Unit 4- Nutrition and Fluid and Electrolytes Flashcards

1
Q

To help minimize calcium loss from a hospitalized client’s bones, the nurse should:
A.Encourage the pt to walk
B. Continue to keep the pt on bedrest
C. Have the client increase their water intake.
D. Ask the pt to increase they potassium intake.

A

A.Encourage the pt to walk

Explanation:
Calcium absorption diminishes with reduced physical activity because of decreased bone stimulation. Therefore, encouraging the client to increase physical activity, such as by walking in the hall, helps minimize calcium loss.

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2
Q

The nurse is teaching a patient with diverticulitis about increasing fiber intake. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
a. White bread
b. Cream of wheat
c. Carrots
d. Bananas

A

Answer: d
A high-fiber diet consists of fiber rich-fruits such as bananas, oranges, apples, dark vegetables, whole breads, and grains and nuts. White bread, cream of wheat, and carrots are low in fiber.

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3
Q

A patient is prescribed furosemide and is at risk of hypokalemia. Which food choice would be beneficial to manage this potential side effect?
a. Applesauce
b. Oranges
c. Cauliflower
d. Blueberries

A

Answer: b
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can contribute to low potassium levels. Foods high in potassium include bananas, oranges, potatoes, cooked spinach, cooked broccoli, and peas. Applesauce, cauliflower, and blueberries are foods recommended on a low-potassium diet.

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4
Q

A patient is a newly diagnosed diabetic. The nurse prioritizes education focused on which of the following nutritional choices?
a. Limiting carbohydrates
b. Increasing simple sugars
c. Maintaining 2500 calorie diet
d. Limiting sodium intake

A

Answer: a
The body turns carbohydrates into glucose and eating too many carbohydrates can cause the blood glucose levels to elevate. Diabetics should avoid simple sugars. Diabetic diets recommend less than 2500 calories. Sodium intake is not the main focus of a diabetic diet.

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5
Q

The client in low in Vitamin A which foods would you recommend for the patient?
A. Chicken breast
B. Carrots
C.Tomatoes
D. Watermelon

A

B. Carrots

FROM THE BOOK
Foods rich in vitamin A include liver, milk, egg yolk, and dark, leafy green vegetables. Yellow and orange vegetables and fruits (such as sweet potatoes, pumpkin, carrots, and apricots) also are good sources.

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6
Q

What macronutrient or vitamins promotes healing ? Select all that apply
A. Apples
B. Zinc
C. Protein
D. Grapes
E. Vitamin C

A

B, C, E

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7
Q

The nurse evaluates that nutritional education for a patient on a clear liquid diet has been effective when the patient selects which food item to comply with this order?
a. Pudding
b. Ice cream
c. Chicken broth
d. Rice

A

Answer: c
Chicken broth is a clear liquid and is easily digestible. Pudding and ice cream are opaque and would be part of a full-liquid diet. Rice is not included in a liquid diet.

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8
Q

The nurse instructs a patient with renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis about the type of diet needed to be consumed. The nurse determines that the patient understands the education if the patient selects which diet?
a. High in calories
b. Low in sodium, phosphorus, and protein
c. Low in fiber
d. High in potassium

A

Answer: b
Clients with kidney problems have difficulty maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance. There are challenges with excreting sodium, phosphorus, and protein, as well as potassium.

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9
Q

The nurse has placed a nasogastric tube for a patient requiring enteral feeding. The nurse validates placement through pH measurement and using clinical judgment. What gold standard should be used to confirm placement prior to using the tube?
a. Auscultation
b. Presence of bowel sounds
c. X-ray
d. Patient affirmation

A

Answer: c
The gold standard for confirming tube placement is by x-ray All of the other methods have more room for error and are not recommended.

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10
Q

Which of the following nutrients is most helpful in preventing birth defects and should be taken by women of childbearing age?
a. Folic acid
b. Magnesium
c. Calcium
d. Selenium

A

a. Folic acid

Folic acid has been shown to reduce neural tube defects of the brain and spinal cord by more than 70% and is the most recommended nutrient to be taken to prevent birth defects.

FROM THE BOOK
Folic acid supplements taken before and during pregnancy have been a major factor in the decline of neural tube defects in newborns. Dietary sources of folic acid include leafy green vegetables (kale, spinach, Brussels sprouts), oranges, strawberries, dried beans, peas and nuts, and enriched breads and cereals and other fortified grain products.

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11
Q

The nurse is reviewing discharge instructions for a patient on a low-fat diet. The nurse determines that the patient understands the dietary instructions if the patient selects which of the following food choices containing unsaturated fat?
a. Beef
b. Hydrogenated oil
c. Ice cream
d. Almonds

A

Answer: d
Beef and ice cream are high in saturated fat; hydrogenated oil is high in trans fat. Almonds contain unsaturated fat, which helps to lower LDL cholesterol, reduce inflammation, and build stronger cell membranes in the body

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12
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with hypocalcemia who does not like milk. Which food should the nurse encourage the patient to consume?
a. Cod
b. Eggs
c. Spinach
d. Tomatoes

A

Answer: c
Dark leafy vegetables such as spinach, kale, turnip greens, broccoli, Brussels sprouts, and cabbage are sources high in calcium.

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13
Q

The nurse is assessing the intravenous (IV) site in the right antecubital and notices that the area about 1 inch around it is cool, swollen, firm, and tender to touch. Which action should the nurse take first?
a. Take patient’s temperature.
b. Apply an ice pack to site.
c. Stop infusion and remove IV catheter.
d. Call the primary care provider immediately.

A

Answer: c
The area around an IV infiltration is cool, swollen, firm, and tender to touch. The first intervention to take for an infiltrated IV is to stop the infusion and discontinue the IV/remove the catheter. Applying cold compresses may be appropriate for hyperosmolar fluids but only after the IV infusion has been stopped. Taking the temperature would be an assessment to make if the complication of infection is suspected. The primary care provider does not need to be notified unless grade 3 or 4 infiltrations are noted (> 6 inches edema).

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14
Q

What is infiltration?
A. When the IV is patent
B. When the IV is being infiltrated with flush
C. Coolness and tenderness at the IV site
D.Extreme heat of the IV site

A

C. Coolness and tenderness at the IV site

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15
Q

What does IV mean?
A. Intravenous
B. Intravasucibulator
C. Intrapersonal
D. interpersonal

A

A. Intravenous

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16
Q

How should an good IV present itself?
A.Redness
B. Swelling
C. Patent
D. Filtrated

A

C. Patent

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17
Q

A patient has reported a 2-kg (4.4-lb) weight gain over the past 3 days. Which assessment cues should the nurse recognize as additional evidence for a nursing diagnosis of Fluid Volume Overload (Hypervolemia)? (Select all that apply.)
a. Third spacing/edema
b. Potassium intake
c. Bounding, rapid pulse
d. Crackles in lungs
e. Dry mucous membranes

A

Answer: a, c, d

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18
Q

Which dietary supplement should the nurse suggest to the client who needs to increase his or her intake of calcium?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

A

D. Vitamin D

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19
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with congestive heart failure. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client is dyspneic and that crackles are audible on auscultation. The nurse suspects excess fluid volume. What additional signs would the nurse expect to note in this client if excess fluid volume is present?

A .Weight loss
B . Flat neck and hand veins
C . An increase in blood pressure
D. a decreased central venous pressure (CVP)

A

Answer: C) An increase in blood pressure

Rational: A fluid volume excess is also known as overhydration or fluid overload and occurs when fluid intake or fluid retention exceeds the fluid needs of the body. Assessment findings associated with fluid colume excess include cough, dyspnea, crackles, tachypnea, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, bounding pulse, elevated CVP, weight gain, edema, neck and hand vein distention, altered level of consciousness, and decreased hematocrit. Options 1, 2, and 4 identify signs noted in fluid volume deficit.

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20
Q

A nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes that a client’s serum sodium level is 150 mEq/L. The nurse reports the serum sodium level to the physician and the physician prescribes dietary instructions based on the serum level. Which food item does the nurse instruct the client to avoid.

A. Peas
B. Nuts
C. Cauliflower
D. Processed oat cereals

A

D. Processed oat cereals

Rational: The normal serum sodium level is 135 - 145. a serum sodium level of 150 indicates hypernatremia. Based on this finding, the nurse would instruct the client to avoid food high in sodium. Nuts, cauliflower, and peas are good food sources of phosphorus. Processed food are high in sodium content.

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21
Q

A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of hypocalcemia. Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse expected to notes in the client?

A. Twitching
B.Hypoactive bowel sounds
C.Negative Trouseau’s sign
D.Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes

A

A. Twitching

Signs of hypocalcemia include paresthesias followed by numbness, hyperactive deep tendon reflexes and a positive Trouseau’s or Chvosteck’s sign. Additional signs of hypocalcemia include increased neuromuscular excitability, muscle cramps, twitching, tetany, seizures, irritability, and anxiety. Gastrointestinal symptoms include increased gastric motility, hyperactive bowel sounds, abdominal cramping, and diarrhea.

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22
Q

A nurse is caring for a client with acute congestive heart failure who is receiving high doses of a diuretic. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client has flat neck veins, generalized muscle weakness, and diminished deep tendon reflexes. The nurse suspects hyponatremia. What additional signs would the nurse expect to note in a client with hyponatremia?

A. Extreme thirst
B. Decreased urinary output
C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
D. Increased specific gravity of the urine

A

C. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Rational: Hyponatremia is evidenced by serum sodium level lower than 135. Hyperactive bowel sounds indicated hypernatremia. Options 1, 2, and 4 are signs of hypernatremia. In hyponatremia, increased urinary output and decreased specific gravity of the urine would be noted.

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23
Q

A nurse is reading a physician’s progress notes in the lcient’s record and reads that the physician had documented “insensible fluid loss of approximately 800 mL daily.” The nurse interprets that this type of fluid loss can occur through:

A.The skin
B. Urinary output
C. Wound drainage
D.The gastrointestinal tract

A

A.The skin

Rational: Sensible losses are those of which the person is aware, such as through wound drainage, gastrointestinal tract losses, and urination. Insensible losses may occur without the person’s awareness. Insensible losses occur daily through the skin and lungs.

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24
Q

What lab would you pull if a patient is dehydrated?
A. Serum sodium level of 167
B. Serum magnesium levels of 2.3
C.Serum chloride levels of 100
D. Serum calcium levels of 12

A

A. Serum sodium level of 167

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25
Q

What lab would you pull if a patient is malnourished?
A. Potassium levels of 4.5
B. Albumin levels of 1.3
C. Vitamin deficiency
D. B12

A

B. Albumin levels of 1.3

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26
Q

What are vitamins are vegans at risk for a deficiency for?
A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K

A

A. Vitamin B12

WHY
because VIT B12 is mainly found in animal products and VEGANS RESTRICT ANYTHING FROM ANIMAL PRODUCTS. yOUR NURSING INTERVENTION WOULD BE TO PUT THEM ON SUPPLEMENTS OF B12.

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27
Q

What mineral would Vegans be at risk for a deficiency in?
A. Magnesium
B. Calcium
C. Chloride
D. Sodium

A

B. Calcium

WHY
The main source of calcium is through diary products and vegans RESTRICT all animal products

28
Q

A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review of the clients’ medical records, the nurse determines that which client is at risk for fluid volume excess?

A. The client taking diuretics
B. The client with renal failure
C. The client with and ileostomy
D. The client who requires gastrointestinal suctioning

A

Rational: A fluid volume excess is also known as overhydration or fluid overload and occurs when fluid intake or fluid retention exceeds the fluid needs of the body. The causes of fluid volume excess include decreased kidney function, congestive heart failure, use of hypotonic fluids to replace isotonic fluid losses, excessive irrigation of wounds and body cavities, and excessive ingestion of sodium. The client taking diuretics, the client with an ileostomy, and the client who requires gastrointestinal suctioning are at risk for fluid volume deficit.

28
Q

A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review of the clients’ medical records, the nurse determines that which client is at risk for fluid volume excess?

A. The client taking diuretics
B. The client with renal failure
C. The client with and ileostomy
D. The client who requires gastrointestinal suctioning

A

B. The client with renal failure

Rational: A fluid volume excess is also known as overhydration or fluid overload and occurs when fluid intake or fluid retention exceeds the fluid needs of the body. The causes of fluid volume excess include decreased kidney function, congestive heart failure, use of hypotonic fluids to replace isotonic fluid losses, excessive irrigation of wounds and body cavities, and excessive ingestion of sodium. The client taking diuretics, the client with an ileostomy, and the client who requires gastrointestinal suctioning are at risk for fluid volume deficit.

29
Q

The nurse obtains all of the following assessment data about a patient with deficient fluid volume caused by a massive burn injury. Which of the following assessment data will be of greatest concern?
A. The blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg.
B. Urine output is 30 ml over the last hour.
C. Oral fluid intake is 100 ml for the last 8 hours.
D. There is prolonged skin tenting over the sternum

A

A. The blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg

30
Q

When the nurse is evaluating the fluid balance for a patient admitted for hypovolemia associated with multiple draining wounds, the most accurate assessment to include is
A. skin turgor.
B. daily weight.
C. presence of edema.
D. hourly urine output

A

B. daily weight.

31
Q

What BMI would indicate a pt needs to increase their caloric intake?
A. 16.5 kg/m^2
B. 34.6 kg/m^2
C. 20.5 kg/m^2
D. 45.7 kg/m^2

A

A. 16.5 kg/m^2

BMI RANGES AND INDICATIONS

  • Less than 18.5 kg/m2 = Underweight
  • 18.5 kg/m2 to 24.9 kg/m2 = Normal weight
  • 25.0 kg/m2 to 29.9 kg/m2 = Overweight
  • 30.0 kg/m2 to 34.9 kg/m2 = Obese (class 1)
  • 35.0 kg/m2 to 39.9 kg/m2 = Obese (class 2)
  • More than 39.9 kg/m2 = Extreme obesity (class 3)
32
Q

Does malnutrition occur acutely or overtime?
A. Acutely
B. Overtime

A

B. Overtime

33
Q

What does albumin ensure?
A. if the pt is in high or low nutritional status
B. The amount of amino acids in the blood stream

A

A. if the pt is in high or low nutritional status

34
Q

The home health registered nurse (RN) is caring for a client with a stage III pressure ulcer. The RN recognizes which food groupthat contains zinc should be added to the client’s dietto aid in wound healing?

A. Cheese and eggs.
B. Green apples and berries.
C. Meats and shellfish.
D. Complex carbohydrates.

A

C. Meats and shellfish.

-(C) is enriched with zinc and promotes wound healing. (A, B, and D) are not enriched with zinc.

35
Q

The registered nurse (RN) is caring for a client with continuous feeding through a nasogastric (NG) tube at a continuous care rehabiltation community. Which position should the RN place the client to prevent aspiration?

A. Trendelenburg.
B. Semi-Fowler’s.
C. Sims.
D. Supine.

A

B. Semi-Fowler’s.

-Elevating the head of the bead to an angle of 30 to 45 degrees (B) is recommended for a client on continuous tube feeding. (B) is the recommended position for clients at high risk for aspiration. (A, C, and D) increase risk for client to aspirate during tube feeding.

36
Q

What foods should you avoid when a pt is diagnosed with Hyperkalemia?
A. Strawberries
B. Fish
C. Chicken
D. Bananas

A

D. Bananas

37
Q

What foods should you avoid when a pt has elevated sodium levels
A. Eggs
B. Strawberries
C. Bananas
D. Pickles

A

D. Pickles

38
Q

Which assessment finding obtained while taking the history of an older client should alert the nurse to the possibility of fluid or electrolyte imbalance?
A. “I am often cold and need to wear a sweater, even when other people are warm.”
B. “I seem to urinate more when I drink coffee.’
C. “In the summer, I feel thirsty more often.”
D. “My rings are tighter this month.”

A

D. “My rings are tighter this month.”

39
Q

What is the nurse’s best action for the client whose serum chloride level is 101 mEq/L?
A. Document the finding as the only action.
B. Assess the client’s deep tendon reflexes.
C. Urge the client to drink more water.
D. Notify the physician.

A

A. Document the finding as the only action.

40
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has a reduced fluid intake. The nurse assesses the diet for which response to this reduced fluid intake?
A. Urinary retention
B. Frequent urination
C. Incontinence of urine
D. Decreased urine output

A

D. Decreased urine output

41
Q

A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving IV fluid. Which clinical findings indicate that the client has a fluid overload?
A. Chills, fever, and generalized discomfort
B. Blood in the tubing close to the insertion site
C. Dyspnea, headache, and increased blood pressure
D. Pallor, swelling, and discomfort at the insertion site

A

C. Dyspnea, headache, and increased blood pressure

42
Q

A nurse checks a meal tray for a client on a clear liquid diet. Which item is acceptable on this diet?
A. Ginger ale
B. Lemon sherbet
C. Vanilla ice cream
D. Cream of chicken soup

A

A. Ginger ale

43
Q

Several clients are taking supplemental calcium daily. The nurse teaches them to maintain their fluid intake at a minimum of 2,500 mL. The nurse explains that this intervention is designed to prevent which complication?
A. Mobilization of calcium from bone
B. Irritation of the bladder mucosa
C. Occurrence of muscle cramps
D. Formation of kidney stones

A

D. Formation of kidney stones

44
Q

A nurse is documenting a client’s I&O. Which should be recorded at approximately half its volume?
A. Ice chips given by mouth
B. A continuous bladder irrigation
C. Solution used to maintain patency of a tube
D. A tube feeding of half formula and half water

A

A. Ice chips given by mouth

45
Q

Which is the best choice for an appetizer when teaching a client about a 2-g sodium diet?
A. Pigs in a blanket
B. Stuffed mushrooms
C. Cheese and crackers
D. Fresh vegetable sticks

A

D. Fresh vegetable sticks

46
Q

A primary health-care provider prescribes an intravenous infusion containing potassium for a client. Which is the most important nursing intervention before administering this solution to the client?
A. Assess the skin turgor.
B. Obtain the blood pressure.
C. Measure the depth of edema.
D. Determine the presence of urinary output.

A

D. Determine the presence of urinary output.

47
Q

A nurse identifies that an older adult client may have a problem with excess fluid volume. Which characteristics of the client’s skin support this conclusion?
A. Dry and scaly
B. Taut and shiny
C. Red and irritated
D. Thin and inelastic

A

B. Taut and shiny

When your skin is being stretched through excess volume under your skin it becomes taut=tight and shiny because all of the excess fluid is coming through your skin

48
Q

When a client is under extreme stress, there is an increased production of antidiuretic hormone and aldosterone. The nurse plans to monitor the client routinely because an increase in these hormones will cause a decrease in which of the following?
A. Blood pressure
B. Urinary output
C. Body temperature
D. Sweat gland secretions

A

B. Urinary output

Aldosterone retains fluid and sodium, so you will have a decrease in urinary output

49
Q

The nurse is administering IV fluids to a client. Which complication should prompt the nurse to slow the rate of flow of the infusion rather than stop the infusion and remove the catheter?
A. Infiltration
B. Extravasation
C. Inflamed vein
D. Fluid overload

A

D. Fluid overload

PROQUEST RATIONALE
When IV fluids are infused too rapidly or an excess amount of fluid is infused, the client can experience an overload of fluid in the intravascular compartment. The nurse should slow the rate of infusion to keep the venous access viable and notify the primary healthcare provider for directions.

50
Q

When a nurse evaluates the effectiveness of client teaching, which food selection by a client indicates understanding regarding an abundant source of calcium? Select all that apply.
A. Bread

B. Yogurt

C. Spinach

D. Green beans

E. Peanut butter

A

B. Yogurt AND C. Spinach

Yogurt and spinach are the only options that are rich/high in calcium

51
Q
  1. A client’s diet is progressed from clear liquid to full liquid. Which can the nurse include on the full-liquid diet that is not included on the clear-liquid diet? Select all that apply.
    
1.Vanilla ice cream
    
2.Cream of Wheat

    3.Cranberry juice

    4.Sport drinks

    5.Custard
    
6.Milk
A

Answer, 1,2,5,6 are all full liquids that you cannot see through


1.Vanilla ice cream

2.Cream of Wheat

5.Custard

6.Milk

52
Q

A nurse is caring for a postoperative client over an 8-hour period. The client vomits 
300 mL of greenish-yellow fluid. The client’s IV fluid is infusing at 125 mL per hour.
The client received two intermittent infusions of antibiotics, each in 50 mL of solution, and they were infused at a different site than the IV fluid infusion. The client was given 8 ounces of ice chips, which were retained. The client urinated twice-250 mL and 400 mL. Which is the client’s total fluid intake at the end of the 8-hour period? Record your answer using a whole number.
Answer: mL.

A

Answer: 1,220 mL.

53
Q

A client is admitted to the hospital for a fever of unknown origin. The nursing assessment reveals profuse diaphoresis; dry, sticky mucous membranes; weakness; disorientation; and a decreasing level of consciousness. Which electrolyte imbalance do these data support ?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypermagnesemia

A
  1. Hypernatremia

-the signs and symptoms of hernatremia is , dry stick mucous membranes, thirst, elevated temp, altered LOC

54
Q

An assessment of which of the following is most important when a nurse is caring for an adult client experiencing vomiting?
A. Electrolyte values
B. Bowel function
C. Body weight
D. Oral mucosa

A

A. Electrolyte values

  • you lose lots of potassium through vomitting
55
Q

A client exhibits an increasing blood pressure and 2-pound weight gain over 2 days. Which additional clinical manifestation can be clustered with these data?
1. Decrease in heart rate
2. Increase in skin turgor
3. Increase in pulse volume
4. Decrease in pulse pressure

A
  1. Increase in pulse volume

HYPERVOLEMIA - BOUNDING PULSE

56
Q

A nurse evaluates a client’s fluid balance by monitoring the client’s intake and output. Which must the nurse understand about the ratio of the client’s fluid intake to output?
1. Intake should be much higher than the fluid output.
2. Intake should be slightly more than the output.
3. Intake should be lower than the urine output.
4. Intake should be equal to the urine output.

A
  1. Intake should be slightly more than the output.
57
Q

What is Phlebitis?

A

Inflammation of the veins that is warm to touch and tender at the site of an IV.Swelling is present and pt complains of pain .

58
Q

What is Infiltration?

A

The extremities (SKIN AROUND THE Iv is cold to touch and firm to touch swelling and tenderness present also blanching of skin.

59
Q

Which total cholesterol level in a healthy adult female client necessitates that the client receives health teaching about a low-cholesterol diet?
1. 210 mg/dL
2. 190 mg/dL
3. 150 mg/dL
4. 120 mg/dL

A
  1. 210 mg/dL

Normal Range of cholesterol for a woman is 120mg/dl-199mg/dl

60
Q

According to gravity, would the enteral feeding supplement be flowing faster or slower if it was raised 1 feet up from the pt’s PEG tube?
A.faster
B. slower

A

A.faster

61
Q

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client to assess the client’s nutritional status. Which laboratory result from among the following tests is an indicator of inadequate protein intake?
1. High hemoglobin
2. Low serum albumin
3. Low specific gravity
4. High blood urea nitrogen

A
  1. Low serum albumin
62
Q

Which vitamin that does not require fat in the diet to be absorbed should a nurse teach a client about?
1. Vitamin C
2. Vitamin A
3. Vitamin E
4. Vitamin D

A
  1. Vitamin C
63
Q

A nurse is counseling a client with the diagnosis of osteoporosis. In addition to calcium, which vitamin supplement should the nurse anticipate that the primary health-care provider will prescribe for this client?
1. B
2. K
3. D
4. E

A
  1. D

Vitamin D (also regarded as a hormone) promotes bone mineralization by producing transport proteins that bind calcium and phosphorus, which increases intestinal absorption, stimulates the kidneys to return calcium to the bloodstream, and stimulates bone cells to use calcium and phosphorus to build and maintain bone tissue.

64
Q

What nursing intervention is best when you notice the pt is gagging when you are inserting an NG tube?
A. Keep going until the NG tube is in correct placement
B. Stop and remove the inserted NG tube give the pt a break and try again
C. Stuff it rapidly
D. Insert the NG tube slowly

A

B. Stop and remove the inserted NG tube give the pt a break and try again