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MLT Hematology > Unit 4 Review > Flashcards

Unit 4 Review Flashcards

1
Q

True or False? Anemia, low platelet count, and low leukocytes count, usually with absolute neutropenia, are commonly present in myelodysplastic syndrome

A

True

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2
Q

The level of erytrhopoietin in the urine is _______ in patients with polycythemia Vera as compared to to other types of polycythemia

A

Decreased

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3
Q

The hallmark of laboratory studies in chronic myeloproliferative disorders is:

A

Cytogenetic abnormalities

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4
Q

Chronic myeloproliferative disorders include which of the following:

A
  • A, B, and C
  • essential thrombocythemia
  • chronic myelogenous leukemia
  • polycythemia vera
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5
Q

Periodic-acid Schaffer (PAS) reaction is:

A

Negative in myelocytes

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6
Q

The hematology report for CLL looks most like which of the following:

A

Decreased WBC with 90% immature lymph’s

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7
Q

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is defined as an:

A

Malignancy of the thymus

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8
Q

Periodic Acid Schiff reaction stains:

A

Glycogen

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9
Q

Which of the following statements is true of Multiple myeloma?
1– The presence of the Reed-Sternberg cell
2– presence of Bence-Jones protein
3– Presence of “M” spike on electrophoresis
4– A plasma cell leukemia

A

2,3, and 4 are correct

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10
Q

Sudan Black stain differentiates:

A

Acute myelogenous leukemia from ALL

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11
Q

The FAB classification of leukemia is a means of:

A

*both A and B
- classifying acute leukemias
Assessing prognosis

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12
Q

Leukemia secondary to Burkitt’s lymphoma is:

A

FAB L3

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13
Q

50-90% of myeloblasts in a peripheral blood is typical of which of the following:

A

Acute granulocytic leukemia (MI)

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14
Q

Very low levels of leukeocyte alkaline phosphatase can be found in:

A

*all of the above
- viral hepatitis
- IM
- PCH

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15
Q

Patients with initial phase CML are prone to:

A

Low-grade fevers, night sweats, and splenic infarction

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16
Q

A common characteristic of acute lymphoblastic leukemia is:

A

Bone and joint pain

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17
Q

The most consistent chromosomal abnormality in CLL is _______?

A

Trisomy of chromosome 12

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18
Q

The type of acute leukemia most commonly seen in children is:

A

Acute lymphocytic

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19
Q

The nature of MDS (myelodysplastic syndromes) occurring in those older than 50 and include:

A

*all of the above
- CMML and CLL
- CML and CLL
- RA, CMML, and RARS

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20
Q

What FAB classification would match the following description: large and small megakaryoblasts with high N:C ratio; pale agranular cytoplasm?

A

M7

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21
Q

Oncogenes are:

A
  • both B and C
  • genetic targets of carcinogens
  • altered versions of normal genes
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22
Q

Which of the following terms as not used to refer to myelodysplastic syndromes?

A

Myeloproliferative syndrome

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23
Q

AML is the ______ leukemia subtype

A

Most common

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24
Q

From the list below, which are the prominent hematological findings in MDS

A
  • A and B only
  • Sideroblastic, Howell-Jolly bodies
  • giant platelets, hypogranulation
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25
Q

What FAB classification would match the following description: small cells predominate, nuclear shape is regular with occasional cleft?

A

L1

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26
Q

SHORT ANSWER: What is the cytochemical stain that best separates acute myelocytic from acute monocytic leukemia?

A

The Naphthol Esterase stain is used for differentiating the myelocytic from monocytic leukemias

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27
Q

What FAB classification would match the followoing description: both myelogenous and monocytic cells are present, at least 20% of total WBC?

A

M4

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28
Q

Peripheral blood characteristics of which of the following disease has the following presentation?

RBC x 10^12/L increasing significantly
WBC x 10^9/L increasing
Platelets x 10^9/L moderately increasing

A

Polycythemia

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29
Q

The Philadelphia chromosome is typically associated with:

A

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

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30
Q

What FAB classification would match the following description: large cells with irregular nuclear shape: clefts is nucleus are common?

A

L2

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31
Q

The alpha-naphthyl acetate esterase cytochemical staining reaction is:

A

Strongly positive in monocytes

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32
Q

Chemical exposure is more strongly linked to an increased risk of _______ leukemia than acute lymphoblastic leukemia

A

Acute myelogenous

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33
Q

SHORT ANSWER: Comparing lymphoma vs. leukemia, give 2 ways they differ from each other

A

A lymphoma is a solid mass that presents as a tumor within the tissues that may spill over into the blood, appearing like leukemia. Leukemia is not a mass, but a neoplastic proliferative disease characterized by overproduction of immature/mature cells of various types in the blood/bone marrow

Lymphomas are generally characterized by into 2 types (Hodgkin’s & non-Hodgkins) based on the presence/absence of Reed-Sternberg cells. Leukemias are classified either according to the FAB (AMLs: Mo-M7; ALLs: L1-L3) or WHO classification systems

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34
Q

What FAB classification would match the following description: blasts and promyelocytes predominate without further maturation?

A

M1

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35
Q

What FAB classifcation would match the following descriptionl: promyelocytes predominate in the bone marrow?

A

M3

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36
Q

What FAB classification would match the following description: known as DiGulielmo syndrome, abnormal proliferation of all cells?

A

M6

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37
Q

SHORT ANSWER: list 2 myelodysplastic syndromes:

A

1- refractory anemia (RA)
2- Refractory anemia with RInger Sideroblasts (RARS)

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38
Q

What FAB classification would match the following description: most cells are monocytic?

A

M5

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39
Q

SHORT ANSWER: list 3 factors related to the occurrence of leukemia:

A

1- genetic & immunological factors (oncogenes, translocation most common)
2- occupational/environmental exposure (ionizing radiation, insert/herb/fungicides)
3- viral agents (EBV, HIV, HTLV-1)

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40
Q

The most common disorder in patients with essential thrombocythemia is:

A

Thrombotic or bleeding problems

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41
Q

What FAB classification would match the following description: cells are large and homogeneous in size: nuclear shape is round with 1-3 prominent nucleoli

A

L3

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42
Q

The most frequent leukocytes found in peripheral blood are:

A

Neutrophils

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43
Q

The function of the entire leukocytuc system is to:

A

Defend the body against disease

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44
Q

The granulocyte cells that are believed to descend from a common multipotential stem cell in the bone marrow are:

A

Neutrophils and eosinophils

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45
Q

The types of granulocytic leukocytes found in the proliferative compartment of the bone marrow are:

A

Myeloblasts
Promyelocytes
Myelocyte
Metamyelocyte

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46
Q

The types of granulocytic leukocytes found in the maturation-storage compartment of the bone marrow are:

A

Metamyelocytes
Band form neutrophils
Segmented neutrophils
Mature eosinophil
Mature basophil

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47
Q

Release of neutrophils from the bone marrow is believed to be influenced by

A

Interleukins

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48
Q

The stages of neutrophilic granulocyte development are:

A

Myeloblast
Promyelocyte
Myelocyte
Metamyelocyte
Band and segemented neutrophil

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49
Q

Marginating granulocytes in the peripheral blood can be found:

A

Adhering to the vascular endothelium

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50
Q

The half-life of circulating granulocytes in normal blood is estimated to be:

A

7-10 hours

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51
Q

Identify the cell with these characteristics: prominent primary granules that are rich in myeloperoxidase and chloroacetate esterase and have a diameter of 14 to 20 um

A

Promyelocyte

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52
Q

The earliest granulocytic maturational stage in which secondary or specific granules appear is:

A

Myelocyte

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53
Q

The mature granulocytes seen in the peripheral blood of healthy persons include

A

*both A and B
- band form and segmented neutrophils
- eosinophil and basophil

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54
Q

The granules of segmented neutrophils contain

A
  • all of the above
  • lysosomal hydrolases
  • lysozymes
  • myeloperoxide
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55
Q

Which of the following are contents of basophilic granules?

A

*both A and B
- Heparin
- Histamine

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56
Q

The tissue basophil can be referred to as:

A

A mast cell

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57
Q

A leukocyte with the morphological characteristics of being the largest normal mature leukocyte in the peripheral blood and having a convoluted or twisted nucleus is the:

A

Monocyte

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58
Q

A cluster designation (CD) got specific lineages of cells

A

Indicates a known cluster of monoclonal antibodies binding to a known antigen

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59
Q

Cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system include:

A
  • A and B
  • monocytes
  • macrophages
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60
Q

The immediate precursor of the macrophage is the:

A

Monocyte

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61
Q

Monocytes are capable of -

A
  • phagocytosis
  • synthesis of biologically important compounds
  • assuming a killer role
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62
Q

Classical monocytes participate in immune body defense by:

A

Phagocytizing bacteria

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63
Q

The mononuclear phagocyte system consists of histiocytes. These cells can be found in the:

A

Loose connective tissue

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64
Q

The reference range for segmented neutrophil count in adults is:

A

40-74%

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65
Q

The total leukocyte count can be increased in certain states. Select the conditions when this is not true

A

Use of immunosuppressive agents

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66
Q

One the basis of the following data, calculate the absolute value of the segmented neutrophils. Total leukocyte count = 12 x 10^9/L; percentage of segmented neutrophils value is:

A

9.6 x 10^9/L

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67
Q

An adult female has a total WBC count of 5.5 x 10^9/L. Her leukocyte differential was segmented neutrophils 20%, eosinophils 4%, basophils 1%, monocytes 3%, and lymphocytes 68%. She is demonstrating:

A

Absolute neutropenia

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68
Q

An increase in metamyeocytes, myelocytes and promyelocytes can be referred to as:

A

A shift to the left

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69
Q

What is the normal reference range of the segmented neutrophil absolute value?

A

1.4 x 6 x 10^9/L

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70
Q

The absolute value of segmented neutrophils can be an unreliable indicator of overwhelming infection because:

A

It drops in many patients because the circulating granulocytes are mobilized into the tissue site of infection

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71
Q

The functions of monocytes and macrophages include all of the following functions except:

A

Synthesize growth inhibitory factors

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72
Q

MI macrophages mainly:

A

Secrete proinflammatory cytokines

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73
Q

The major function of neutrophilic granulocytes is:

A

Phagocytosis

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74
Q

The major function of eosinophils is:

A

Suppression of inflammatory reactions

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75
Q

The principle leukocyte type involved in phagocytosis is the:

A

Neutrophil

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76
Q

The correct sequences of events in successful phagocytosis is are:

A

Chemotaxis
Opsonization
Phagosome formation
The action of antibacterial substances

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77
Q

Neutrophils function as phagocytic cells in the circulating blood

A

When the bacteria enter the circulation

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78
Q

Why are mature neutrophils more easily able to enter the circulating blood from the bone marrow than immature neutrophils?

A

They have plasticity that allows them to squeeze through the endothelial cells that line bone marrow sinusoids

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79
Q

The value of the LAP stain is to

A

Differentiate malignant disorders from leukemoid reactions

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80
Q

Lymph nodes are:

A

Secondary lymphoid tissue

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81
Q

Liver is

A

Not a lymphoid tissue

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82
Q

Spleen is:

A

Secondary lymphoid tissue

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83
Q

Red Bone Marrow is:

A

Primary lymphoid tissue

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84
Q

The thymus is

A

Primary lymphoid tissue

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85
Q

Peyers patch is:

A

Secondary lymphoid tissue

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86
Q

The T cells are found in the

A
  • all of above
  • perifollicular areas of the lymph nodes
  • paracortex regions of the lymph nodes
  • periarteriolar regions of the spleen
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87
Q

A major site of B-lymphocyte localization and proliferation is:

A

Lymphoid follicles

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88
Q

The process of lymphocyte recirculation is important in:

A

Commitment of lymphocytes to T and B cells

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89
Q

T lymphocytes constitutes ______ % of the blood lymphocytes pool in adults.

A

60-85%

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90
Q

Lymphocytes represent approximately _______% of the total circulating leukocytes in adults

A

35

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91
Q

The percentage of lymphocytes as compared with the other types of leukocytes in the peripheral blood ______ as humans age

A

Decreases

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92
Q

If an adult patient has a total leukocyte count of 20 x 10^9/L and a 50% lymphocyte count on the differential count, the absolute lymphocyte value is ________ x 10^9/L

A

10

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93
Q

If an adult has a percentage of lymphocyte exceeding the normal reference range this is called:

A

Relative lymphocytosis

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94
Q

If an adult female has a total WBC count of 4.6 x 10^9/L and a leukocyte differential on segmented neutrophils 24%, eosinophils 4%, monocytes 8%, and lymphocytes 64%, she is demonstrating

A

Relative lymphocytosis

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95
Q

As a lymphocyte matures, the nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio

A

Increases

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96
Q

As a lymphocyte matures, the overall size generally ________ in older cells.

97
Q

As a lymphocyte matures, the number of nucleoli

98
Q

As a lymphocyte matures, the chromatin clumping

99
Q

As a lymphocyte matures, the quantity of cytoplasm

100
Q

The most characteristic morphological features of variant lymphocytes include:

A

Increased overall size, possibly one to three nucleoli, and abundant cytoplasm

101
Q

Rieder’s cells are associated with:

102
Q

Vacuolated lymphocytes are associated with

A

Niemann-Pick disease and Burkitt’s lymphoma

103
Q

Crystalline inclusions are associated with:

A

B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder

104
Q

Smudge cells are associated with:

105
Q

Antibody production is associated with

A

Lymphocytes

106
Q

T cells are responsible for:

A
  • all of the above
  • humoral immunity
  • cell-mediated immunity
  • growth and differentiation
107
Q

Functions of sensitized T lymphocytes include:

A

*both A and B
- protection against intracellular pathogens
- chronic rejection in organ transplantation

108
Q

A major function of CD4+ (Th2 subset) lymphocytes is

A

Extracellular bacteria defense

109
Q

A patient with AIDS most likely has a decrease in

A

CD4+ cells

110
Q

The CD markers including CD4 and CD8 are associated with:

A

T lymphocytes

111
Q

The subset of B lymphocytes thta can produce light levels of IL-10 is

A

Regulator B cells

112
Q

Antibody-independent role for B cells in immune reposes include:

A

Production of cytokines to shape type and strength of immune response

113
Q

The effect of IL-21 on B lymphocytes is

A

Promoting differentiation of B cells to become plasma cells

114
Q

One of the CD markers that distinguishes early-B cells from other maturational stages of B-cell development is:

115
Q

Lymphocyte development in the thymus and bursal equivalent are:

A

Antigen independent

116
Q

A characteristic feature of a early or immature B cell is

A
  • both A and B
  • cytoplasmic (cIg) immunoglobulin chains
  • surface immunoglobulin (sIg) as IgM
117
Q

The surface marker associated with B lymphocytes is

118
Q

Mature B cells produces surface immunoglobulin (sIg)

A
  • both A and B
  • IgM
  • IgD
119
Q

A phenotypic marker of a distinct subset of NK cells is

A

CD56^bright

120
Q

B lymphocytes

A
  • both A and B
  • are activated by antigens
  • can secrete antibodies
121
Q

Plasma cell are:

A

Terminally (end stage) of differentiated B cells

122
Q

Long-lived plasma cells are generated in:

A

T-dependent germinal centers

123
Q

An abnormal plasma cell with red-staining cytoplasm is a

A

Flame cells

124
Q

Leukocytosis can be caused by

A

Increased movement of immature cells out of the bone marrow’s proliferative compartment

125
Q

Neutrophilia can be related to a variety of conditions or disorders. Select the appropriate conditions:

126
Q

A laboratory assay that can be used to differentiate a leukemoid reaction from chronic myelogenous leukemia is:

A

Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) stain

127
Q

Charcot-Leyden crystals can be found in ______ of patients with active eosinophilic inflammation

A
  • all of the above
  • sputum
  • tissues
  • stool
128
Q

Monocytosis can be observed in

A

*all of the above
- TB
- fever of unknown origin
- RA

129
Q

Neutropenia can be observed in

A
  • All of the above
  • bone marrow injury
  • nutritional deficiency
  • increased destruction and utilization
130
Q

Cyclic neutropenia is characterized by:

A
  • early manifestation in infants
131
Q

Pseudo-Pegler-Huet anomaly may be associated with the clinical condition of:

A

Acute infection

132
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of Pelger-Huet anomaly?

A

Failure of the nucleus to Segment

133
Q

Pelger-Huet anomaly may be

A

Related to a maturational arrest in some acute infections

134
Q

Pelegrín-Huet anomaly can be differentiated from conditions with an increased percentage of

A

Hyposegmentation of neutrophils

135
Q

Which of the following is characteristics of hypersegmentation?

A

Five or more nuclear segments

136
Q

Hypersegmentation may be:

A

Associated with a deficiency of vitamin B12 of folic acid

137
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of Dohle Body inclusions?

A

Single or mulitple pale-blue staining inclusions

138
Q

Dohle bodies may be:

A

Associated with viral infections and burns

139
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of of toxic granulation?

A

Dark blue-black precipitates RNA

140
Q

In the United Sates, human diseases caused by Ehrlichia species can be caused by:

A

*All of the above
- E. Chaffeensis
- E. Ewing II
- E. Phagocytophilia

141
Q

Ehrlichiosis is transmitted by ________

142
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of May-Hegglin anomaly?

A

Dohle body-like inclusions and giant platelets

143
Q

May-Hegelian can be differentiated from similar conditions by:

A

Presence of abnormally large platelets

144
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of Chekiak-Higashi syndrome?

A

Gigantic peroxidase-positive deposits

145
Q

Cheddar Higashi syndrome may be

A

Associated with frequent infections in children or young adults

146
Q

Chediak-Higashi syndrome is associated with the:

A

Neutrophilic series

147
Q

Chediak-Higashi syndrome can be differentiate from other intracellular inclusions by:

A

Abnormal inclusions in neutrophils and lymphocytes

148
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of Alder-Reilly inclusions?

A

Precipitated mucopolysaccharides

149
Q

Cytoplasmic inclusion in Alder-Reilly anomaly can resemble

A

Very coarse toxic granulation

150
Q

The granulocyte disorder most closely associated with cytoplasmic granule fusion is:

A

Alder-Reilly anomaly

151
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease is associated with the Cells of the

A

Neutrophilic series

152
Q

Lazy leukocyte syndrome is associated with the:

A

Neutrophilic serious

153
Q

Gaucher’s disease is associated with

A

Monocytic-macrophage series

154
Q

Niemann-Pick disease associated with

A

Monocytic-macrophage series

155
Q

Gaucher’s cells have:

A

A deficiency of Beta-glucocerebrosidase

156
Q

Lymphocytopenia means a

A

Total decrease in lymphocytes

157
Q

Radiation exposure results in

A

Lymphocytopenia

158
Q

Cytotoxic drugs results in

A

Lymphocytopenia

159
Q

Examples of viral diseases with lymphocyte involvement include:

A

*all of the above
- IM
- CMV
- AIDS

160
Q

The IM results in:

A

Lymphocytosis

161
Q

Whooping cough results in:

A

Lymphocytosis

162
Q

Toxoplasmosis results in

A

Lymphocytosis

163
Q

The helper subset of T lymphocytes is _______ in AIDS

164
Q

Immune deficiency disorders result in:

A

Lymphocytopenia

165
Q

Which of the following characterizes IM?

A

Etiology: EBV

166
Q

The laboratory findings in IM are generally characterized by:

A

An increase in variant lymphocytes

167
Q

EBV infects lymphocytes by attaching to what receptor?

168
Q

On a peripheral blood smear examination, the variant (atypical) lymphocytes have the characteristics of ________origin

169
Q

The EBV virus infects

170
Q

Which of the following are characterizes reactive lymphocytosis?

A

Lymphocyte counts of 20-50 x 10^9/L

171
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of CMV infection?

A

Etiology: a herpes family virus

172
Q

AIDS is caused by:

173
Q

Which of the following generally characterize(s) toxoplasmosis?

A
  • all of the above
  • symptoms may resemble IM
  • occurrence in pregnant women who own cats
  • etiology: parasitic
174
Q

Which antibody test has replaced the LE cell preparation in the diagnosis of SLE?

175
Q

Whatis the appropriate reagent for the reticulocyte count?

A

New methylene blue

176
Q

What is the appropriate procedure and characteristics for the Westergren methods?

A

The procedure measures the rate of of erythrocyte settling

177
Q

What source of error will have the greatest effect on test results?

A

Excessive anticoagulants will produce shrinkage of cells

178
Q

In a platelet count, what error will have the greatest effect on the test result?

A

Specimens stored at room temperature for more than 5 hours will produce inaccurate results

179
Q

In a reticulocyte count, what error will have the greatest effect on the test result?

A

Refractile bodies can produce a false-positive observations

180
Q

The correct reference value for erythrocyte count for adult male is:

A

4.5-5.9 x 10^9/L

181
Q

The correct reference value for Hb assay for adult females?

A

12.0-16.0 g/dL

182
Q

The correct reference value for absolute lymphocyte (adult) is

A

1.2-3.4 x 10^9/L

183
Q

The reference value for the leukocyte count is:

A

4.5 x 11.0. X 10^9/L

184
Q

The reference value for PCV in adult females is:

185
Q

The reference value for direct platelet count is

A

150 x 400 x 10^9/L

186
Q

The reference value for the reticulocyte count (newborn infants)

187
Q

The reference value for the Westerngren ESR method (adult male over 50) is

A

Up to 15 mm/h

188
Q

What clinical or specimen condition will produce an increased total leukocyte count?

A

Inflammation

189
Q

Which clinical or specimen condition will produce an increased PCV?

A

Polycythemia

190
Q

Which clinical or specimen condition will produce an increased reticulocyte count test results?

A

Hemolytic anemia crisis

191
Q

Which clinical specimen or condition will produce an increased Westergren ESR method test results?

A

Rouleaux formation

192
Q

Which clinical conditions will produce an increased value of neutrophils?

A

Bacterial infections

193
Q

What clinical condition will produce an increased value of lymphocytes?

A

Viral infection

194
Q

What clinical condition will produce an increased value of monocytes?

195
Q

What clinical condition will produce an increased value of eosinophils?

A

Invasive parasites

196
Q

What clinical condition will produce a decreased reticulocyte count?

A

Megaloblastic anemia

197
Q

What clinical conditions will produce a decreased Westergren ESR values?

A

Polycythemia Vera

198
Q

A normal blood smear should have no more than approximately________ (max) number for platelets per oil immersion field in an area where the erythrocytes are just touching each other

199
Q

The PCV procedure can be affected by the:

A

*all of the above
- speed of the centrifuge
- length of time centrifuged
- ratio of anticoagulant to whole blood

200
Q

Which of the following erythrovytic inclusions contain RNA and can be observed by staining with new methylene blue?

A

Reticulocytes

201
Q

The sedimentation rate of erythrocytes can be affected by the:

A
  • all of them
  • ratio of anticoagulant to whole blood
  • position of tube
  • temperature of the specimen or laboratory
202
Q

Cellulose acetate at pH 8.6 separates the Hb fractions

A

*both A and C
S
A

203
Q

If an alkaline (pH 8.6) electrophoresis is performed, Hb E has the same mobility as Hb?

204
Q

Heinz bodies are:

A

Denatured by crystal violet stain

205
Q

Prussian Blue stain produces:

A

Precipitation of free iron into blue or blue-green granules

206
Q

Periodic acid-Schaffer produces

A

Intense cytoplasmic granular staining particles in erythroleukemia

207
Q

Peroxidase stain produces

A

Non-staining in lymphocytes

208
Q

The result for an Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) stain is:

A

Normal, if the result is 32-182 with fast blue RR dye

209
Q

Leukocytes that demonstrate a positive reaction in tartaric acid-resistant phosphatase cytochemical staining are the lymphocytes seen in

A

Hairy cell Leukemia

210
Q

LAP blood smears should be stained with ______ of specimen collection

211
Q

What is the white cell with at LEAST two lobes?

A

Polysegmented neutrophil

212
Q

A WBC with red/orange granules

A

Eosinophils

213
Q

What carries blood histamine?

214
Q

Describe a Promyelocyte

A

Size = 14-20 um
N:C ratio = 3.1
Nucleus = oval
Nucleoli = 1-5
Chromatin = smooth
Cytoplasm = non-specific granules, moderate blue

215
Q

What are the steps of phagocytosis?

A
  • engulfment
  • formation of phagosome
  • formation of phagolysosome
  • digestion
216
Q

Chemical stains to differentiate leukemoid reaction from CML

A

LAP (leukocyte alkaline phosphatase)?

217
Q

How is an absolute count obtained?

A

Multiplying the total WBC by the % of the type of cell question

218
Q

Describe ESR

A
  • nonspecific indicator of infection
  • that must be set up within 2 hours of collection
  • that sits undisturbed for an hour
  • that cannot be moved or jarred during its hour resting
  • normal values for men: 0-10; women: 0-20
219
Q

What are three conditions that would increase eosinophils?

A
  • allergy
  • drug reaction
  • parasitic infections
  • collagen disease
  • Hodgkins disease
  • myeloproliferative diseases
220
Q

When are LE cells seen?

A

When blood cells are ruptured and nuclear material is released, which interacts with specific antibody by phagocytosis

221
Q

Where do T-cells mature and differetiate?

222
Q

What is the cell that is fully differentiated B cells and its function?

A
  • plasma cells
  • making antibodies
223
Q

What is the % of T and B cells in circulation?

A
  • 80-85% —> T-cells
  • 10-15% —> B cells
224
Q

What organs are primary lymphoid tissue?

A

Thymus and bone marrow

225
Q

What are the organs of secondary lymphoid tissue?

A
  • Spleen
  • Lymph nodes
  • Peyers patch
  • GALT
226
Q

What is the increase of white cells?

A

Leukocytosis

227
Q

What is the decrease of white cells?

A

Leukocytopenia

228
Q

What are the 4 reasons for neutrophilia?

A
  • inflammation conditions
  • infection
  • surgery
  • Burns
  • Stress
  • Drug/Hormones
  • Malignant - Leukemia
229
Q

Describe Pelegrín-Huet anomaly

A

Genetic, benign anomaly where 90% of the neutrophils are bi-lobed.

230
Q

Describe Psuedo-Pelegrín Huet

A

May be drug induced or may occur in a maturational arrest associated with some acute infection

231
Q

Describe May-Hegglin Anomaly

A

Genetic condition characterized by the presence of Dohle-like bodies in neutrophils, eosinophils and monocytes

232
Q

What condition are toxic granulation and Dohle bodies seen in?

A
  • neutrophils in infectious state
    —> burns
    —> malignant disorders
    —> drug therapy
  • monocytes in viral infections
    —> burns
    —> certian drugs
    —> May-Hegglin (Dohle body)
233
Q

What are 5 causes of lymphocytosis?

A
  • IM
  • Infectious hepatitis
  • CMV
  • mumps
  • varicella
  • rubeola
  • rubella
  • atypical pneumonia
  • TB
  • toxoplasmosis
234
Q

Describe infectious lymphocytosis

A

An acute poorly defined mild benign condition caused by a virus (probably Coxsackie) seen in mainly in children

235
Q

Describe Toxoplasmosis

A

A widespread disease that occurs in humans and animals whose definitive host is cats. Pregnant women who get this parasite can pass it along to their unborn child

236
Q

What are the disease conditions are caused by EBV

A
  • IM
  • Burkett’s lymphoma
  • Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
  • Neoplasm’s of the thymus, parotid gland and Supra-glottic larynx
237
Q

What are 2 conditions that cause leukocpenia?

A
  • DiGeorge syndrome
  • AIDS
  • SLE
238
Q

Decribe Bordetalla pertussis

A
  • also called whooping cough
  • causes leukocytosis as high as 100,000.
  • caused by a gram-negative bacillus
  • More than one million deaths a year and people are the only natural host

MLT Hematology (7 decks)

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