Unit 4: drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Describe clonidine

A
  • centrally acting sympatholytic
  • a2 receptor agonist that lowers bp by acting in brainstem vasomotor centers to supress sympathetic outflow to periphery
  • will dec NE in the CNS which will dec SNS actiivity and inc PSNS activity
  • treats high BP bc end result is that it decreases CO and dec PVR which will lower blood pressure
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2
Q

adverse effects of clonidine

A

light headedness, sedation and impaired concentration

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3
Q

how do Beta (β) blockers elicit antihypertensive effects

A

Beta (β) blockers or β-adrenergic antagonists have sympatholyic activity in the heart and kidney

  • block the actions of catecholamines (ep in NE) at β1 receptors resulting in decreased blood pressure
  • in heart they block β1 receptors decrease cardiac output
  • block β1 receptors in the juxtaglomerular region of the kidney decrease renin release which decreases PVR.

*decreases CP and PVR = antihypertensive effect

ex: metoprolol an propranolol

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4
Q

compare metroprolol and propranolol

A

Both β-blockers

  • propranolol is non-selective β-blockers does both β1 an β2
  • metroprolol is β1 selective

*issues arise with patients with asthma because they also block β2 receptors in bronchioles

*drugs of choice for atrial arrhythmias

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5
Q

describe Prazoin

A
  • peripherall acting sympatholytic

α1 blocker

  • blockers the receptors in arteroils and neules
  • DEC PVR and dilation of venus vessels
  • dilation causes reduction in cardiac preload - praazoin has little tendency to inc CO and HR
  • prescribed at vew low dose and titrated to higher doses depending on response

*perscribed for heart failure

  • may cause water retention so diuretics and β-blockers might be administered in combination with α blockers.
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6
Q

describe sodium nitroprusside

A
  • SNP
  • vasodilator - nitric oxide donor
  • causes vasodilation of arterial and venous vessels by acting activating guanylyl cyclase, therby increasing dephosphrylation of myosin light chains which result in relaxation of smooth muscle cells
  • administered intravenously in cases of acute hypertensive emergency
  • release CN ions which can be detoxified to avoid reaching toxic levels
  • adverse effect = hypotension
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7
Q

describe verapamil

A
  • vasodilator used in long-term treatment of hypertension
  • Ca2+ channel blocker

– Ca2+ is involved in the electrical and mechanical events of the cardiac cycle and in vascular regulation

*Ca2+ activates myosin so it can bind to actin and cause muscle contraction

-SO dec Ca2+ will decrease contraction - blockers inhibit influex into arterial smooth muscle cells which causes them to relax resulting in vasodilation

*also dec Ca2+ levels in cardiac muscle cells

averse effects - associated w/ bradycardia

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8
Q

describe enalapril

A
  • ACE inhibitor
  • ester prodrug that is converted in the plasma to an active metabolite
  • causes dec BP by the 4 ways in the pic
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9
Q

what is losartan

A
  • angiotensin (AT1) receptor antagonist used to inhibit AT II actions
  • effectiveness of AT1 blockers is simlar to ACE inhibitors

*dec BP

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10
Q

what is hydrocholrothiazide?

A
  • thiazide diuretic used to treat mild to moderate hypertension
  • acts on distal convoluted tubule to inhibit the sodium-chloride sympoter which results in water secretion into urine
  • usually prescribed bc well absorbed orally, inexpensive and effective
  • toxicities associated = hypokalemia, acute myocardial infraction, gout, and hyponatremia and are hazardous for patients with arrhythmias
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11
Q

what is furosemide

A
  • loop diuretic which inhibits the co-transport of Na+, K+ and Cl- in the ascending loop of lendle
  • elads to the inhibtion of NaCl reabsorption and excretion of water in urine
  • used for more severe hypertension that requires a more poerful diuretic
  • can be used alone or in combination with a sympatholytic or vasodilator

**rapid but short duration of action and toxicities are similar to those of thiazides (hypokalemia, acute myocardial infarction, gout, and hyponatremia)

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12
Q

in combination therapy for hypertension, that is typically the order that drugs are added to pateints treatment

A
  1. diuretics
  2. ACE inhibitors/ARB
  3. calcium channel blockers
  4. sympatholytics/vasodilators
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13
Q

descrieb digoxin

A
  • cardiac glycoside
  • treatment for patients with CHR and atrial fibrillation or englarged/dysfunctional left ventircle
  • has direct and indriect pathway
  • direct: acts on Na/K+ ATPase, increases intracellualr Ca2+ which increases interaction between actin and mysoin - inc cardiac contractility
  • indirect: inc PSNS actiivty and dec SNS activity - inc force and decreased rate of contraction

*clearance is reduced by quinidine

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14
Q

what is quinidine

A
  • anti- arrhythmic
  • reduced clearance of digoxin - can increase its toxicity
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15
Q

what is nitroglycerin

A
  • Vasodilator, a nitrate
  • used to treat angina and CHF
  • converts nirite -> nitrate -> NO this inc cGMP and causes relaxation of smooth muscle in blood vessels (vasodilation)

*decrease in venous return return and PVR and filation or coronary arteries

**requirement for oxygen decreases and delivery of oxygen increases

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16
Q

describe sildenafil

A
  • viagra
  • inhibits phosphodiesterase and prevents breakdown of cGMP causing relaxation of smooth muscle
  • initially developed as a treatment for angina pectoris - but better suited for erectile dysfunction
  • can result in severe hypotension which can be dangerous and evn fatal if it results in myocardial infraction

*should wait 24 hrs between ingestion of sildenafil and nitrates

17
Q

what is verapamil

A
  • vasodilator - calcium channel blocker
  • inhibits calcium influx into blood vessel smooth muscle cells and causes dilation
  • also inhibits calcium influx into cardiac muscle cells and decreases cardiac contractility
  • Overall: decrease oxygen requirements, used for hypertension, angina and arrhymia
  • toxicities associated include: cardiac depression leading to bradycardia, ehart failure and cardiac arrest
18
Q

what is quinidine

A

class I ion channel blocker

  • oral anti arrhythmic effective for all types of arrhythmia - but rarely used due to side effects
19
Q

what is Lidocaine

A

class I ion channel blocker

  • used as an IV anti-arrhythmic for treating ventricular tachycardia and fibrilation
20
Q
A
21
Q

what is amiodarone?

A

class III anti-arrhythmic - K+ channel blocker

  • not selective for K+ channel also affects beta receptors and Na+ and Ca+2 channels
  • used for artial fibrilation and ventricular tachycardia
22
Q

what is verapamil

A

Class IV anti-arrhythmic

  • Ca+2 channel blocker
  • decreases cardiac contractility and induces vasodilation
  • used for supraventircular tachycaria which can affect the AV node and purkinje fibers