

late-phase type I hypersensitivity reaction

A

may develop 4-12 hours after early-phase reaction and are mediated by eosinophils, neutrophils, and lymphocytes that have been recruited by chemotactic factors released from mast cells

151
Q

type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivities mediated by __ binding to ___

A

IgG and IgM antibodies binding to cell surface antigens or matrix-associated antigens on basement membranes

152
Q

IgG and IgM antibodies function in type II hypersensitivity

A

can either activate complement, resulting in inflammatory response and lysis of target cells, or they can be involved in ADCC with cytotoxic T cells

153
Q

examples of type II hypersensitivities

A

hemolytic disease of the newborn, hemolytic transfusion reactions

154
Q

hemolytic transfusion reaction (HTR) cause

A

IgG and IgM bind to antigens on transfused RBCs, targeting donor cells for destruction, activating complement and MAC to mass hemolyze transfused blood cells

155
Q

hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) cause

A

after primary exposure to Rh+ RBCs and activation of primary immune response, in a secondary exposure IgG from mother crosses the placenta, targeting the fetus’s RBCs for destruction

156
Q

unique characteristic of type III hypersensitivities

A

antibody excess coupled w/ relatively low concentration of antigen results in the formation of small immune complexes that deposit on the surface of epithelial cells lining small blood vessels or on surface of tissues

157
Q

immune complex accumulation leads to:

A

IgG binding to antibody receptors on localized mast cells, resulting in mast-cell degranulation, complement activation w/ production of proinflammatory C3a and C5a, increased blood vessel permeability w/ chemotactic recruitment of neutrophils and macrophages

158
Q

how type III hypersensitivities cause tissue damage

A

immune complexes on tissue surface cannot be phagocytized, neutrophils degranulate instead damaging immune complexes as well as localized cells

159
Q

Type III hypersensitivities examples

A

serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis

160
Q

type IV hypersensitivities subcategories

A

CD4 TH1-mediated reactions (delayed-type hypersensitivities), CD4 TH2-mediated reactions, CD8 CTL-mediated reactions

161
Q

CD4 TH1 mediated reactions (delayed-type hypersensitivities) process

A

sensitization step involves introduction of antigen into the skin by phagocytosis by local APCs, which activate helper T cells, stimulating proliferation and differentiation into TH1 memory cells. upon subsequent exposure, TH1 memory cells release cytokines activating macrophages which cause tissue damage

162
Q

CD4 TH2 mediated reaction process

A

soluble antigen is inhaled, resulting in eosinophil recruitment and activation w/ release of cytokines and inflammatory mediators

163
Q

CD4 TH1 mediated reaction examples

A

contact dermatitis due to latex, tuberculin reaction

164
Q

CD4 TH2 mediated reaction examples

A

chronic asthma and chronic rhinitis

165
Q

CD8 CTL mediated reaction process

A

APCs process and present antigen w/ MHC I to naive CD8 T cells, when CD8 T cells are activated they proliferate and differentiate into CTLs that target and induce apoptosis in cells presenting the same antigen w/ MHC I (cells could be self cells that have absorbed the antigen or transplant cells displaying the antigen)

166
Q

CD8 CTL mediated reaction examples

A

contact dermatitis from poison ivy, tissue-transplant rejection

167
Q

desensitization process

A

elicit production of different interleukins and IgG antibody responses instead of IgE. Excess allergen specific IgG bind to the allergen, acting as blocking antibodies to neutralize the antigen before it can bind to IgE on mast cells

168
Q

autoimmune disease definition

A

immune system mistakenly identifying the body’s own cells as the enemy, body is attacked by its own specific adaptive immune response

169
Q

tolerance definition

A

lack of an anti-self immune response in normal, healthy states

170
Q

mechanisms responsible for autoimmune disease

A

include type II, III, and IV hypersensitivity reactions

171
Q

causes of autoimmune disorders

A

individual’s genetic makeup and effect of environmental influences

172
Q

autoimmune disease examples

A

addison disease, celiac disease, type I diabetes, graves disease, hashimoto thyroiditis, multiple sclerosis, myasthenia gravis, psoriasis, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythromatosus

173
Q

Addison disease cause

A

destruction of adrenal gland cells by cytotoxic T cells

174
Q

celiac disease cause

A

antibodies to gluten become autoantibodies that target the cells of the small intestine

175
Q

Type I diabetes cause

A

cytotoxic T-cell destruction of the insulin producing beta cells of the pancreas

176
Q

Graves disease cause

A

autoantibodies target thyroid-stimulating hormone receptors, resulting in overstimulation of the thyroid

177
Q

hashimoto thyroiditis cause

A

thyroid gland is attacked by cytotoxic T cells, lymphocytes, macrophages, and autoantibodies

178
Q

Multiple sclerosis cause

A

cytotoxic T cell destruction of the myelin sheath surrounding nerve axions in the CNS

179
Q

Myasthenia gravis cause

A

autoantibodies directed against acetylcholine receptors within the neuromuscular joint

180
Q

Psoriasis cause

A

cytokine activation of keratinocytes causes rapid and excessive epidermal cell turnover

181
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis cause

A

autoantibodies, immune complexes, complement activation, phagocytes, and T cells damage membranes and bone in joints

182
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus cause

A

autoantibodies directed against nuclear and cytoplasmic molecules form immune complexes that deposit in tissues. phagocytic cells and complement activation cause tissue damage and inflammation

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