Unit 3 Genetics

Question 1

Which bases used for DNA paired up together?
a) Adenine, cytosine/ thymine, guanine
b) Cytosine, guanine/ adenine, thymine
c) Adenine cytosine, guanine/ thymine
d) Guanine, thymine, adenine/ cytosine

Answer 1

b) Cytosine, guanine/ adenine, thymine

Question 2

What would the probability be of getting a homozygous offspring in generation F2 with a p generation of a cross between a homozygous dominant and a homozygous recessive parent.
a) 50%
b) 100%
c) 0%
d) 25%

Answer 2

c) 0%

Question 3

Why did Gregor Mendel use peas for his experiments?
a) Slow life cycle and production of many seeds
b) Rapid life cycle and the production of many seeds
c) Rapid life cycle and low production of seeds

Answer 3

b) Rapid life cycle and the production of many seeds

Question 4

In a dihybrid cross between two heterozygous individuals, what is the expected phenotype ratio in the offspring?
a) 9, 3, 3, 1
b) 3, 1
c) 1, 2, 1
d) 12, 4

Answer 4

Answer is A

Question 5

What is a somatic cell?

a) a body cell
b) a sperm cell
c) a gamete cell
d) a haploid cell

Answer 5

A somatic cell is simply a normal body cell, which is diploid. Sperm cells, or gamete cells, are sex cells specific for reproduction and are haploid.

Question 6

A woman with type A blood has a type O child, what blood type could be the blood type of the father?
a) AB
b) O
c) B
d) All of the above

Question 7

Crossing over occurs at which stage in meiosis?

a) Metaphase 1
b) Prophase 1
c) Prophase 2
d) Telophase 2

Answer 7

Crossing over only occurs in prophase 1 of meiosis. Synapsis brings homologous chromosomes together, forming a tetrad, that then exchange segments of DNA.

Question 8

In cheetahs, the gene for fur pattern has two alleles. The dominant allele (L) codes large spots, while the recessive allele (l) codes for smaller spots. If the second generation consists of 50% heterozygous offsprings, and all offsprings have a dominant allele, what are the possible genotypes and phenotypes for both parents. Show your work with a punnet square.

Answer 8

• Since 50% of offsprings are heterozygous (Ll) and all contain dominant alleles, that means 50% are homogenous dominant (LL)
• In order to have 50% LL and 50% Ll genotypes, the parents have to have homogenous dominant (LL) and heterozygous (Ll) genotypes.
• Both parents have phenotype of 100% large spots

Question 9

Which event occurs during meiosis that does not occur during mitosis?
a) Alignment of chromosomes during metaphase
b) Separation of sister chromatids
c) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes
d) Condensation of chromatin into chromosomes

Answer 9

Answer is C

Question 10

Why don’t you look genetically identical to your parents and/or siblings? Explain using specific terms.

Answer 10

• During prophase 1 of meiosis, homologous pairs of chromosomes, forming tetrads, cross over for genetic variation
• These chromosomes that code for a certain trait are now genetically unique
  After meiosis, each haploid daughter cell is genetically diverse
• Our parents and siblings each had different gene codes in the gamete cells produced after meiosis, which is why, while we have the same genes, we do not look identical.

Question 11

Which of the following describes the term “codominance”?
A) One allele completely masks the effect of the other allele
B) Both alleles contribute equally to the phenotype
C) Both alleles are recessive
D) The phenotype is a blend of two alleles

Answer 11

Answer:
B) Both alleles contribute equally to the phenotype

Question 12

What is the term for different versions of a gene that can exist for a particular trait?
A) Genotype
B) Alleles
C) Chromosomes
D) Loci

Answer 12

Answer:
B) Alleles

Question 13

In meiosis when do homologous chromosomes separate?
A) Metaphase I
B) Prophase I
C) Anaphase II
D) Anaphase I

Answer 13

Correct Answer: D

Question 14

Which of the following is the best description of a Punnett square?
A) A diagram used to show the physical traits of an organism
B) A tool for predicting the probability of genetic outcomes in offspring
C) A model that demonstrates how genes are inherited through the environment
D) A method to determine the number of chromosomes in an organism

Answer 14

Answer:
B) A tool for predicting the probability of genetic outcomes in offspring

Question 15

What is the difference between a genotype and a phenotype?

Answer 15

The difference between a genotype and a phenotype is that a genotype is the genetic makeup of an organism while a phenotype is physical characteristic of an organism

Question 16

What is incomplete dominance and how does it differ from codominance?

Answer 16

incomplete dominance is when neither of the alleles is completely dominant over the other in turn the phenotype blends both traits. Codominance is when both alleles are fully expressed in the phenotype.

Question 17

What is a homologous chromosome?
A) Chromosomes that are found in females
B) Chromosomes that come from different parents but carry genes for the same traits
C) Chromosomes that are found only in males
D) Chromosomes that do not carry similar genes

Answer 17

Correct Answer: b

Question 18

What is true breeding?

Answer 18

True breeding is when an organism produces offspring that are genetically the exact same for one or more traits when self pollinated or when crossed with another true breeding organism for the same traits.

Question 19

Which of the following is a method of asexual reproduction where a piece or fragment breaks off to form a brand new mature individual?
A) Budding
B) Cloning
C) Necrosis
D) Fragmentation

Answer 19

D - Fragmentation

Explanation: Like a starfish, when the arms grow off, they regenerate into a brand new starfish that grows full to a mature individual. Fragmentation is that process.

Question 20

Which of the following is an example of a disadvantage of sexual reproduction?
A) Genetic diversity, provides the offspring with unique genetics
B) Allows for the combination of traits to be more flexible with environmental changes
C) Slower reproductive rate, making the process longer
D) Long-term survival of species within a population as the species reproduce

Answer 20

C - Slower reproductive rate, making the process longer

Explanation: The reproductive rate in sexual reproduction would be a slower process due to having to find a mate, then the mating process, and then the nurturing.

Question 21

In a cross between a homozygous dominant (PP) pink tulip and a heterozygous recessive purple tulip (Pp), “P” is dominant and “p” is recessive, what is the colour ratio of the tulip?
A) 4:0
B) 3:1
C) 2:2
D) 1:3

Answer 21

A - 4:0

Explanation: As the pink tulip is the dominant trait, the homozygous dominant (PP) and the heterozygous recessive purple tulip (Pp), will turn out to be 100% pink and the dominant trait takes over the recessive trait.

Question 22

What are the main differences between codominance, complete dominance, and incomplete dominance?

Answer 22

The differences between complete dominance, incomplete dominance, and codominance would be the phenotypes they produce in the final outcome. In complete dominance, only one allele is present in the offspring which is the dominant trait. In incomplete dominance, none of the alleles are fully present in the offspring, it is a blend between the two alleles. In codominance, both alleles contribute equally to the offspring’s appearance. The appearance would show both the alleles, like two different colours. They are all similar as they are the different ways alleles are shown in phenotypes, but they all have different ways of showing it.

Question 23

What are the roles and benefits that DNA plays in living organisms? Are there any bad effects that DNA has on living organisms?

Answer 23

DNA has many roles and benefits that are good for living organisms. DNA provides living organisms with genetic information that is necessary for growth, development, and reproduction. The structure of DNA, the double helix shape, allows for it to hold the genetic information. The DNA’s ability to replicate ensures that genetic information is easily passed on to the next generation, keeping the population going. A bad effect that DNA can have on living organisms would be the passing of genetic diseases. Diseases like cancer could be passed down to the next generation, which could have a negative effect on that generation. DNA has good benefits and roles that lead living organisms to have good genes. Although the bad traits could be passed on, it doesn’t always tend to happen in all circumstances.

Question 24

What is the difference between complete dominance and incomplete dominance? Show an example of both incomplete and complete dominance with alleles.

Answer 24

The difference between incomplete and complete dominance is that complete dominance is where one allele will completely take over and hide the recessive allele. On the other hand incomplete dominance is where neither of the alleles are dominant.
Example:
Complete dominance: Rr
Incomplete dominance: rr or RR

Question 25

When looking at cells, what is the main difference between necrosis and apoptosis? What is an example of when apoptosis and necrosis has or can occur?

Answer 25

Apoptosis is known to be the controlled cell death, well necrosis is known to be when unexpected cell death occurs. You can figure out if or when Apoptosis has occurred when you see webbing between the hand in the womb. You can see that necrosis has occurred when you have an injury.

Question 26

Which of the following does not occur during the process of packaging DNA? a) The DNA strands will wrap around the histones to form nucleosomes. b) The nucleosomes will condense to form chromatin. c) The chromatin will condense and become chromosomes. d) The nucleosomes will condense to form chromosomes.

Answer 26

d) The nucleosomes will condense to form chromosomes.

Question 27

Which of the following terms is the key term used to describe the “offspring of two different true breeding plants that differ in only one characteristic”? a) Hybrid b) Mono hybrid c) Cross d) True-breeding

Answer 27

b) Monohybrid

Question 28

When thinking about the First Law of Mendelian Inheritance? which of the following statements are apart of Mendel’s conclusions? a) Genotypes is the term for the genetic makeup of an individual, well phenotype is the individual’s outward appearance. b) An allele was a term used to describe a specific form of a gene, the allele being passed on is randomized and a complete matter of chance. c) The parent organism will only give or donate two copies of any gene in their gametes. d) Homozygous is how we describe individuals carrying two of the same alleles for characteristics.

Answer 28

c) The parent organism will only give or donate two copies of any gene in their gametes.

Question 29

How many chromosomes are in gametes? A- 46 B- 23 C- 21 D- 22

Answer 29

B) The correct answer is B because in normal cells there are 46. There are 23 in sex cells because each will be passed on from the mom and dad adding up to 46.

Question 30

What stages in meiosis help to increase genetic variation? a. Prophase I & Anaphase II b. Anaphase I & Anaphase II c. Prophase I & Metaphase I d. Anaphase I & Telophase I

Answer 30

c. Prophase I & Metaphase I

Question 31

How Many stages of meiosis are there? A. - 10 B. - 8 C. - 9 D. - 6

Answer 31

A

Question 32

If a strand of DNA contained 179 nucleotides with the nitrogenous base of Thymine and 164 nucleotides with the nitrogenous base of Guanine, how many nucleotides would have the nitrogenous base of Adenine? a. 179 b. 164 c. 358 d. 328

Answer 32

a. 179

Question 33

What chromosome pairing is male? A. - XX B. - XY C. - YY D. - Y

Answer 33

B

Question 34

The use of cloning, among other developments in the field of genetics, has been quite controversial in the past few decades. In your opinion, is it ethical to clone organisms? Use points discussed in class (ex. the debate) to support your opinion.

Answer 34

Opinion based question, therefore answers will vary, but evidence is important. Potential pieces of evidence: Pro Cloning: Animal models to test disease, bring back extinct species, economic growth and prosperity, better to be allowed and regulated than banned with illegal use Anti Cloning: Lacks genetic diversity (direct genetic copy), misuse, risk factors (ex. Higher failure rates), religious standpoints Only some of the potential reasons, the key here is to connect our learning to a current societal and ethical debate.

Question 35

What are the processes that take place in Anaphase?

Answer 35

ANSWER the sister chromatids separate from each other and are pulled towards opposite ends of the cell

Question 36

What is Heredity?

Answer 36

ANSWER the transfer of characteristics from parents to offspring through reproduction

Question 37

Nondisjunction can lead to many different syndromes and complications that can affect the way one leads their life. Explain what nondisjunction and the two types are, using examples.

Answer 37

Nondisjunction is the failure of homologous pairs to separate to opposite poles during meiotic cell division This can result in the monosomy or trisomy of a chromosome Monosomy: Single chromosome in the place of a homologous pair Trisomy: Three homologous chromosomes in the place of a homologous pair Examples include: Klinefelter Syndrome (Trisomy of sex chromosome - XXY), Down Syndrome (Trisomy of chromosome 23), Turner Syndrome (Monosomy of Sex Chromosome - Missing or partial X in a female)

Question 38

What’s the difference between complete, co-dominant, and incomplete dominance? a) Complete dominance is when both alleles are expressed fully, Co-dominance is when neither alleles for a gene are present, and Incomplete dominance is when only one allele is expressed b) Co-dominance is when both alleles are expressed fully, Incomplete dominance is when neither allele is expressed, and Complete dominance is when only one allele is expressed c) Incomplete dominance is when neither allele is expressed, Complete dominance is when both alleles are expressed, and Co-dominance is when only one allele is expressed d) Complete dominance is when only one allele is expressed, Incomplete dominance is when both alleles are expressed, and Co-dominance is when neither alleles are expressed

Answer 38

b) Co-dominance is when both alleles are expressed fully, Incomplete dominance is when neither allele is expressed, and Complete dominance is when only one allele is expressed

Question 39

What is a Rh factor and how is it useful? a) Rh factors are proteins that are either present or absent in red blood cells. It is useful because people who don’t have them can still receive blood from Rh-positive blood types b) Rh factors are inherited from the ABO factors. It can be considered useful because they can recognize foreign antibodies on red blood cells c) Rh factors are proteins that are either present or absent in red blood cells. It is not useful because people who don’t have them cannot receive blood from Rh-positive blood types d) Rh factors can be either positive or negative. It is useful because people who are Rh positive don’t possess the Rh(D) antigen and people who are Rh negative possess the Rh(D) antigen

Answer 39

c) Rh factors are proteins that are either present or absent in red blood cells. It is not useful because people who don’t have them cannot receive blood from Rh-positive blood types

Question 40

In what phase of Mitosis do the chromosomes divide? A-Metaphase B-Prophase C-Anaphase D-Telophase

Answer 40

C) The answer is C because this is when we start to see the chromosomes split to each side of the cell.

Question 41

If two heterozygous plants with red flowers (Rr) are crossed, what is the possibility that the offspring will be white? a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 100%

Answer 41

a) 25%

Question 42

How many daughter cells are produced at the end of Meiosis? A- 2 B- 3 C- 6 D- 4

Answer 42

D) The answer is D. This is because meiosis goes through the process twice so the cells double.

Question 43

Explain the difference between Mitosis and Meiosis.

Answer 43

- Mitosis produces two genetically identical “daughter” cells from a single-parent - Meiosis produces cells that are genetically unique from the parent and contain only half as much DNA - Mitosis is the result of two nuclei that are identical to the original nucleus while meiosis results in four nuclei, each having half the number of chromosomes of the original cell

Question 44

What is DNA composed of? a) 2 sugar-phosphate backbones and base pairs held together by hydrogen bonds b) 3 sugar-phosphate backbones and base pairs held together by hydrogen bonds c) 2 sugar-phosphate backbones and base pairs held together by carbon bonds d) 3 sugar-phosphate backbones and base pairs held together by oxygen bonds

Answer 44

Answer: a) 2 sugar-phosphate backbones and base pairs held together by hydrogen bonds - DNA is formed by 2 sugar-phosphate backbones that run opposite to each other and twists together in a helix shape - Hydrogen bonds makes the base pairs stable and these bonds can be easily formed and broken - Base pairs line up and pair up, (A + T) (C + G)

Question 45

Which of the following characteristics does a male sperm NOT have? - Mitochondria - Diploid nucleus - Flagellum - Haploid nucleus

Answer 45

Answer: b) diploid nucleus - A sperm has a mitochondria for energy to move - A sperm has a flagellum to propel them through to the egg for fertilization - A sperm has a haploid nucleus, not a diploid nucleus, because it is a gamete, meaning it only has 23 chromosomes so it can pair up with the ovum to form a zygote (diploid cell) with 46 paired chromosomes

Question 46

How are traits passed down from parents to offspring through the Mendelian inheritance?

Answer 46

According to Mendel’s model, parents that pass along “heritable factors”, which we now call genes, determine the traits of the offspring. Each individual has two copies of a given gene, such as seed colour is shown as Y gene.

Question 47

What is the difference between A-sexual reproduction and sexual production? What similarities do they share?

Answer 47

The difference between a-sexual reproduction and sexual production is that a sexual reproduction only has one parent while in sexual reproduction you need two parents. The similarities that they share is that both of their cells divide. They share a similar process. Mitosis for a-sexual reproduction and meiosis for sexual reproduction.

Question 48

What happens to a person if they receive the wrong blood type during a transfusion? a) Hemolytic reaction b) Hypertension c) Hemochromatosis d) Hemophilia

Answer 48

Answer: a) Hemolytic reaction - If incompatible blood is transfused, the antibodies in your immune system will recognize the foreign antibodies and bind to them to destroy the red blood cells - The hemolytic reaction causes a variety of symptoms that will usually show up during or right after the transfusion - Can cause multisystem organ failure and be fatal if it is severe enough

Question 49

What could a karyotype help to look for?

Answer 49

Answer: - Karyotypes can help to look for any abnormalities in chromosome numbers or structure - Can be used to help diagnose any disease or malformation from the chromosomes - For example, if there is a trisomy of the 21st chromosome, a karyotype can help to diagnose down syndrome

Question 50

Why did Gregor Mendel use pea plants to study genetics?

Answer 50

Answer: - Pea plants have several observable characteristics that are either one of two ways - For example, smooth peas or wrinkled peas - He could observe seed shape, seed colour, flower colour, pod shape, pod colour, flower position, and stem height - He could also crossbreed them or they could self pollinate since they have both male and female organs - Pea plants also reproduce very quickly

Question 51

Explain the difference between Apoptosis and Necrosis.

Answer 51

Although these two are very similar because they both involve cell death one is controlled and the other is not. Apoptosis is controlled cell death. This happens to get rid of unwanted cells. You are usually born with it (webbed hands.) Whereas necrosis is uncontrolled cell death. This happens when you get injured or an example would be extreme frostbite. The cells die and eventually will fall off.

Question 52

Which part of mitosis does cleavage form? a. Prophase b. Telophase c. Metaphase d. Cytokenesis

Answer 52

a. Telophase

Question 53

If homologous chromosomes fail to move to opposite poles during meiosis, this results in a) Oogenesis b) Synapsis c) Two diploid cells d) Nondisjunction

Answer 53

d) Nondisjunction is when Homologous chromosomes don't move to opposite poles of the cell during meiosis, resulting in an abnormal amount of chromosomes in the daughter cells. This could result in a trisomy or monosomy abnormality.

Question 54

A mother with Blood type O(ii) has offspring with a father who has type B(IBi blood). What are the possible blood types for their offspring? a. AB(IAIB), B(IBIB) b. O(ii), A(IAi) c. B(IBi), O(ii) d. B(IBIB), O(ii)

Answer 54

c. B(IBi), O(ii)

Question 55

If a black dog and a white dog's offspring is a puppy with black and white spots, what kind of dominance is this? a) Complete dominance b) Codominance c) Incomplete dominance d) Recessive dominance

Answer 55

b) Codominance is when both of the alleles are expressed fully, showing both phenotypes of the parents.

Question 56

Which are antibodies found in type B blood? a. Has anti-B antibodies. b. Has anti-A antibodies. c. Has no antibodies. d. Has anti-A and anti-B antibody

Answer 56

b. Has anti-A antibodies.

Question 57

What is the result of meiosis? a) 2 diploid daughter cells b) 4 genetically identical daughter cells c) 2 haploid daughter cells d) 4 genetically unique daughter cells

Answer 57

d) The purpose of meiosis is to create genetic variation, it also goes through two phases of cell division, resulting in 4 unique haploid daughter cells.

Question 58

A heterozygous tall green pea plant crosses with a short green dominant pea plant. What are all possible genetic outcomes for the offspring of these plants?

Answer 58

Genotypes ratios are 4:16 TtGG, 4:16 TtGg, 4:16 ttGG and 4:16 ttGg. Phenotypic ratios are 8:16 Tall and green, 8:16 Short and Green.

Question 59

What are the three types of mutation and how do they occur?

Answer 59

substitution - one nitrogenous base is substituted for a different base Insertion - one or more nitrogenous bases are inserted during the copying process Deletion - one or more nitrogenous bases are deleted during the copying process

Question 60

What is heredity? A. the passing of traits from parents to offspring either through sexual or asexual reproduction B. the study of health science, more specifically, the study of genes C. The study of Biological inheritance D. A visual representation of an individual's complete set of chromosome

Answer 60

A) the passing of traits from parents to offspring either through sexual or asexual reproduction

Question 61

Why is insertion and deletion (point mutations) so harmful?

Answer 61

Nucleotide sequences are read in 3s, so if one is added or taken away, it messes up the sequence in which the nucleotides are being read.

Question 62

Why did Mendel use peas for his experience? A. Because they reproduce quickly and have both male and female organs B. Because they are green and yellow and white C. Common plant and easy to access D. A particular version of a characteristic that is inherited spreads quickly

Answer 62

A) Because they reproduce quickly and have both male and female organs

Question 63

What are the differences between Mitosis and Meiosis?

Answer 63

Mitosis: - Purpose: Cell division for growth, repair, and asexual reproduction. - Number of divisions: One division (PMAT). - Number of daughter cells: Two daughter cells. - Chromosome number: Daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell (diploid to diploid). - Genetic variation: No genetic variation (daughter cells are genetically identical). - Occurs in: Somatic (body) cells. - Stages: Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis. Meiosis: - Purpose: Cell division for sexual reproduction, producing gametes (sperm and eggs). - Number of divisions: Two divisions (Meiosis I and Meiosis II). - Number of daughter cells: Four daughter cells. - Chromosome number: Daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell (diploid to haploid). - Genetic variation: High genetic variation due to crossing over and independent assortment. - Occurs in: Germ cells (cells that develop into sperm and eggs). - Stages: Meiosis I (Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, Telophase I, Cytokinesis) and Meiosis II (Prophase II, Metaphase II, Anaphase II, Telophase II, Cytokinesis)

Question 64

What are the 4 bases of DNA? A. Adenine, Cytosine, Guanine, Thymine B. Thymine, Lymine, Polymine, Plylime C. Thymine, Redsine. Lysine, Guanine D. Myrine, Thymine, Lymine, Cytosine

Answer 64

Answer is A. Adenine, Cytosine, Guanine, Thymine

Question 65

Which of the following best describes a gene? A. Molecule that carries oxygen in red blood cells B. A segment of DNA that codes for a specific protein C. A structure that protects the nucleus of a cell D. A type of sugar found in DNA

Answer 65

B) A segment of DNA that codes for a specific protein

Question 66

Explain why A person with blood type A cant donate to someone with blood type B but can donate to AB.

Answer 66

- B contains anit-A antibodies - AB has no antibodies so can recive from both A & B

Question 67

2. Why do cells divide? A. Growth, Protection, Restoration B. Repair, Growth, Energy C. Photosynthesis, Protection, Transportation D. Growth, Repair, Communication

Answer 67

Answer is D. Growth, Repair, Communication

Question 68

If You Possess The Anti-B Antibodies, Which Blood Types Can You Donate To? a. A, O b. A, AB c. B, O d. B, AB

Answer 68

b. A, AB

Question 69

What happens in prophase I of meiosis? a) Homologous chromosomes pair up side by side and exchange gene segments through synthesis b) Chromosomes line up at the center of the cell and prepare for metaphase c) Homologous chromosomes pair up side by side and exchange gene segments through synapsis d) Spindle fibres attach to the centromeres of the chromosomes

Answer 69

c) Homologous chromosomes pair up side by side and exchange gene segments through synapsis

Question 70

What is controlled cell death called? a) Necrosis b) fragmentation c) Cytokiniesis d) Apoptosis

Answer 70

The correct answer is D because apoptosis is the process of controlled, programmed cell death, which is essential for maintaining healthy tissue development

Question 71

In Guinea pigs, the trait for short hair is (A) and is dominant to long hair, (a). The trait for spotted is (h) and is recessive to no spots (H). In a cross between a Guinea pig that is double heterozygous and a Guinea pig that is heterozygous for hair length and homozygous recessive for spots. What is the chance for a spotted long-haired guinea pig? a. 0/16 b. 2/16 c. 6/16 d. 8/16

Answer 71

b. 2/16

Question 72

What does it mean when neither allele for a trait is expressed fully and instead exhibits an intermediate expression of the trait? a) Codominance b) Incomplete dominance c) Autosomal inheritance d) Dihybrid cross

Answer 72

b) Incomplete dominance

Question 73

If we have 4 homologous pairs, how many possible combinations are there? a) 32 b) 16 c) 8 d) 20

Answer 73

b) 16. use the equation 2^n since there are 4 homologous pairs it would be 2^4 which equals 16.

Question 74

In what phase do homologous pairs line up randomly at the equator? a. Anaphase I b. Metaphase I c. Anaphase II d. Metaphae II

Answer 74

b. Metaphase I

Question 75

3. What are the types of cell death? A. Apoptosis, Necrosis B. Locasis, Necrosis C. Moasis, Apoptosis D. Locasis, Moasis

Answer 75

Answer is A. Apoptosis, Necrosis.

Question 76

What DNA mutation has 1 or more nitrogenous bases inserted during the copying process? a) point mutation b) Deletion c) Insertion d) Transposon

Answer 76

The correct answer is C because an insertion mutation involves the addition of one or more nitrogenous bases into the DNA sequence during the copying process

Question 77

Explain the differences between mitosis and meiosis.

Answer 77

Mitosis: Asexual reproduction - Four phases: Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase - The separating of two sister chromatids - Results in two genetically identical daughter cells; both containing 46 chromosomes (diploid cells) - Used for growth, cell injury + death Meiosis: Sexual reproduction - Eight phases: Prophase I, metaphase I, anaphase I, telophase I, prophase II, metaphase II, anaphase II, telophase II - The separation of homologous pairs and then sister chromatids - Results in four genetically unique gametes; all containing 23 chromosomes (haploid cells)

Question 78

What plant did Gregor Mendel use to experiment with genetic inheritance and why did he choose this plant? What did the results of this experiment prove?

Answer 78

- Used garden peas because of its fast reproduction and the control he had over breeding, had both male & female organs, can both crossbreed and self pollinate, and have many characteristics that are one or the other (Ex: seeds are either yellow or green) - Mendel’s results proved that blended traits did not occur in the way it was previously believed, such as a cross between a tall plant and a short plant will result in all medium plants. Instead, it proved that genetic inheritance depends on the law of segregation and the genes inherited from the parent, such as a cross between a tall plant and a short plant resulting in all tall plants in the first generation, and a majority of tall plants with some short plants in the second generation.

Question 79

What is the process of packaging DNA?

Answer 79

First DNA strands wrap around histones to form nucleosomes. These nucleosomes condense to form chromatin. They remain like this during interphase. During mitosis, chromatin condenses into chromosomes.

Question 80

A condition where neither allele for a gene completely conceals the presence of the other. a) Continuous variation b) Incomplete dominance c) Complete dominance d) Codominance

Answer 80

b) Incomplete dominance is the answer.

Question 81

Explain was the basic unit of heredity in living organisms? The basic unit of heredity is a gene. Genes are segments of DNA that contain the instructions for building proteins, which are essential for the structure, function, and regulation of the body's tissues and organs.

Answer 81

The basic unit of heredity is a gene. Genes are segments of DNA that contain the instructions for building proteins, which are essential for the structure, function, and regulation of the body's tissues and organs.

Question 82

4. What are the phases of Mitosis and what happens in that phase?

Answer 82

Answer: Prophase = centrioles move to opposite sides and spindle fibers form Metaphase = Chromosomes line in middle of cell Anaphase = Chromosomes get pulled apart Telophase = Chromosomes unwind to chromatins. Cytokinesis = Cytoplasm and organelles divide

Question 83

Nondisjunction results in: A) Abnormal amount of chromosome B) Colour blindness C) Normal amount of chromosomes D) None of the above

Answer 83

A

Question 84

What are the 5 Characteristics of Bacteria?

Answer 84

Answer: The 5 Chacteristics of Bacteria are unicellular, prokaryotic, microscopic, plasma membrane wielders and unicellular.

Question 85

What is the term for an observable trait? A) Phenotype B) Genotype C) Chromosome D) Allele

Answer 85

A

Question 86

What is the PROCESS of moving a gene sequence from one part of the chromosome to another part of the chromosome called? a) Spontaneous mutation b) Transposon c) Point mutation d) Transposition

Answer 86

d) Transposition is the PROCESS of moving a gene sequence. Transposon is the SPECIFIC segment of DNA that can move between chromosomes

Question 87

Describe the two different genotypes someone with a type A blood type may have. Describe the possible difference their offspring may have if they both reproduce with someone with an ii genotype. (written)

Answer 87

They can have: IAIA (A's should be in superscript) or IAi Difference in offspring: IAIA+ ii= 100% IAi IAi +ii= 50% IAi or 50% ii

Question 88

Describe the structure of DNA. (written)

Answer 88

- made of 2 polynucleotide chains coiling in a double helix structure - Backbone made of deoxyribose and phosphate - four different bases: Adenine, thymine, guanine and cytosine -Adenine and thymine pair and cytosine and guanine pair -Each base is attached to a sugar which is attached to a phosphate which is attached to the backbone OR IN SHORT - made of 2 polynucleotide chains coiling in a double helix structure - four different bases: Adenine, thymine, guanine and cytosine

Question 89

Explain the difference between mitosis and meiosis?

Answer 89

Mitosis is the process of asexual reproduction where cells are divided into two identical daughter cells. This goes through one cycle of pro phase , meta phase , ana phase , telo phase that result in cytokinesis ( two daugther cells) . Meiosis is the process sexual reproduction where a combination of two different genetic information are crossed going through two cycles meiosis I and meiosis II that results in four genetically unique cells.

Question 90

Who is the father of genetics and what does the Law of Segregation state ?

Answer 90

The father of genetics if Gregor Mendel. The law of segregation states that for each characteristic an organism carries two genes one from each parent . Parents of organisms only donate one copy gene in their gametes because gene separate during formation.

Question 91

The successful mating of two organism? a) Hybrid b) True -breeding c) Cross

Answer 91

c) Cross

Question 92

Trisomy of sex chromosome extra X chromosome in males ? a) Turner Syndrome b) Klinefelter Syndrome c) Down Syndrome

Answer 92

b) Klinefelter Syndrome

Question 93

A double stranded chromosome that are 2 identical chromatin ? a) Centromere b) Sister Chromatids c) Daughter Cells

Answer 93

b) Sister Chromatids

Question 94

Base-pair substitution is: a) a large-scale change in DNA base sequence b) one or more bases added during DNA copying c) a nitrogenous base replaced by another d) one or more bases removed during DNA copying

Answer 94

Answer c

Question 95

Blood has: a) 2 possible alleles b) 6 possible alleles c) 3 possible alleles d) 4 possible alleles.

Answer 95

Answer C

Question 96

If a dragon with horns, a recessive trait, breeds with a dragon that is a carrier of the horn trait, what is the probability their offspring will have horns? a) 25% b) 75% c) 0% d) 50%

Answer 96

Answer d

Question 97

Why can a person who is a B- blood type only receive B- blood and O- blood?

Answer 97

- People with blood type B develop anti-A antibodies, meaning they can't receive any A-type blood, including AB-type blood, making the person with B- blood type unable to have any A-blood. - Blood types with a negative rhesus factor, like B-, develop anti-Rh antibodies, meaning they can’t receive any type of blood that has a positive rhesus factor, making the person with B- blood type unable to have any Rh+ blood, including its blood type counterpart, B+. - A person with a B- blood type can only receive blood from another B- blood type or an O- blood type due to how B- blood type has both anti-A antibodies and anti-Rh antibodies, making B- blood and O- blood the only suitable donors for a B- blood type recipient.

Question 98

Explain the whole process of meiosis:

Answer 98

- Interphase: The cell grows and duplicates chromosomes to prepare for prophase I - Prophase I: The nuclear membrane dissolves, centrioles go to opposite poles of the cell, and chromosomes pair up side by side and exchange genetic material, also known as crossing over. - Metaphase I: homologous chromosomes pair up in lines randomly at the equator of the cell, and spindle fibres attach to homologous chromosome centromeres. - Anaphase I: Homologous pairs are pulled apart, and one chromosome goes to each pole. - Telophase I: cytokinesis occurs, and two haploid daughter cells are produced, each with only 1 copy of a chromosome. - Prophase II: No DNA duplication occurs, and spindle fibres attach to centromeres. - Metaphase II: Chromosomes line up single file at the equator - Anaphase II: Unique sister chromatids pulled apart are pulled apart - Telophase II: Cytokinesis occurs, and 4 genetically unique haploid daughter cells are produced.