Unit 5 Chapters 20, 27-31 The Evolutionary History Of Biodiversity, Biotechnology, Plants, Fungi, Protists, Bacteria, And Archrea Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the recombinant DNA drugs is incorrectly matched with its indication (the disease it is prescribed totreat)?

A

Neupogen (Amgen): Multiple sclerosis (Interferon)

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2
Q

Ian Wilmut

A

Cloning of Dolly the Sheep

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3
Q

Jennifer Doudna

A

CRISPR Cas9

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4
Q

W. French Anderson

A

First Human Gene Therapy

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5
Q

Shinya Yamanaka

A

induced Pluripotent Stem Cells

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6
Q

Stanley Cohen

A

Isolation of bacterial plasmids

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7
Q

Kary Mulis

A

Polymerase chain reaction

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8
Q

Herb Boyer

A

Isolation of restriction enzymes, Founder of Genentech

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9
Q

James Thompson

A

Derivation of Human embryonic stem cells

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10
Q

Fred Sanger

A

Dideoxy DNA sequencing

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11
Q

Craig venter

A

Whole genome shotgun sequencing

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12
Q

In the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique, a heating phase and a cooling phase alternate in cycles. Anoriginal sample of DNA would have to pass through how many total cycles to amplify the DNA ~1 billiontimes? (What about 2 billion times? What about 1 trillion times?)

A

C. 30

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13
Q

This figure shows the steps in cloning the human insulin gene. What process or enzyme was used for Step 1 ?

A

C. A restriction enzyme

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14
Q

Gene therapy treatments with new drugs like Kymriah and Yescarta (select all that apply)

A

B. The first FDA-approved drugs for immunotherapy to treat specific treatments

C. Involves the use of genetically engineered Chimeric Antigen Receptor T-cell to recognize proteins like CD19 on cancer cells

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15
Q

Match the drug with the disease ? Breast Cancer - HER 2+

A

Herceptin

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16
Q

Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma CD20+

A

Rituxin

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17
Q

T-cell autoimmune diseases like Rheumatoid arthritis and Psoriasis

A

Enbrel

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18
Q

RSV

A

Synagis

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19
Q

Cancer (antiVEGF, anti angiogenesis)

A

Avastin

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20
Q

PAM

A

A 3-6 nucleotide DNA sequence immediately downstream of the target site in the genomic DNA to be edited

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21
Q

Cas9

A

An ending lease that can create double-stranded breaks in DNA

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22
Q

SgRNA

A

An RNA molecule engineered to be complementary to the target to be edited

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23
Q

Which of these statements is NOT TRUE regarding the procedure for making cloned animals by somaticcell nuclear transfer?

A

The donor nucleus is from a haploid, quiescent cell

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24
Q

Idaho Gem

A

First cloned mule

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25
Q

Dolly

A

First cloned mammal

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26
Q

Prometia

A

First cloned animal that was born from its genetic twin

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27
Q

Zong Zong

A

First cloned macaque for neuroscience research

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28
Q

CC

A

First coined housecoat (female calico)

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29
Q

Joy

A

First cloned piglet engineered for human organ transplant

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30
Q

Human embryonic stem cells (hES cells) and hiPS may be useful in transplant medicine because the cells:

a. Are pleuripotent and can form virtually any cell type in the body with appropriate hormones and growthfactors
b. Make the enzyme telomerase, allowing them to replicate indefinitely in tissue culture
c. Have the same genetic karyotype as a normal human cell
d. Can be prepared to provide an exact tissue match to a patient
e. All of the above

A

All of the above

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31
Q

In 2007, it was reported that adult, differentiated human skin cells can be made to behave as pluripotentstem cells by the introduction of a few genes: Oct 4, Sox2, Kfl4 and c-myc. What concern has limited thepotential of human Induced Pleuripotent Stem Cells as human therapeutics?

A

The gene c-myc is an oncogene that causes cancer phenotypein about 25% of the cell cultures

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32
Q

Human embryonic stem cells (hES cells) derived from blastocysts donated after IVF (in vitro fertilization)have been successfully used in research to: (select all that apply)
a. Create new mesodermal cells like beating heart cells
b. Create new ectodermal cells like dopamine-producing nerve cells
c. Create new endodermal cells like insulin-secreting pancreatic islet cells
d. Create a cloned human from stem-cell derived eggs and sperm

A

a. Create new mesodermal cells like beating heart cells
b. Create new ectodermal cells like dopamine-producing nerve cells
c. Create new endodermal cells like insulin-secreting pancreatic islet cells

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33
Q

The bacteria Bacillus thurengiensis (Bt)
a. naturally makes a crystal protein toxic to Lepidopteran insects
b. causes food poisoning in people who eat the crystal protein
c. is the active ingredient in the insecticide Dipel
d. all of the above
e. a and c

A

A. Naturally naked a crystal protein toxic to Lepidopteran insects

C. Is the active ingredient in the insecticide Dipel

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34
Q

In the crop called Golden Rice, this genetically modified food
a. contains 4 genes from daffodils and bacteria that together produce the pigment B-carotene in rice
b. holds the potential for preventing the deaths of millions of people every year
c. can help prevent blindness resulting from vitamin A deficiency
d. will be offered at low cost or no cost to developing countries
e. all of the above

A

All of the above

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35
Q

Crops that are RoundUp Ready
a. Make the herbicide RoundUp in every cell of the plant
b. Kill weeds in the fields where they are growing
c. Are genetically modified to be resistant to treatment with RoundUp herbicide
d. Contain a mutant form of the enzyme EPSP synthase that is unaffected by RoundUp herbicide
e. c and d only

A

e. C and D only

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36
Q

A dideoxy ("chain terminating") nucleotide used in DNA sequencing differs from a deoxynucleotide as it has
a. An -OH at the 3-carbon and an -OH at the 2-carbon of deoxyribose
b. A "U" instead of an "A" in base-pairing
c. An -H at the 3-carbon and an -OH at the 2-carbon of deoxyribose
d. An -H at the 3-carbon and an -H at the 2-carbon of deoxyribose
e. Ribose as the sugar and 3 phosphates from ATP

A

D. An -H at the 3-carbon and an -H at the 2 carbon of deoxyribose

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37
Q

Some bacteria avoid a host's immune system by means of:
a. efficient use of their flagella.
b. cloaking the cell with host proteins.
c. cloaking the cell with a watery capsule.
d. changing their cell wall structure to resemble that of their host.
e. eliminating the use of a membrane

A

C. Clocking the cell with a watery capsule

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38
Q

Even though bacteria lack membrane-bound organelles, such as chloroplasts and mitochondria, they can still perform the functions of these organelles by localizing certain metabolic enzymes on:
a. the nuclear membranes.
b. the endoplasmic reticulum.
c. infoldings of the plasma membrane.
d. ribosomes.
e. the cell wall

A

C. In folding of the plasma membranes

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39
Q

Extrachromosomal circles of DNA in bacteria called ______ often carry genes involved in _______:
a. capsids, bacterial reproduction
b. capsids, antibiotic resistance.
c. plasmids, viral resistance.
d. plasmids, antibiotic resistance

A

D. Plasmids, antibiotic resistance

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40
Q

Many Gram (+) Eubacteria like Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthraxis have the ability to survive harsh environmental conditions by protecting their DNA in a dormant structure called a(n)
a. capsule
b. endospore
c. endotoxin
d. sporangium
e. capsid

A

B. Endospore

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41
Q

Once they appeared on Earth, ___ forever changed the atmosphere on earth by the production of largequantities of oxygen gas.
a. Gm (+) eubacteria
b. archaebacteria
c. cyanobacteria
d. plants
e. Gm (-) rickettsias

A

C. Cyanobacteria

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42
Q

Prokaryotes found inhabiting the Great Salt Lake would be the _____.
a. cyanobacteria
b. extreme halophiles
c. methanogens
d. extreme thermophiles

A

B. Extreme halophiles

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43
Q

The structure in the accompanying figure labeled C (outermost layer) is___, and the structure indicated by the letter I is _____:
a. C - the plasma membrane, I - the cilia.
b. C - the capsule, I - the cilia
c. C - the capsule, I - the flagella
d. C - the cell wall, I - the flagella
e. C - the capsule, I - the pilus

A

C. C- the capsule, I- the flagella

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44
Q

What is the function of the structures labeled B?
a. to adhere to host cells, or other bacteria, or solid substrates
b. to prevent phagocytosis by a white blood cell of the host
c. to transmit DNA from one cell to another
d. to exchange genetic material and genetic traits like antibiotic resistance between cells
e. All answers except B

A

All answers except B

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45
Q

The ____ Archaebacteria are typically found in extremely hot environments, whereas the _______Archaebacteria are typically found in swampy environments lacking oxygen.
a. Extreme halophile, methanogenic
b. Extreme thermophile, methanogenic
c. Pyrrhanogen, Extreme halophilic
d. Methanogens, Extreme thermophilic
e. Gram positive, Gram negative.

A

B. Extreme Thermophile, methanogenic

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46
Q

Organisms that share the most DNA homology to mitochondria and chloroplasts, respectively, are:
a. Proteobacteria, cyanoacteria.
b. Proteobacteria, green sulfur bacteria.
c. Eubacteria, green sulfur bacteria.
d. Eubacteria, cyanobacteria.
e. E. coli, green sulfur bacteria

A

A. Proteobacteria, Cyanobacteria

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47
Q

What makes rRNA (or another sequence) a good 'evolutionary chronometer'?a. It is universally distributed across the group chosen - all organisms have rRNA.
b. It is functionally similar between organisms - rRNAs all participate in protein synthesis.
c. Its sequence changes slowly - good for looking across long periods of time
d. The rRNA sequences can be aligned, or matched up, between 2 organisms.
e. All of the above

A

All of the above

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48
Q

The most significant difference between the Archaea and the Eubacteria is:
a. the lack of a nuclear envelope in the Archaea.
b. the absence of the 70S ribosomes in the Eubacteria.
c. the presence of a single filament flagellum in the Eubacteria.
d. the small subunit (16 S) rRNA sequence.
e. All of the above

A

D. The small subunit (16 S) rRNA sequence

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49
Q

The first indication that Archaea were different from the Eubacteria came from:
a. the absence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of the Archaea.
b. Ribosome size.
c. 16 S rRNA sequence.
d. nuclei.
e. response to antibiotics

A

A, the absence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of Archaea

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50
Q

Most bacterial cells keep from bursting in a hypotonic environment by
a. an efficient water pump
b. a tough cell membrane.
c. pumping large quantities of salts into the cell.
d. a rigid cell wall.
e. a stiff capsule

A

D. A rigid cell wall

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51
Q

Gram-positive bacteria stain _____ in a gram stain because of a thick layer of _____ in their cell walls
a. green; peptidoglycan
b. purple; peptidoglycan
c. green; cellulose
d. purple; polysaccharides
e. red; polysaccharides

A

B. Purple; peptidoglycan

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52
Q

Which of the following groups of prokaryotes contains the genus Clostridium, responsible for the human diseases tetanus and botulism?
a. Spirochetes
b. Cyanobacteria
c. Methanogens
d. Gram Positive Eubacteria
e. Proteobacteria

A

D. Gram Positive eubacteria

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53
Q

Which of the following groups of prokaryotes in the figure above contains the bacteria Helicobacter pylori, responsible for human ulcers, and E. coli, beneficial intestinal bacteria in humans?
a. Thermophiles
b. Cyanobacteria
c. Methanogens
d. Gram Positive Eubacteria
e. Proteobacteria

A

E. Proteobacteria

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54
Q

Which of the following groups of prokaryotes might be found in the Great Salt Lake, the Red Sea, the DeadSea, but NOT necessarily in the ocean?
a. Cyanobacteria
b. Methanogens
c. Gram Positive Eubacteria
d. Proteobacteria.
e. Extreme Halophiles

A

E. Extreme halophiles

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55
Q

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY Which of the following cellular structures are shared by bacteria, archaea, andeukaryotes?
a. Plasma membrane
b. Nuclear envelope
c. Membrane-bound organelles
d. Cell wall composed of peptidoglycan
e. Linear chromosomes

A

A plasma membrane

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56
Q

Match the Prokaryotes to their classification group:
Prokaryotes that thrive in the Great Salt Lake and salt evaporation ponds
1. Cyanobacteria
2. Halophiles
3. Gram negative proteobacteria
4. Thermophiles

A

2. Halophiles

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57
Q

Match the Prokaryotes to their classification group:
Prokaryotes that thrive in extremely hot environments
1. Cyanobacteria
2. Halophiles
3. Gram negative proteobacteria
4. Thermophiles

A

Thermophiles

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58
Q

Match the Prokaryotes to their classification group:
Prokaryotes most closely related to human mitochondria
1. Cyanobacteria
2. Halophiles
3. Gram-negative proteobacteria
4. Thermophiles

A

Gram negative Proteobacteria

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59
Q

Match the Prokaryotes to their classification group:
Prokaryotes most closely related to sunflower chloroplasts
1. Cyanobacteria
2. Halophiles
3. Gram negative proteobacteria
4. Thermophiles

A

Cyanobacteria

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60
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

Tetanus (“lockjaw”)

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61
Q

Clostridium botulinum

A

Botulism - food poisoning

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62
Q

Helicobacter pylori

A

Stomach ulcers

63
Q

Bacillus anthraxis

A

Anthrax

64
Q

Tremonema pallidum

A

Syphilis

65
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the human disease Anthrax?
a. Panel 1
b. Panel 2
c. Panel 3
d. Panel 4

A

Panel 1

66
Q

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY (ABOVE RIGHT): The colorful organisms growing in this photo
a. Are isolated populations of red algae, green algae, and golden algae
b. Cause deadly 'red tides' in the oceans during the summer months
c. Are populations of Halophilic, extremophilic Archaea

A

a. Are isolated populations of red algae, green algae, and golden algae
c. Are populations of Halophilic, extremophilic Archaea

67
Q

A

African sleeping sickness

68
Q

A

Tetanus

69
Q

A

Malaria

70
Q

A

Trichomonas

71
Q

SELECT ALL THT APPLY: What do these three cells BELOW have in common?
a. They all have DNA-containing nuclei (one or more)
b. They are all photosynthetic
c. They all move by means of flagella
d. They are all Unikonts

A

A. They all have DNA- containing nuclei (one or more)

72
Q

Which of these three cells ABOVE is an Excavate (Superclade 1) that does not have functional mitochondria?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. All of them have mitochondria
e. None of them have mitochondria

A

B

73
Q

The process occurring between cell 1 and 2 BELOW is termed:
a. Endospore formation
b. Cytoplasmic streaming
c. Conjugation
d. Asexual reproduction
e. Endosymbiosis

A

C. Conjugation

74
Q

The organism in this slide ABOVE, Spirogyra, is a member of:
a. Superclade I: Excavata
b. Superclade II: S.A.R.
c. Superclade III: Archaeplastida
d. Superclade IV: Unikonta

A

C. Super lady III: Archaeplastida

75
Q

Among the protists shown (1, 2, 3, 4):
a. Which two are members of Superclade II, S.A.R?

A

1 and 3

76
Q

Among the protists shown (1, 2, 3, 4):
b. Which two are members of Superclade III, Archaeplastida?

A

2 and 4

77
Q

What disorder is 2 ?

A

Malaria

78
Q

What disorder is 3 ?

A

Giardia

79
Q

What disorder is 4 ?

A

Red Tide

80
Q

What disorder is 1 ?

A

African Sleeping Sickness

81
Q

What type of protists have formed massive deposits of chalk, as seen in the White Cliffs of Dover?
a. Diatoms
b. Dinoflagellates
c. Alveolates (Ciliates)
d. Cercozoans (Forams)
e. Euglenas

A

D. Cercozoans (Forams)

82
Q

Pseudopods are used by the members of clade Amoebozoa for ingesting food as well as for:
a. reproduction.
b. excretion.
c. digestion.
d. movement.
e. avoiding predation

A

D. Movement

83
Q

Which of the following is true about Radiolarans?
a. They cause periodic red tides, poisoning shellfish and the people who eat the shellfish
b. They capture prey through the use of thread-like pseudopods
c. They have a test (shell) of calcium carbonate (chalk)
d. B and c
e. All of the above

A

B. They capture prey through use of thread-like pseudopods

84
Q

Entamoeba histolytica, a parasite that is the causative agent of Amoebic Dysentery, crawls through the small intestine of its victims via pseudopod formation. Based on this information, Entamoeba histolytica is a member of the clade
a. Euglenozoa
b. Amoebozoa
c. Alveolata
d. Stramenopila

A

B. Amoeboza

85
Q

A commercially important unicellular protist whose silica shells are used in filters, polishes, toothpaste and various industrial processes. What are they a. dinoflagellates.
b. euglenoids.
c. apicomplexans.
d. zooflagellates.
e. diatoms

A

e. diatoms

86
Q

Protists like ________________ represent an intermediate stage in eukaryotic evolution when cells each hadtwo haploid nuclei but fusion to become a true diploid organism had not occurred.
a. Plasmodium
b. Amoeba
c. Euglena
d. Giardia
e. Paramecium

A

d. Giardia

87
Q

The parasitic protist that causes malaria, Plasmodium, must spend part of its life cycle in a nonhuman host. What organism(s) serve(s) as the vector for this life cycle?
a. rats
b. sand flies
c. mosquitos
d. leeches
e. tse-tse flies

A

C. Mosquitos

88
Q

Trypanosomes are eukaryotes that are currently classified in the SuperClade
a. Superclade I: Excavata
b. Superclade II: S.A.R.
c. Superclade III: Archaeplastida
d. Superclade IV: Unikonta

A

A. Superclade I: Excavata

89
Q

Which organisms are capable of producing a "red tide", secreting a nerve agent toxic to humans?
a. dinoflagellates
b. chrysophytes (diatoms)
c. sporozoans
d. euglenids
e. red algae

A

A dinoflagellates

90
Q

The mitochondria of eukaryotic cells most likely arose as a result of endosymbiosis between a eukaryotic celland a
a. Cyanobacteria (Blue-green bacteria).
b. Gram (-) bacterium like Rickettsia.
c. Gram (+) bacterium like Bacillus
d. Gram (-) bacterium like E. coli
e. Spiral bacteria like spirochaetes

A

B. Gram (-) bacterium like Rickettsia

91
Q

In paramecium and stentor, the surface of the cell is covered with thousands of short, hairlike _____:
a. pili
b. pseudopods
c. flagella
d. cilia
e. trichomes

A

d. cilia

92
Q

Molecular data in support of endosymbiosis indicates that chloroplasts are highly similar to __________ thatmay have been engulfed by a heterotrophic eukaryote over a billion year ago.
a. mitochondria
b. euglenids
c. cyanobacteria
d. ciliates
e. dinoflagellates

A

Mitochondria

93
Q

Euglena and dinoflagellates show Secondary Endosymbiosis in that
a. they have both mitochondria and chloroplasts
b. they have two lipid bilayers around their mitochondria
c. they have chloroplasts, but they are non-functional
d. they have two lipid bilayers around their chloroplasts
e. they have three lipid bilayers around their chloroplasts

A

e. they have three lipid bilayers around their chloroplasts

94
Q

Which parasitic protist has 2 haploid nuclei, 2 pairs of flagella, remnants of mitochondrial genes (but no intactmitochondria) and lives and reproduces in the small intestines of mammals?
a. Chara
b. Giaridia
c. Amoeba
d. Stentor
e. Volvox

A

Giaridia

95
Q

Evidence for the Endosymbiotic Theory (Margulis, 1967) includes
a. similarity between bacterial size and the size of mitochondria and chloroplasts
b. the presence of a single circular chromosome in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts
c. reproduction by binary fission in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts
d. 70S ribosomes in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts
e. All of the above provides evidence for the Endosymbiotic Theory

A

All of the above provides evidence for the Endosymbiotic Theory

96
Q

Evidence that Chara is the direct ancestor of all land plants includes
a. the mechanism of cell wall synthesis in Chara and all land plants
b. the presence of vascular tissue in Chara and all land plants
c. the presence of homologous chloroplasts (chlorophylls a and b, as well as accessory pigments) in Chara and all land plants
d. the presence of a cuticle in in Chara and all land plants
e. A and C only

A

E. A and C only

97
Q

A wildlife pathologist is examining some skin tissue from a dead frog. She notes the presence of a fungus. She cultures the fungal cells and notices that some of the cells are flagellated. She concludes that the frog has a disease caused by
a. an ascomycete fungus.
b. a zygomycete fungus.
c. a basdiomycete fungus.
d. a chytridomycete fungus

A

D. A chytridomycete fungus

98
Q

The cells in this mushroom are
a. 1= haploid, 2 = diploid
b. 1= dikaryotic, 2 = haploid
c. 1= diploid, 2 = haploid
d. 1= dilkaryotic 2 = diploid
e. 1= haploid, 2 = dikaryotic

A

D. 1=dilkaryotic, 2 = diploid

99
Q

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY : The products of meiosis released by this fungus (arrow indicated by 3):
a. Are haploid
b. Are diploid
c. Are called basidiospores
d. Are called conidia
e. A and b only
f. A and C only

A

A. Are haploid

100
Q

The sac fungi are characterized by sexualreproductive structures called_________ and asexualreproductive structures called ___________:
a. asci, conidia.
b. basidia, sporangia
c. gemmae cups, conidia.
d. conidiophores, ascocarps
e. conidia, asci

A

A. Asci, conidia

101
Q

Claviceps purpurea infests grain like rye and produces _______________, a precursor of LSD which, if accidentally ingested, can cause hallucinations and even death.
a. an ergot
b. a smut
c. a rust
d. a brown rot
e. a mildew

A

A. An ergot

102
Q

Consuming even a single mushroom of the genus _______________ can be fatal due to the irreversibleinhibition of the enzyme RNA polymerase.
a. Agaricus
b. Shittake
c. Portobello
d. Amanita
e. Oyster

A

D. Amanita

103
Q

Mycorrhizal fungi benefits plants by:
a. increasing photosynthetic area.
b. increasing absorptive surface area of roots.
c. increasing chlorophyll content.
d. increasing leaf area.
e. All of the above

A

B. Increasing absorptive surface area of roots

104
Q

Mycorrhizal fungi benefits plants by:
a. increasing photosynthetic area.
b. increasing absorptive surface area of roots.
c. increasing chlorophyll content.
d. increasing leaf area.
e. All of the above

A

B. Increasing absorptive surface area of roots

105
Q

Lichens reproduce primarily asexually by ______, which are fragments of the body of the lichen.
a. conidia
b. soredia
c. asci
d. thalli

A

Soredia

106
Q

DNA and rRNA analysis indicates that modern fungi descended from
a. Plants
b. Diatoms and other protists with a shell made of chitin
c. Colonial, flagellated protists similar to choanoflagellates
d. Colonial, photosynthesic protists similar to volvox
e. Protists that have large masses of amoeboid cells like plasmodial slime molds

A

c. Colonial, flagellated protists similar to choanoflagellates

107
Q

Puffballs and shelf fungi are most closely related to:
a. molds.
b. truffles.
c. the common edible mushroom.
d. yeast.
e. the black bread mold

A

C. The common edible mushroom

108
Q

Which one of the following BELOW is the only fungus with a well-known sexual and asexual life cycle?
a. Panel A
b. Panel B
c. Panel C
d. Panel D

A

A. Panel A

109
Q

Which one of the following fungi ABOVE is a member of the Deuteromycota?
a. Panel A
b. Panel B
c. Panel C
d. Panel D

A

C. Panel C

110
Q

The orange fungus shown BELOW in the upper left box is a member of the Phylum:
a. Glomerulomycota
b. Ascomycota
c. Zygomycota
d. Basidiomycota
e. Deuteromycota

A

B. Ascomycota

111
Q

If you were to look closely at the orange fungus shown in the upper left box ABOVE , which of thefollowing structures would you see at higher magnification that would indicate sexual reproduction andmeiosis is occurring?
a. Panel A
b. Panel B
c. Panel C
d. Panel D

A

B. Panel B

112
Q

When the organism (A) BELOW reproduces, it produces the structures shown in:
a. Panel B
b. Panel C
c. Panel D
d. Panel E

A

C. Panel D

113
Q

Which organism ABOVE is the Chytrid fungus implicated in amphibian die-offs worldwide?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

A

B.

114
Q

The two structures (2 and 3) BELOW are commonly seen in a kitchen:
a. 2 = In a jar of bread machine yeast; 3 = On moldy oranges
b. 2 = On moldy bread; 3 = On moldy oranges
c. 2 = On moldy bread; 3 = In a container of sliced mushrooms
d. 2 = Growing in Bleu cheese; 2 = On moldy bread
e. 2 = In a jar of bread machine yeast; 3 = On moldy oranges

A

B. 2= On moldy bread; 3= On moldy oranges

115
Q

In this slide ABOVE, (1) represents a _________ and (2) represents a _________:
a. Sporangium; Zygospore
b. Zygospore; Conidia
c. Zygospore ; Sporangium
d. Conidia; Zygospore

A

C. Zygospore ; Sporangium

116
Q

Which of the fungi shown BELOW is a member of the genus Amanita and produces a deadlypoison?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

A

B. B

117
Q

Which of the following fungi ABOVE is NOT a member of the Phylum Basidiomycota?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

A

A. A

118
Q

Which two of the following choices (a-l) are mismatched?
a. Bread mold - zygomycetes
b. Sac fungi - Ascomycota
c. Yeast - Ascomycota
d. Amanita mushrooms - Ascomycota
e. Shelf fungi - Basidiomycota
f. Bleu cheese (Penicillium) fungi -Deuteromycota
g. Pizza Mushroom - Basidiomycetes
h. Sac fungi - Ascomycetes
i. Club fungi - Basidiomycetes
j. Puff balls - Basidiomycetes
k. Corn smut - Ascomycetes
l. Mycorrhizal fungi - Glomerulomycota

A

d. Amanita mushrooms - Ascomycota
k. Corn smut - Ascomycetes

119
Q

First Flowering Plants

A

130 mya

120
Q

First seed plants

A

360 mya

121
Q

First Pteridophytes (ferns)

A

410 mya

122
Q

First Land Plants (Bryophylates)

A

440 mya

123
Q

First Animals (jellyfish)

A

700 mya

124
Q

First Fungi

A

1300 mya (1.3 bya)

125
Q

First Eukaryotes (Protists)

A

1500 (1.5) bya

126
Q

First Photosynthetic Bacteria

A

3200 mya (3.2 bya)

127
Q

First Bacterial Life (Archaea)

A

3800 mya (3.8 bya)

128
Q

When you see a green moss, you are looking at the _________ generation
a. haploid sporophyte
b. haploid gametophyte
c. diploid sporophyte
d. diploid gametophyte
e. structure where meiosis occurs
f. structure that results directly from a fertilized egg

A

B. Haploid gametophyte

129
Q

In the fern life cycle shown at right, where is the process of meiosis taking place?
a. In the archaegonium - A
b. In the fern sori - A
c. In the diploid zygote - B
d. In the heart-shaped Prothallus - C
e. In the fiddlehead - D

A

B. In the fern sori - A

130
Q

The haploid gametophyte (C )
a. develops from meiosis in the sori
b. Has some cells that make flagellated sperm
c. Has some cells that make haploid eggs
d. Will nourish the young fern fiddlehead
e. All of the above

A

A. Develops from meiosis in the sori

131
Q

The leafy fern that you might have as ahouse plant is the _____________________generation.
a. diploid sporophyte
b. diploid gametophyte
c. haploid sporophyte
d. haploid gametophyte

A

A. Diploid sporophyte

132
Q

Fertilization in moss occurs when sperm swim from a(n) _____ and down the neck of a(n)________tofertilize the egg
a. antheridium ... sporangium
b. sporangium ... antheridium
c. antheridium ... archegonium
d. archegonium ... antheridium
e. sporangium ... archegonium

A

A. Antheridium….. Sporangium

133
Q

In mosses, the antheridia produce:
a. sperm
b. spores
c. buds
d. eggs
e. leaves

A

A. Sperm

134
Q

Following double fertilization in Angiosperms, the triploid nucleus of the embryo sac develops into the
a. embryo
b. endosperm
c. fruit
d. carpel
e. seed

A

B. Endosperm

135
Q

The eggs of gymnosperms like conifers are fertilized within ovules, and the ovules then develop into _____
a. seeds
b. spores
c. gametophytes
d. fruit
e. ovaries

A

A. Seeds

136
Q

In angiosperms, double fertilization produces
a. twin embryos (diploid)
b. the 2n embryo and the 3n antipodals
c. the 2n embryo and the 2n seed coat
d. the 2n embryo and the 3n endosperm
e. the 3n endosperm and the 2n seed coat

A

D. The 2n embryo and the 3n endosperm

137
Q

Following fertilization, an unequal division of the cytoplasm occurs to split the embryo into two cells.Which of the following is true?
a. The upper, terminal cell becomes the embryo and eventually the new plant
b. The lower, basal cell becomes the suspensor and anchors the embryo within the seed
c. The upper, terminal cell becomes the endosperm
d. a and b only
e. b and c only

A

E. B and C only

138
Q

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Seeds have advantages over spores. For example, _____
a. seeds contain embryonic plants, an abundant food supply, and a protective covering
b. seeds can survive for extended periods of time at reduced metabolic rates
c. seeds are single cells, demanding fewer nutrients from the parent plants
d. seeds can survive even in conditions that are unfavorable for the parent plants

A

a. seeds contain embryonic plants, an abundant food supply, and a protective covering
b. seeds can survive for extended periods of time at reduced metabolic rates
d. seeds can survive even in conditions that are unfavorable for the parent plants

139
Q

Pollen is __________ and contains __________.
a. diploid ... spores
b. diploid ... sperm nuclei
c. haploid ... spores
d. haploid ... sperm nuclei

A

D. Haploid …. Sperm nuclei

140
Q

The receptive portion of a flower that receives the pollen is the
a. ovary
b. stigma
c. anther
d. carpel
e. anther

A

B. Stigma

141
Q

The triploid nucleus of the embryo sac develops into the _____
a. embryo
b. endosperm
c. fruit
d. carpel
e. seed

A

B. Endosperm

142
Q

A pea pod is formed from _____. A pea inside the pod is formed from _____.
a. an ovule ... a carpel
b. an ovary ... an ovule
c. an ovary ... a pollen grain
d. an anther ... an ovule
e. endosperm ... an ovary

A

B. An ovary…. An ovule

143
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of dicots?
a. two seed leaves
b. parts of flowers in fours or fives
c. a taproot
d. vascular bundles arranged in a ring
e. veins in leaves usually parallel

A

E. Veins in leaves usually parallel

144
Q

A derived characteristic that present in 2 (Ephedra) BELOW but absent in 1 (Club Moss) and 3 (Equisetum) is:
a. Production of seeds
b. Presence of vascular tissue
c. Production of flowers
d. A dominant sporophyte generation

A

A production of seeds

145
Q

Which two of the three plants shown ABOVE is/are classified as Pteridophytes (Seedless vascularplants)?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3

A

B. 1 and 3

146
Q

A derived characteristic present in moss (right) BELOW but absent in Chara (left) is:
a. The presence of true leaves
b. The presence of vascular tissue
c. The presence of a cuticle

A

C. The presence of a cuticle

147
Q

Which tissue on the right (1 or 2) ABOVE is diploid and contains spores?
a. 1
b. 2

A

A. 1

148
Q

A derived characteristic absent in Equisetum (A) but present in Gingko biloba (D) BELOW is:
a. Presence of vascular tissue
b. Production of seeds
c. Production of flowers
d. A dominant sporophyte generation

A

B. Production of seeds

149
Q

Which one of the four plants shown ABOVE: Horsetails (Equisetum, A), Hornwort (Anthoceros, B),the Whisk Fern (Psilotum, C), and Gingko (D) is the most primitive land plant, as it lacks vascular tissue?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

A

B. B

150
Q

Which of the following photos BELOW are of gymnosperms?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 4

A

B. 1 and 2

151
Q

Which of the following photos (blue arrows)ABOVE shows the female egg sac of a plant?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 3 and 4

A

C. 1 and 3

152
Q

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What derived characteristics do these plants BELOW have that is shared by all angiosperms arising 130 million years ago to today?
a. Seeds
b. Fruits
c. Flowers
d. Cones

A

B. Fruits
C. Flowers

153
Q

Based on this photo ABOVE, the flower on the left (1) indicates a __ and on a right (2) indicates a
a. Angiosperm, gymnosperm
b. Corn flower, Pine Flower
c. Dicot, monocot
d. Monocot, dicot

A

C. Dicot, Monocot