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SPRING 2024: Advanced Procedures > Unit 4 Exam quizzes & HW assignments > Flashcards

Unit 4 Exam quizzes & HW assignments Flashcards

1
Q

When performing trauma radiography of the pelvis when fracture is suspected, how much should the lower limbs be rotated in order to demonstrate the femoral necks?

a. As much as the patient can tolerate

b. 15 to 20 degrees

c. 10 to 15 degrees

d. You should not attempt to internally rotate the lower limbs if fracture is suspected

A

d. You should not attempt to internally rotate the lower limbs if fracture is suspected

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1
Q

In trauma radiography, what is the “Golden Hour”?

a. The hour beginning as soon as the patient calls 911

b. The hour beginning as soon as the patient is stabilized

c. The hour beginning as soon as the patient arrives at the trauma center

d. The hour beginning as soon as the trauma occurs

A

d. The hour beginning as soon as the trauma occurs

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2
Q

Which of the following procedures are appropriate for trauma patients?

  1. Remove immobilization devices that may cause imaging artifacts
  2. Move the tube and IR, instead of the injured part, when possible
  3. Perform all imaging procedures with as little patient manipulation as possible
A

2 and 3 only.

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3
Q

True or False:
A symptom of Hypovolemic shock is cold and clammy skin.

A

True

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4
Q

Which projection is necessary if the top of T1 and the C7-T1 interspace is not clearly demonstrated on the lateral projection, dorsal decubitus position of the cervical spine?

a. AP axial C-spine
b. Lateral projection, swimmer’s technique
c. Lateral projection of the thoracic spine
d. AP projection, open-mouth position

A

b. Lateral projection, swimmer’s technique

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5
Q

What is a contrecoup injury?

a. A condition in which there is always a brain hemorrhage

b. An injury to the opposite side of the brain from the initial impact

c. A brain injury that involved a loss of consciousness

d. An injury to the side of the brain where the initial impact occurred

A

b. An injury to the opposite side of the brain from the initial impact

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6
Q

Identify the true statement.

a. Nonionic, water-soluble agents including Gastrografin may be injected in the space between the arachnoid and pia mater layers

b. Ionic contrast may cause severe and fatal reactions if injected into the subarachnoid space

c. When performing a lumbar myelogram, the preferred spinal puncture level is T2-3 or T3-4

d. Contrast agents labeled “not for intrathecal use” may be injected into the subarachnoid space

A

b. Ionic contrast may cause severe and fatal reactions if injected into the subarachnoid space

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7
Q

Which imaging modality has replaced conventional trauma skull radiography in most Level 1 trauma centers?

a. CT
b. MRI
c. Angiography
d. Nuclear Medicine

A

a. CT

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8
Q

The trauma radiographer must ensure other team members are protected from unnecessary radiation. Which of the following practices will accomplish this?

  1. Lead aprons for all personnel who remain in the room during exposures
  2. Short exposure times
  3. Announcement of impending exposure to allow nonessential personnel to exit the room
A

1, 2 and 3

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9
Q

For a trauma lateral cervical spine, __________ SID is most recommended when possible.

a. 72”
b. the shortest
c. 40”
d. 60”

A

a. 72”

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10
Q

When a patient has a penetrating traumatic injury, what method should the radiographer employ when imaging the area?

a. Acquire only one image of the area with the collimator wide open to collect as much data as possible

b. Mark the entrance and exit wounds with a lead marker

c. Mark the exit wound only and shoot two radiographs

d. Perform cross-table laterals only

A

b. Mark the entrance and exit wounds with a lead marker

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11
Q

Extreme eversion of the foot is a sign of traumatic injury to the:

a. Tibia and Fibula
b. Hip
c. Knee joint
d. Pelvis

A

b. Hip

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12
Q

When performing judet views of the pelvis, the external oblique view of the hip will demonstrate the:

a. Obturator Foramen
b. Pelvic ring
c. Posterior ilioischial column
d. Anterior iliopubic column

A

c. Posterior ilioischial column

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13
Q

Which imaging modality is often used to evaluate trauma to the abdomen?

a. NM
b. CT
c. Sonography
d. MRI

A

c. Sonography

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14
Q

True or False:
The radiographer should NEVER remove any immobilization device without a doctor’s order.

A

True

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15
Q

Signs of shock include all of the following except:

a. Bradycardia
b. Diaphoresis
c. Cool, clammy skin
d. Excessive thirst

A

a. Bradycardia

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16
Q

The patient is supine. The image receptor is placed in a grid and aligned parallel to the axis of the femoral neck and tilted back 15 degrees. The central ray is directed 15 degrees posteriorly and perpendicular to the femoral neck. What method is described here?

a. Clements-Nakayama
b. Danelius-Miller
c. Judet
d. Taylor

A

a. Clements-Nakayama

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17
Q

When performing a Towne projection on a trauma patient, the CR must pass through the:

a. EAM
b. Acanthion
c. Glabella
d. Gonion

A

a. EAM

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18
Q

What is the angle/s for AP AXIAL PELVIS - OUTLET PROJECTION?

a. 40 degrees cephalic

b. 30-45 degrees cephalic for women and 20-35 degrees cephalic for men

c. 40 degrees caudal for everyone

d. 30-45 degrees caudal for women and 20-35 degrees caudal for men

A

b. 30-45 degrees cephalic for women and 20-35 degrees cephalic for men

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19
Q

What is another name for the AP AXIAL PELVIS - OUTLET PROJECTION?

a. the Bridgeman Method

b. axiolateral projection of the pelvis

c. the Taylor Method

d. This projection allows the radiologist to evaluate the ilioischial column

A

c. the Taylor Method

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20
Q

What are some indications for a Lumbar Puncture?

a. Meningitis
b. Multiple Sclerosis
c. Cancer
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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21
Q

What is the reason the patient is put in the prone position with a pillow under the hips for a myelogram or lumbar puncture?

a. To open up the joint spaces between the vertebrae and for easier access to the spinal canal

b. To close the joint spaces between the vertebrae and for easier access to the spinal canal

c. To assist the radiologist in gaining access to the spinal vein

d. Both A and C

A

a. To open up the joint spaces between the vertebrae and for easier access to the spinal canal

22
Q

True or False:
Images are required during a Lumbar Puncture.

23
Q

Name the deep cleft the divides the right and left side of the brain:

a. Hilum
b. Corpus callosum
c. Longitudinal sulcus
d. Ventricle

A

c. Longitudinal sulcus

24
Q

What is the ideal level to insert the spinal needle for a Myelogram?

a. L2 vertebrae
b. L1-L2 disk space
c. L2-L3 disk space
d. T12-L1 disk space

A

c. L2-L3 disk space

25
Q

True or False:
The term intrathecal refers to the subarachnoid space of the spinal cord.

26
Q

If there is a narrowing of the subarachnoid space seen on myelogram image, this usually indicates:

a. Inflamed nerves
b. Herniated disc
c. Neurotoxic reaction
d. An MRI is needed immediately

A

b. Herniated disc

27
Q

Which of the following connects the third ventricle to the lateral ventricles:

a. Aqueduct of Sylvius
b. Foramen of Monro
c. Foramen of Luschka
d. Foramen of Magendie

A

b. Foramen of Monro

28
Q

The area below the tip of the spinal cord is known as:

a. Interventricular foramen
b. Medulla Oblongata
c. Cauda Equina
d. Conus Medullaris

A

c. Cauda Equina

29
Q

Name the two layers of the outer protective layer of the spinal cord and brain:

a. Dura mater and pia mater
b. Subdural and epidural spaces
c. Pia mater and subarachnoid space
d. Arachnoid layer and dura mater

A

b. Subdural and epidural spaces

30
Q

Reduction in bone mass is also known as ____.

a. COPD
b. Osteoporosis
c. Pneumonia
d. Incontinence

A

b. Osteoporosis

31
Q

True or False:
Pneumonia is one of the leading causes of death in the elderly population.

32
Q

What is the device that is commonly used to aid in obtaining an upright chest x-ray for pediatric patients?

a. Pigg-o-stat

b. Portable x-ray machine and a papoose board

c. Restrain-o-stat

d. Mobile seat unit

A

a. Pigg-o-stat

33
Q

Toddlers range in age from ____ to _____.

a. 28 days to 18 months
b. 18 months to 3 years
c. 3 to 5 years
d. 0 to 28 days

A

b. 18 months to 3 years

34
Q

Adolescents range in age from ____ to _____.

a. 6 to 12 years
b. 18 months to 3 years
c. 3 to 5 years
d. 12 to 18 years

A

d. 12 to 18 years

35
Q

Infants range in age from ____ to _____.

a. 28 days to 18 months
b. 18 months to 3 years
c. 3 to 5 years
d. 0 to 28 days

A

a. 28 days to 18 months

36
Q

School ages range in age from ____ to _____.

a. 6 to 12 years
b. 18 months to 3 years
c. 3 to 5 years
d. 12 to 18 years

A

a. 6 to 12 years

37
Q

Neonates range in age from ____ to _____.

a. 28 days to 18 months
b. 18 months to 3 years
c. 3 to 5 years
d. 0 to 28 days

A

d. 0 to 28 days

38
Q

Preschoolers range in age from ____ to _____.

a. 28 days to 18 months
b. 18 months to 3 years
c. 3 to 5 years
d. 0 to 28 days

A

c. 3 to 5 years

39
Q

All are commonly recognized signs of ASD except:

a. Difficulty with social interaction

b. Problems with verbal and nonverbal communication

c. Repetitive behaviors or narrow, obsessive interests

d. Does not get over-stimulated easily

A

d. Does not get over-stimulated easily

40
Q

Child abuse is often referred to as ________.

a. Nonaccidental Trauma
b. Incidental Trauma
c. Nonincidental Trauma
d. Accidents

A

a. Nonaccidental Trauma

41
Q

Progressive, irreversible mental disorder with loss of memory, deterioration of intellectual functions, speech and gait disturbances, and disorientation is known as:

a. CHF
b. ASD
c. Alzheimer disease
d. Benign hyperplasia

A

c. Alzheimer disease

42
Q

All are common chronic conditions of people older than 65 years except:

a. Cataracts
b. Hypertension
c. Diabetes
d. Nonaccidental trauma

A

d. Nonaccidental trauma

43
Q

________ is the branch of medicine dealing with the aged and the problems of aging individuals.

a. Pediatrics
b. Geriatrics
c. Neonate
d. Demographics

A

b. Geriatrics

44
Q

About 1/3 of all skeletal injuries found in children are at the ______________.

a. Popliteal
b. Epiphyseal growth plate
c. Ribs
d. Cervical spine

A

b. Epiphyseal growth plate

45
Q

All of the following are examples of blunt trauma injuries EXCEPT:

a. GSW
b. Rib fracture after an assault
c. Seat belt injury to the shoulder & chest
d. Closed head injury

46
Q

Which level trauma facility is the most comprehensive emergency care available?

a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Level 4

A

a. Level 1

47
Q

In a cross table c-spine, the CR should enter horizontal and _____ to _____.

  1. perpendicular
  2. parallel
  3. C6
  4. C4
48
Q

True or False:
When performing a Dani-Miller, the affected extremity should be elevated to the vertical position.

49
Q

All of the following are universal approaches to working with children except:

a. Being authoritative and firm
b. Make eye contact
c. Setting limits
d. Addressing their fears

A

a. Being authoritative and firm

50
Q

Which pediatric age groups benefit from a warmer exam room?

a. Premature infants and neonates
b. All pediatric groups
c. Preschoolers and school age
d. Toddlers and adolescents

A

a. Premature infants and neonates

51
Q

A term that is used to describe stereotyping and discrimination of the elderly is known as:

a. Ageism
b. NAT
c. Abuse
d. Negligence

52
Q

A common fracture site for an elderly person with osteoporosis is the:

a. Olecranon process
b. Skull
c. Distal radius
d. First metatarsal

A

c. Distal radius

53
Q

What is the ideal level to insert the spinal needle for a Myelogram?

a. L2-L3 disk space
b. T12-L1 disk space
c. L2 vertebrae
d. L1-L2 disk space

A

a. L2-L3 disk space

SPRING 2024: Advanced Procedures (25 decks)

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