Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MLT Hematology > Unit 6 > Flashcards

Unit 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Normal hemostasis depends on all of the following except

A

Inadequate numbers of platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the sequence of events following injury to a small blood vessels?

A
  1. Blood vessel spasm (vasoconstriction)
  2. Formation of a platelet plug
  3. Contact between damaged blood vessel, blood platelets, and coagulation proteins
  4. Development of blood clot around the injury
  5. Fibrinolysis and reestablishment of vascular integrity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which blood vessels have the thickest walls?

A

Arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

All blood and lymphatic vessels are lined with

A

Endothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Blood passes from the arterial to the venous system via

A

Capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The initiating stimulus to blood coagulation following injury to a blood vessel is

A

Contact activation with collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Endothelium is involved in the metabolism and clearance of molecules such as

A

*all of the above
- serotonin
- angiotensin
- bradykinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is not correct? (1)

A

none of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following is (are) true of endoreduplicaton?

A
  • all of the above
  • duplicates DNA without cell division
  • results in cells with ploidy values of 4n, 8n, 16n, and 32n
  • is unique to the megakaryocytic type of blood cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is (are) true of thrombopoietin?

A
  • all of the above
  • thought to stimulate the production and maturation of megakaryocytes
  • is influenced by various cytokines, which increase megakaryocytes size
  • `is influenced by various cytokines, which impact maturational stage and ploidy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of platelets?

A

The presence of a nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The cellular ultra structural component unique to the platelet is the

A

Glycocalyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Choose the incorrect statement regarding storage granules related to hemostasis in the mature platelet

A

Lysosomes contain actomyosin, myosin, and filamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

At all the times, approximately ______ of the total number of platelets are in the system circulation `

A

Two thirds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The reference range of platelets in the system circulation is

A

150 to 400 X 10^9/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The functions of platelets in response to vascular damage include

A

Formation of platelet plug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If vascular injury exposes the endothelial surface and underlying collagen, platelets______ to the collagen fibers and _______

A

Adhere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The end production of ___________ occurs with platelet aggregation

A

Cyclooxygenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

AGents that are capable of aggregating platelets include

A

*all of the above `
- Collagen
- thrombin
- serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Examination of a Wright-stained peripheral blood smear provides an estimate of platelet numbers. Using 100x (oil) immersion in the areas of erythrocytes just touching each other, the upper limit of the number of platelets seen per field should not exceed

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If 10 platelets are seen per oil immersion field, what is the approximate platelet count?

A

200 X 10^9/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Aspirin ingestion has the following hemostatic effect in a normal person:

A

Prolongs the bleeding time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The bleeding time test measures

A

Platelet adhesion and aggregation on locally injured vascular subendothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The clot retraction test is

A

A reflection of the quantity and quality of platelets and other factors `

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following is a condition associated with purpura?

A

*All of the above
- direct endothelial damage
- inherited disease of the connective tissue
- mechanical disruption of small venules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is characterized by

A

Smallest platelets seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

May-Hegglin anomaly is characterized by

A

Large platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Bernard-soulier syndrome is characterized by

A

Giant platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Acquired platelet dysfunction can be caused by

A

Uremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Drug-induced platelet dysfunction can be caused by

A

Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hereditary platelet dysfunction can be caused by

A

Von Willebrand’s disease `

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

An example of an agent that does not produce significantly decreased primary platelet aggregation in patients suffering from glanzmanns thrombasthenia is

A

Collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When comparing Von willebrand’s` disease and glanzmanns thrombasthernia, glanzmanns thrombasthernia will demonstrate

A

Absent ADP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Fibrinogen group consists of

A

Factors I, V, VIII,and XIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Prothrombin group consists of

A

Factors II, VII, IX, and X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Contact group consists of

A

Factors XI, XII, prekallikrein, and high-molecular weight kininogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The fibrinogen group of coagulation factors is

A

*all of the above
- know to increase during pregnancy
- known to increase in conditions of inflammation
- known to increase subsequent to the use of oral contraceptives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The prothrombin group of coagulation factors is

A
  • all of the above
  • dependent on vitamin K for production
  • considered to be stable
  • well preserved in stored plasma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Warfarin acts by

A

Acting as a vitamin K antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Warfarin drugs interfere with the normal synthesis of factors

A

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Vitamin- dependent coagulation factors include factors

A

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Symbolic designation for thrombin is

A

IIa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Symbolic designation for antihemophilic factor is

A

VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Symbolic designation for tissue thromboplastin is

A

III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Symbolic designation for Hageman factor is

A

XII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the proper sequence of the four stages of coagulation in their proper sequence?

A
  1. Generation plasma thromboplastin
  2. Formation of thrombin from prothrombin
  3. Formation of fibrin from fibrinogen
  4. Fibrinolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is triggered by by the entry of _______ into the circulation

A

Tissue thromboplastin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The intrinsic pathway of coagulation begins with the activation of _______ in the early stage

A

Factor XII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The final common pathway of the intrinsic-extrinsic pathway is

A

Factor X activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Prothrombin to thrombin conversion is accelerated by

A

Factor V and ionized calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin monomers by

A

Thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The inactive plasminogen is activated to______ by proteolytic enzymes

A

Plasmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which of the following statements are true of the fibrinolytic system?

A

*all of the above
- plasmin digest fibrin and fibrinogen
- the active enzyme of the system is plasmin
- inactive plasminogen circulates in the plasma until an injury occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

If pediatric pre operative patient has a family history of bleeding but has never had a bleeding episode herself, what test should be included in a coagulation profile in addition to the PT, APTT and platelet count?

A

Bleeding time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A patient with a severe decrease in factor X activity would demonstrate normal

A

Bleeding time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Neither the APTT nor the PT detects a deficiency of

A

Platelet factor 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The function of thromboplastin in the prothrombin test is to provide ____ to the assay

A

Phospholipoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

An abnormally prolonged APTT may indicate:

A
  • all of above
  • a severe depletion of fibrinogen
  • the presence of a circulating anticoagulant
  • factor VIII deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

If a child ingested rat poison, which of the following tests should be performed to test the effect of the poison on the child’s coagulation mechanism?

A

PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which of the following conditions can cause an increased thrombin time?

A

*all of the above
- fibrin split products
- high concentrations of immunoglobulins
- heparin therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Heparin inhibits the clotting of blood by neutralizing the effeft of

A

Thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A patient has a prolonged APTT and a normal PT. The APTT is not corrected by factor VIII-deficient plasma but is corrected by factor IX-deficient plasma. In which factor foes the patent appear to be deficient?

A

Factor VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The normal protective mechanism against thrombosis include

A

*all of the above
- the flow of blood
- the action of antithrombin
- protein C and protein S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

If heparin therapy is initiated in a patient, a decreased anticoagulant response can be caused by decreased levels of

A

Platelet factor 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which of the following is (are) characteristic of protein C?

A

*Both B and C
- it is formed in response to thrombin generation
- it inactivates factors Va and VIIIa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which of the following characteristics is (are) trie of protein S?

A

*all of the above
- it is a cofactor of protein C
- it increases the rate of inactivation of factor Va
- it enhances the binding of activated protein C to phospholipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Antithrombin is the principal physiological inhibitor of

A

Thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which of the following is not correct regarding cellular proteases?

A
  • they participate in clot formation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which of the following parameters can be abnormal in classic Von willebrands disease type I?

A

Bleeding time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Platelet aggregation studies in cases of classic Von willebrands diasease should reveal

A

Decreased aggregation when factors such as ristocetin are used for testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The most common form of Von willebrands disease is

A

Type I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Unique characteristic associated with deficiency of factor XII deficiency is

A

No history of bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) can be initiated by:

A
  • all of the above
  • septic shock
  • severe sepsis
  • hemolytic RBC crisis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Laboratory results in acute DIC reflect abnormalities in which of the following coagulation components?

A

Excessive clotting and fibrinolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Primary fibrinolysis is characterized by

A
  • all of the above
  • gross activation of fibrinolytic mechanism
  • consumption of fibrinogen
  • consumption of coagulation factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The hallmark of secondary fibrinolysis is the presence of

A
  • all of the above
  • fibrin split products
  • fibrin degradation products
  • fibrin monomers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

DIC is characterized by

A
  • all of the above
  • microvascular thrombosis
  • fibrin deposition
  • active fibrinolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which of the following factors a contribute to hypercoagulation?

A

Vascular endothelial damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Antithrombin deficiency can cause a

A

Primary hypercoagulable state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Oral contraceptives can cause a

A

Secondary hypercoagulable state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Protein C deficiency can cause a

A

Primary hypercoagulable state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Cancer can cause a

A

Secondary hypercoagulable state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Pregnancy can cause a

A

Secondary hypercoagulable state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

A characteristic of circulating anticoagulants is which of the following?`

A

Acquired inhibitors of clotting proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

A characteristic of lupus anticoagulant is which of the following

A

Also known as antiphospholipid or anticardiolipin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

A characteristic of factor VIII inhibitor is which of the following?

A

The most common specific factor inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Warfarin is a vitamin _______ antagonist

A

K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The anatomical structures associated with the circulation of CSF are

A

Ventricles and subarachnoid spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

CSF production is associated with the

A

Choroid plexus and ependymal lining

90
Q

CSF is collected from an intervertebral space between the ______ and ______ vertebrae

A

L4, L5

91
Q

Tube 1 is commonly for

A

Chemical and serological examination

92
Q

Tube 2 is commonly used for

A

Microbial examination

93
Q

Tube 3 or the final tube is commonly used for

A

Gross examination, cell counting, and morphology examination

94
Q

A cloudy and turbid specimen is most commonly caused by :

A

Increased numbers of leukocytes

95
Q

A grossly bloody specimen is most commonly caused b`y

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

96
Q

A xanthochromic (yellow color) specimen is most commonly caused by

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage (more than 12 hours after the bleed)

97
Q

Gel formation in a specimen is most commonly caused by

A

Increased fibrinogen

98
Q

Intravascular rupture of brain abscess is associated with

A

Extremely elevated leukocyte count in CSF

99
Q

Viral infection is associated with

A

Lymphocytosis

100
Q

A leukocyte count of 0 to 5 X 10^6/L is associated with

A

Normal leukocyte reference range for CSF

101
Q

Bacterial infection is associated with

A

Increased polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophils (PMNs) is CSF

102
Q

CNS leukemia or lymphoma is associated with

A

Macrophages `

103
Q

Normal CSF contains

A

Lymphocytes and ependymal cells

104
Q

The cell count on a CSF specimen should be performed within _______ of collection

A

1 hour

105
Q

Clotting in CSF may be caused by

A

Increased protein concentration

106
Q

An increased total leukocyte count in a CSF specimen can be caused by

A

*both of A and C
- bacterial meningitis
- intrvascular rupture of a brain abscess

107
Q

An increase in the number of lymphocytes in a CSF specimen can be caused by

A
  • all of the above
  • multiple sclerosis
  • viral meningoencephalitis
  • fungal meningitis
108
Q

The observation of cloudy CSF samples suggests

A

Bacterial infection present `

109
Q

Which of the following is/are characteristic of an effusion?

A
  • all of the above
  • abnormal accumulation of fluid
  • can be transudate
  • can be an exudate
110
Q

A transudate can be described as

A

Specific gravity less than 1.016, pH 7.4-7.5, and lactic dehydrogenase less than 200 IU/L`

111
Q

Pleura

A

Covers the lungs

112
Q

Peritoneum

A

Covers abdominal walls and viscera of the abdomen

113
Q

Pericardium

A

Is a fibrous sac around the heart

114
Q

Conditions not associated with pleural effusion induce

A

Viral pneumonia

115
Q

Yellow and turbid is a representative exudate appearance typically associated with

A

Infectious process

116
Q

Milky is a representative exudate appearance typically associate with

A

Chylothorax

117
Q

Bloody is a representative exudate appearance typically associated with

A

Malignancy in the absence of trauma

118
Q

Clearly visible pus is a representative exudate appearance typically associated with

A

Empyema

119
Q

Foul odor is a representative exudate appearance typically associated with

A

Anaerobic bacterial infection

120
Q

Pleural fluid can have a white supernatant fluid after centrifugation owing to

A

Presence of Chylomicrons

121
Q

An extremely elevated leukocyte concentration in pleural fluid is typically associated with

A

Empyema

122
Q

Which of the following cells can be seen in pleural fluid?

A
  • All of the above
  • LE cells
  • mononuclear phagocytes
  • mesothelial cells
123
Q

All of the following describe the characteristics of malignant cells except

A

Smooth chromatin

124
Q

Many neutrophils, histiocytes and mesothelial cells are associated with (a)

A

Acute bacterial inflammation

125
Q

Abundant, multinuclear cells and clusters of cells are associated with a(n)

A

Metastatic adenocarcinoma

126
Q

Many malignant cells (in clusters) are associated with a(n)

A

Malignant mesothelioma

127
Q

Many lymphocytes, mesothelial cells, histiocytes, and plasma cells are associated with a(n)

A

Viral infection

128
Q

In a pleural effusion, the percentage of ______ is extremely high in pneumonia and the percentage of ______ is extremely high in viral peritonitis

A

Polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophils/ lymphocytes

129
Q

The cause of peritoneal effusion include all of the following except

A

TB

130
Q

An abnormal-appearing peritoneal effusion can be caused by all of the following except

A

TB peritonitis `

131
Q

The peritoneal effusion color of pale yellow is associated with

A

Normal

132
Q

The peritoneal effusion color of straw colored is associated with

A

Congestive heart failure

133
Q

The peritoneal effusion color of blood is associated with

A

Pulmonary infarct

134
Q

An extremely increased leukocyte concentration in peritoneal fund can be caused by

A

Bacterial peritonitis

135
Q

Eosinophils are associated with with

A

Chronic peritoneal dialysis

136
Q

Lymphocytes are associated with

A

Congestive heart failure, cirrhosis, and nephrotic syndrome

137
Q

Mesothelial cells are associated with

A

TB peritonitis

138
Q

Infection agents are associated with

A

Coxsackie group viruses

139
Q

Collagen vascular disease is associated with

A

Rheumatic disease

140
Q

Neoplastic disease is associated with

A

Mesothelioma

141
Q

A cause of an increased concentration of cells in peripheral fluid is

A

*both A and B
- microbial infection
- malignancy

142
Q

Testicles are associated with

A

Sperm

143
Q

Seminal vesicles are associated with

A

Fructose and prostaglandins

144
Q

Prostrate gland is associated with

A

p30 glycoprotein

145
Q

Cowper glands are associated with

A

Unknown

146
Q

Sperm motility can become decreased if the specimen is

A

*all of the above
- stored at room temperature
- stored in a plastic container for more than 1 hour
- examined after 2 hours of storage

147
Q

The normal value of sperm cells is ______ X 10^9/L

A

60-150

148
Q

The reference value for sperm motility (fresh specimen) is

A

Greater than 60%

149
Q

The reference value for sperm morphology is

A

40-90% (mature and oval headed)

150
Q

The reference value for sperm agglutination is

A

At least 50%

151
Q

A consideration value for specimens used for artificial insemination

A

Test for infectious disease

152
Q

Arthrocentesis is

A

A liquid biopsy

153
Q

Disorders than can be diagnosed definitively by synovial fluid analysis are

A

Gout, CPPD deposition disease, and septic arthritis

154
Q

Which of the following would not be as aspiration site for synovial fluid?

A

Posterior iliac crest

155
Q

If a synovial fluid aspirate is very turbid and septic arthritis is suspected, a ______ should definitely be performed

A

Gram’s stain and culture

156
Q

Crystals that are in multiple three-dimensional forms are

A

CPPD crystals

157
Q

An increased percentage of polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophils (PMNs) is characteristic of

A

Septic arthritis

158
Q

MSU is associated with

A

Acute gouty arthritis

159
Q

Calcium oxalate is associated with

A

Chronic renal disease

160
Q

Cholesterol is associated with

A

Chronic rheumatoid effusions

161
Q

Lipid liquid “Maltese cross” is associated with

A

Acute and chronic arthritis ````

162
Q

Amniotic fluid consists of

A
  • all of the above
  • water
  • proteins
  • carbohydrates
163
Q

Fetal fibronectin (fFN) is

A

*all of the above
- a protein produced during pregnancy
- a biological glue, attaching the fetal sac to the uterine lining
- associated with fetal lung maternity

164
Q

Lamallea bodies are

A
  • all of the above
  • associated with the risk of developing respiratory stress syndrome in a premature infant
  • composed of concentrated layers of phospholipid secreted by type II alveolar cells
  • act as storage packets for surfactants in amniotic fluid
165
Q

For a normal prothrombin time, the following plasma factor is in adequate concentration is NOT required

A

Factor VIII

166
Q

The degree of increased capillary fragility is reflected in the:

A

Number of petechiae

167
Q

Which of the following coagulation factors is present in serum?

A

Factor VII

168
Q

What is the best indicator of a bleeding disorder?

A

Bleeding time

169
Q

Which of the following groups is Factor XI listed in?

A

Contact group

170
Q

The precursor of thrombin is:

A

Prothrombin

171
Q

All blood and lymphatic vessels are lined with:

A

Endothelium

172
Q

Factor XIII is:

A

Necessary for formation of stable clot

173
Q

A patient with severe decrease in Factor X activity would demonstrate abnormal results in the:

A
  • both A and B
  • APTT
    PT
174
Q

The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin requires:

A

Thrombin

175
Q

All of the following are true of the international normalized ration (INR), except

A

The World Health Organization recommends reporting the INR on patients on long-term anticoagulant therapy

176
Q

Laboratory results in acute disseminated intravascular coagulation reflect abnormalities in which of the following coagulation components?

A
  • all of the above
  • platelets
  • fibrinolysis
  • thrombin formation
  • fibrin formation
177
Q

An increase total leukocyte counts in a CSF specimen can be caused by:

A

*Both A and C
- Bacterial Meningitis
- intravascular rupture of a brain abscess

178
Q

Hageman Factor is

A

Factor XII

179
Q

A xanthochromic (yellow color) specimen is most commonly caused by:

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage (more than 12 hours after the bleed)

180
Q

Results on a patient presenting with sudden severe hemorrhagic problems are as follows:
- Bleeding time: Normal
- PT: Normal
- APTT: Prolonged
- APTT 1:1 mixingi study: no correction
(Patients serum mixed with normal plasma)

These clinical manifestations & lab results are consistent with:

A

Presence of a circulating inhibitor

181
Q

The action of heparin is directly dependent on the amount of _________ in the blood.

A

Antithrombin III

182
Q

Foul odor is a representative exudate appearance typically associated with

A

Anaerobic bacterial infection

183
Q

Which of the following groups is consumed in the clotting process?

A

Fibrinogen group

184
Q

What tests should be performed to diagnose Von Willebrand’s Disease?

1-PT
2-PTT
3-Platelet Count
4-Ristocetin Co-factor
5-platelet aggregation studies
6-bleeding time

A

All are correct

185
Q

Which of the following groups is the vitamin K-dependent group listed in?

A

Prothrombin group

186
Q

The synonym for coagulation Factor X is:

A

Stuart-Prower factor

187
Q

Alpha granules that are contained in platelets contain:

A
  • A and B only
  • PF4
  • Von Willebrand’s Factor
188
Q

What test will separate Von Willebrand’s Disease from Factor VIII deficiency?

A

Bleeding time

189
Q

In pleural effusion, the percentage of ________ is extremely high in viral peritonitis

A

Lymphocytes

190
Q

The prothrombin time (PT) is affected by levels of:

A

*All of the above
- Factor II
- Factor V
- Factor VIII
- Factor X

191
Q

Von Willebrand factor is associated with which function?

A

Prothrombotic

192
Q

Angiotensin II is associated with which function?

A

Constrictor

193
Q

Anti-thrombin III inhibits:

1- Factor IXa
2- Factor Xa
3- Factor XIa
4- Factor XIIa

A

1, 2, 3, and 4

194
Q

The Roman numerical nomenclature for fibrin-stabilizing factor is:

A

XIII

195
Q

Which of the following groups is inhibited by warfarin?

A

Prothrombin group

196
Q

Which of the following groups in increased in pregnancy?

A

Fibrinogen group

197
Q

Platelet-activating factor is associated with which function?

A

Prothrombotic

198
Q

Factor I is:

A

Fibrinogen

199
Q

SHORT ANSWER: what is the difference between primary and secondary hemostasis?

A

Primary hemostasis occurs after blood vessel injury occurs which activates all systems needed. It relies on platelet response and vasculature to stimulate and drive platelet plug formation through the aggregation of platelets to the injured area

Secondary hemostasis involves the intrinsic or extrinsic activation of the coagulation cascade by tissue factors. TF are released from damaged epithelium, which results in insoluble fibrin production

200
Q

Thrombocytosis is:

A

An increase in platelets over 250 X 10^9/L

201
Q

The in-vivo existence of a natural anti coagulation system includes which of the following:

1- Anti-thrombin III
2- Protein S
3- Protein C
4- Heparin

A

1, 2, 3, and 4

202
Q

Which of the following coagulation is NOT vitamin-K dependent?

A

Factor VIII

203
Q

Endothelin-I is associated with which function?

A

Constrictor

204
Q

Which of the following tests monitor Coumadin therapy?

A

Prothrombin time

205
Q

The bleeding time test measures:

A

The quality of platelets

206
Q

Liable factor is:

A

Factor V

207
Q

If a synovial fluid aspirate is very turbid and septic arthritis is suspected, a _______ should definitely be performed

A
  • all of the above
  • total cell count & differential count
  • crystal examination
  • Grams’s stain & culture
208
Q

The synonym for coagulation Factor XI is:

A

Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent

209
Q

The synonym for coagulation Factor XI is:

A

Plasma thromboplastin antecedent

210
Q

Which of the following anticoagulants is unsuitable for coagulation studies?

A

Sodium heparin

211
Q

SHORT ANSWER: Hypercoaguable states can be caused by a deficiency in which 3 components?

A
  • Protein S
  • Factor Va
  • Factor VIIIa
212
Q

The molarity of the calcium chloride for APTT is:

A

0.025

213
Q

Which of the following is the proper sequence for the four stages of coagulation?

A

Thromboplastin
Thrombin
Fibrin
Fibrinolysis

214
Q

Prostacyclin is associated with which function?

A

Antithrombotic

215
Q

In the intrinsic pathway, the first factor that requires the presence of calcium to continue the clotting process is:

A

Factor IX

216
Q

Which of the following groups is Factor V listed in?

A

Fibrinogen group

217
Q

The cause of idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP) is:

A

Unknown

218
Q

Heparin inhibits the clotting of blood by indirectly neutralizing the effect of:

A

Calcium ions

219
Q

A transudate can be described as:

A

Specific gravity less than 1.016, pH 7.4-7.5, and lactic dehydrogenase less than 200 IU/L

220
Q

Thrombomodulin is associated with which function?

A

Antithrombotic

221
Q

Which of the following groups is Factor II listed in?

A

Prothrombin Group

MLT Hematology (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions