Unit 3 Lecture Flashcards

1
Q

which 4 bones compose the pelvic girdle?

A
  • sacrum
  • coccyx
  • 2 hip bones (ilium, ischium, pubis)
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2
Q

describe the sacrum

A
  • 5 fused vertebrae
  • concave anterior surface
  • BASE superior surface
  • PROMONTAORY ridge projecting along anterior edge of body of S1
  • ALA lateral flared wings, fused transverse processes
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3
Q

name the 3 joints of the pelvic girdle

A
  • lumbosacral
  • sacroiliac
  • symphysis pubis
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4
Q

describe the lumbosacral joint

A
  • L5 & S1
  • bodies are separated by an intervertebral disc
  • iliolumbar ligament: transverse process of L5 to posterior portion of iliac crest
  • lumbosacral ligament: transverse process of L5 to ala of sacrum
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5
Q

describe the lumbosacral angle

A
  • optimal is approximately 30 degress
  • increases with lordosis & causes shearing stresses of L5 on S1 to increase
  • decreases along with the decrease of lordosis
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6
Q

describe the SI (sacroiliac joint)

A
  • synovial & nonaxial plane joint between the sacrum & ilium
  • articular surfaces are irregular which helps to “lock the surfaces together”
  • designed for great stability & to transmit weight from upper body through the vertebral column to the hip bones
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7
Q

describe the motions of the SI joint

A

only occurs in association with other joint motions

  • NUTATION: sacral flexion
    • occurs with trunk flexion or hip extension
    • the superior sacrum (base) moves anteriorly & inferiorly
    • the inferior sacrum & coccyx move posteriorly
  • COUNTERNUTATION: sacral extension
    • occurs with trunk extension or hip flexion
    • superior sacrum moves posteriorly
    • the tip of the coccyx moves anteriorly

these motions are important during childbirth

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8
Q

describe the interosseus SI ligament

A
  • deepest and strongest SI
  • connects the tuberosities of the ilium & sacrum
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9
Q

describe the pubic symphysis

A
  • held together primarily by 2 ligaments: the superior & inferior pubic ligaments
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10
Q

describe a false & true pelvis

A
  • FALSE: no pelvic organs within (L4 and L5 area)
  • TRUE: between the pelvic inlet & oulet & contains portions of the GI tract, urinary tract, and some reproductive organs (in females: the birth canal)
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11
Q

describe the male & female pelvis

A
  • MALE:
    • superior opening is more heart shaped
    • pelvic cavity is longer and funnel shaped
  • FEMALE:
    • pelvic arch is wider & more rounded
    • pelvic cavity is greater
    • pelvic cavity is shorter
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12
Q

describe pelvic tilt

A
  • anteriorly: hip flexion & lumbar hyperextension
  • posteriorly: hip extension & lumbar flexion
  • lateral: pelvis moves as a unit
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13
Q

describe pelvic rotation

A
  • pelvis moves on the WB hip joint
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14
Q

which 3 bones form the hip?

A

ilium, ischium, & pubis

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15
Q

what kind of joint is the hip?

A

ball & socket (pubis is concave, femoral head is convex)
triaxial joint

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16
Q

what are the motions of the hip?

A
  • flexion, extension, & hyperextension
  • abduction & adduction
  • LR & MR
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17
Q

name the important bones/landmarks of the hip

A
  • iliac fossa
  • iliac crest
  • ASIS, AIIS, PSIS
  • ischial tuberosity
  • ramus of ischium & ramus of pubis
  • acetabulum
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18
Q

name and describe the ligaments of the hip joint

A

cross the joint in a spiral fashion to attach to femoral neck
- ILIOFEMORAL: limits hyperextension
- PUBOFEMORAL: limits hyperextension & abduction
- ISCHIOFEMORAL: limits hyperextension & MR

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19
Q

define coxa, vara, valga, & genu

A
  • coxa: refers to the hip
  • vara/varus: turned inward
  • valga/valgus: turned outward
  • genu: refers to the knee
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20
Q

what is the angle of inclination?

A
  • the angle between the shaft& neck of the femur in the frontal plane
  • normal is 125 degrees (170 at birth)

coxa valga angle is greater than 125 (creates a straighter/longer limb)
coxa vara angle is less than 125 (creates a more bent/ shorter limb)

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21
Q

what is the angle of torsion?

A
  • angle between the shaft & neck of the femur in the transverse plane
  • normal is 15-25 degrees

anterversion an increase in the angle (hip is more MR)
retroversion a decrease in the angle (hip forced into LR)

22
Q

describe the knee joint

A
  • synovial hinge joint that allows true flexion/extension & possibly hyperextension
  • largest jt in the body/stability provided by mm & ligaments
23
Q

what are the 2 joints that make up the knee joint?

A
  • tibiofemoral joint (knee joint): tibia & femur
  • patellofemoral joint: patella & femur
24
Q

accessory motions of the knee

A
  • rolls, spin, & glide
  • occur with flexion/extension at the tibiofemoral joint
25
Q

describe the screw home mechanism

A

rotation movement that occurs at the knee as it moves into full extension

in closed chain the FEMUR rotates medially on the TIBIA in the last few degrees of knee extension
in open chain the TIBIA rotates laterally on the FEMUR in the last few degrees of knee extension

26
Q

what is the Q angle of the knee?

A

patellofemoral angle
- angle between quads & patellar tendon
- ASIS to midpoint on patella & tibial tuberosity to midpoint on patella
- normal 10-20 degrees

27
Q

describe the functions of the patella

A
  • increased mechanical advantage by lengthening the moment arm
  • increases the amount of force of the quads AND protects the joint
28
Q

what are the 4 ligaments at the knee?

A

ACL
PCL
MCL
LCL

29
Q

describe the ACL & PCL

A

ACL
- runs superiorly & posteriorly from anterior tibia (just medial to meniscus) to attach posteriorly to the lateral condyle of the femur

PCL
- runs superiorly & anteriorly from the posterior tibia to attach anteriorly to the medial condyle of the femur

BOTH WORK TO PROVIDE STABILITY IN THE SAGITTAL PLANE

30
Q

describe the MCL & LCL

A

MCL
- tibial collateral ligament
- flat, broad ligament that runs from the medial condyle of the femur to the medial condyle & superior part of the medial surface of the tibia

LCL
- fibular collateral ligament
- round, cord-like ligament that runs from the lateral condyle of the femur to the fibular head

BOTH WORK TO PROVIDE STABILITY IN THE FRONTAL PLANE

31
Q

describe the menisci

A
  • medial & lateral meniscus
  • function: absorb shock & deepen articular surface of tibia
32
Q

how many bursae at the knee?

A

13

33
Q

pes anserine

A
  • goose foot
  • sartorius, gracilis, & semitendinosus attach together at the proximal, medial, anterior surface of the tibia
34
Q

name the bones/landmarks that make up the ankle/foot

A
  • tibia & fibula
    tarsals
  • calcaneus
  • talus
  • navicular
  • medial, intermediate, lateral cunieforms
  • metatarsals
  • phalanges
35
Q

describe the tarsals

A
  • calcaneus: largest, posterior
  • talus: second largest
  • navicular: on medial side of foot
  • cuneiforms: 3
  • cuboid: on lateral side of foot
36
Q

describe the metatarsals

A
  • 1st and 5th are WB bones
  • base os the proximal end of each tarsal
  • head is the distal end of each bone
37
Q

what are the movements of the toes?

A
  • flexion, extension, hyperextension
  • abduction & adduction
38
Q

describe the hindfoot, midfoot, and forefoot

A
  • hindfoot calcaneus & talus: initial contact with ground
  • midfoot navicular, cuneiforms, & cuboid: provides stability & mobility to foot & transmits movement from hindfoot to forefoot
  • forefoot 5 metatarsals & all phalanges: adapts to the level of the ground
39
Q

what are the 3 main functions of the ankle & joint

A
  • acts as a shock absorber at heel strike
  • adapts to level or uneven surface
  • provides a stable BOS to propel the body forward
40
Q

describe the actions of the ankle in association with their plane & axis

A
  • dorsiflexion & plantar flexion: sagittal plane, frontal axis
  • inversion & eversion: frontal plane, sagittal axis
  • abduction & adduction: transverse plane
41
Q

describe supination & pronation of the foot

A

describe foot position, not ROM

  • supination: combo of PF, IN, & adduction
  • pronation: combo of DF, EV, & abduction
42
Q

describe calcaneal positions

A
  • neutral: normal
  • valgus: distal segment is positioned away from midline
  • varus: distal segment is positioned towards the midline
43
Q

describe the tibiofibular joint

A
  • superior uniaxial synovial joint that dissipates torsional stresses applied at the ankle joint
    -inferior syndesmosis fibrous union of several ligaments; much of the ankle jt strength is dependent on a strong union here
44
Q

describe the talocrural/talotibial joint

A
  • uniaxial hinge joint, triplanar
  • talus is the projecting piece
  • between the tibia and fibula is a notch
45
Q

describe the subtalar/talocalcaneal joint

A

has a primarily gliding motion

46
Q

which 4 ligaments make up the medial side of the ankle?

A

deltoid ligaments
- posterior tibiotalar
- anterior tibiotalar
- tibionavicular
- tibiocalcaneal

47
Q

describe the function of the deltoid ligaments

A
  • strengthens the medial side of the ankle joint
  • holds the calcaneus & navicular against the talus
  • helps to maintain the medial longitudinal arch
48
Q

name & describe the 3 ligaments that make up the lateral side of the ankle

A
  • posterior talofibular (fairly strong)
  • anterior talofibular (weak)
  • calcaneofibular (runs vertically)
49
Q

name and describe the arches of the foot

A
  • MEDIAL LONGITUDINAL ARCH: talus is the keystone depresses during WB & recoils (normally never touches the ground)
  • LATERAL LONGITUDINAL ARCH: from calcaneus through cuboid to 4th & 5th metatarsals normally rests on ground during WB
  • TRANSVERSE ARCH: 2nd cunieform is the keystone
50
Q

what are the arches of the foot maintained by?

A
  • shape of bones & relation to each other
  • muscles
  • spring ligament supports medial side of longitudinal arch
  • long plantar ligament is main support & short plantar plantar ligament assists in support of lateral longitudinal arch
  • plantar aponeurosis
51
Q

describe plantar aponeurosis

A
  • from calcaneus to proximal phalanges
  • keeps posterior segments from separating
  • increases stability of the foot & arches during WB