Unit 3 - Active Recall Flashcards

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1
Q

What are TWO types of chromosomal variations?

A
  1. Chromosome rearrangement: changes in the structure of individual chromosomes.
  2. Variation in chromosome numbers: changes in the
    number of chromosomes. One or more individual
    chromosomes are added or deleted.
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2
Q

What are chromosomal variations?

A
  • Permanent chromosomal changes.
  • Can be passed on to offspring if they occur in cells that will become gametes (‘germline’ cells).
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3
Q

Recall the four types of chromosome rearrangements?

A
  1. Deletions
    - Loss of a segment, either internal or terminal, from a
    chromosome.
    - Arise by terminal–ends breaking off (one break) or internal breaking and rejoining of incorrect ends (two breaks).
    - Major effect: loss of genetic information (importance
    depends on what, and how much is lost).
  2. Duplications
    - Repetition of a chromosome segment.
    - Tandem duplication is simplest form.
    - Single gene or cluster of genes can be duplicated.
    - Nothing has been lost, so duplications (especially smaller ones) often have little or no effect on phenotype/viability.
    - Offspring with duplications usually viable.
    - But, some cases, excess or unbalanced ‘dosage’ of gene products (proteins) resulting
  3. Inversions
    - Two breaks on a chromosome followed by reinsertion in the opposite orientation can produce an inversion:
    i. Pericentric Inversions: span around centromere
    ii. Paracentric Inversions: only on one side of chromosome
  4. Translocation
    - Exchange of segments between nonhomologous chromosomes, or to a different region on same chromosome.
    - Translocations between chromosomes can be reciprocal (two-way) or non-reciprocal (one-way).
    - If no genetic material is lost, considered a balanced
    translocation.
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4
Q

Describe some consequences of deletion chromosome rearrangements and how they are detected.

A

Detection
- Deletion loops can be detected during meiosis
- molecular methods that detect lower heterozygosity or gene dosage

Consequences
- Loss of DNA sequences.
- Phenotypic effects depend on the size and location of deleted sequences.
- Deletions that span a centromere result in an acentric chromosome that will most likely be lost during cell division, may be lethal.
- Deletions can allow expression of alleles that are normally recessive. Called pseudodominance.

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5
Q

How do deletions affect gene dosage?

A
  • When a gene is expressed, the functional protein is normally produced at the correct level or dosage.
  • Some (not all) genes require two copies for normal of protein production; if one copy is deleted a mutant phenotype can result called haploinsufficiency.
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6
Q

Why are duplications important in evolution? What is their origin? How are they detected?

A

IMPORTANCE
- Very important in evolution, because extra copies of genes provide raw material for new genes and adaptations.
- About 5% of human genome consists of them

ORIGIN
- Unequal crossing over of misaligned chromosomes during meiosis generates duplications (and deletions).

DETECTION
- various molecular methods that detect higher gene dosage…staining?

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7
Q

What are three evolutionary outcomes of duplication?

A
  1. Both copies remain the same, Redundancy. Alter gene dosage, could have effect
  2. One copy becomes inactive…Pseudogene

3.One copy acquires a new function…(Neofunctionalization) Gene families

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8
Q

Describe the duplication consequence of neofunctionalization.

A
  • Source of new genes
  • Creates multigene families
  • example: globin gene family
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9
Q

Describe why a duplication consequence is gene dosage?

A
  • Gene dosage may affect phenotype.
  • Amount of protein synthesized is often proportional to the number of gene copies present, so extra genes can lead to excess proteins.
  • E.g., Bar region in Drosophila (X chromosome). More
    copies –> fewer eye facets
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10
Q

Any effects of inversion of phenotype? Does location matter?

A
  • Often, none! However, sometimes there is an effect on phenotype, driven by the change in position of the gene(s)…
  • Change in position can alter expression, e.g. variegation in Drosophila.
  • Genes in/near chromatin may not be expressed.
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11
Q

Describe the inversion consequence of suppression of recombination.

A
  • If no crossing over occurs, gametes produced are usually viable because genetic information is not lost or gained.
  • If crossing over occurs……
    …outside of inverted region - viable gametes.
    …within inverted region - some nonviable gametes and reduced recombination frequency.
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12
Q

Compare crossing over with paracentric inversion vs pericentric inversions

A

Paracentric inversion:
- Dicentric chromatid: Dicentric bridge breaks as the two centromeres are pulled apart
- Reduced (observed) recombination frequency
- Reduced fertility

Pericentric inversions:
- Reduced (observed) recombination frequency
- Reduced fertility

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13
Q

What are the consequences of reciprocal translocation?

A

As with inversions, translocations change the position of genes. This can alter expression of gene(s) because of association with different proteins, or formation of new gene products (fusion proteins).

Example: ‘Philadelphia’ chromosome
- Fused BCR-ABL gene
- 5’ section of BCR fused with most of ABL.
- Protein produce is a fusion that functions improperly – causes chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), a rare form of cancer that affects certain types of WBCs

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14
Q

Why are inversions super interesting? Remember.

A
  • Very interesting consequences for adaptation and evolution!
  • Lack of recombination within inversions means that genes within the inversions are free to diverge to produce different adaptations.
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15
Q

Explain the example of Ruff Bird inversion? More than 2 sexes??

A
  • Ruff is a European wading sandpiper.
  • Has 3 types of males:
    i. ‘Independent’ males display in leks to attract females.
    ii. ‘Faeder’ males mimic females, sneak copulations.
    iii. ‘Satellite’ males look like a somewhat drabber version of Independent males.
  • Faeder and satellite males have a 4.5Mb chromosomal inversion that arose 3.8 million years ago.
  • Faeders came first. Later (ca 500k yr BP) a very rare crossover event restored some of the ‘independent’ version of the chromosome to the ‘faeder’ version, creating the ‘satellite’ version.
  • The inversion is lethal in the homozygous condition!!

Conclusions:
- Inversion has persisted for 3.8 Million Years because being a ‘Faeder’ is a successful reproductive strategy, despite the ‘cost’ of fertilizations that are homozygous for the inversion, and therefore not viable.
- Kind of like mutation that produces sickle cell anemia in humans…beneficial effects of being heterozygous outweigh the cost of producing some offspring that are
homozygous and not viable.

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16
Q

Genes within alternate orientations of inversion can diverge dramatically even though there is no divergence anywhere else in the genome. Why?

A
  • No recombination within inversion
  • Sequence divergence between Independents and Satellites (also Faeders) –
  • Inside inversions = large divergence
  • Outside inversions = zero divergence.
  • Similar cases in many other species where genes within inversions have evolved to produce different sets of
    adaptations.
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17
Q

What do chromosomal rearrangements have to do
temperature adaptations and migratory behaviour in
Atlantic Cod?

A
  • Cod have a large chromosomal inversion that is
    millions of years old.
  • Genes inside the inversion influence whether cod are
    adapted to ‘warmer’ or ‘colder’ water.
  • Cod with both orientations of the inversion live off
    Nova Scotia, and interbreed.
  • Because recombination inside the inversion is
    suppressed, the ‘warm’ and ‘cold’ versions of the
    genes do not get scrambled by recombination.
  • Several other major inversions in cod influence other
    traits, such as migration.
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18
Q

Recall short-term and long-term evolutionary consequences of chromosomal variations.

A

Short-term/immediate consequences:
- gene/chromosome dosage effects including genetic
disorders, position effects, effects on recombination & fertility (including miscarriages).

Long-term/evolutionary consequences:
- Pseudogenes, neofunctionalization, new
adaptations.

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19
Q

Define Aneuploidy and Polyploidy

A

Aneuploidy - increase or decrease in the number of individual chromosomes, e.g. trisomy, three copies of a chromosome.

Polyploidy – increase in the number of sets of chromosomes, e.g. triploid, three copies of every chromosome.

Note:
- ‘ploidy’ refers to the total number of chromosomes while ‘somy’ refers to the number of particular chromosomes

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20
Q

Give the four most common types of aneuploidy in diploid (2n) individuals.

A
  1. Nullisomy - Loss of both members of a pair of
    homologous chromosomes: 2n-2 = 44.
  2. Monosomy - Loss of a single chromosome: 2n-1 = 45.
  3. Trisomy - Gain of a single chromosome: 2n+1 = 47.
  4. Tetrasomy - Gain of two homologous chromosomes: 2n+2 = 48.

Note:
normal human diploid individual is 2n=46

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21
Q

What are the two main causes of Aneuploidy?

A

1) Nondisjunction in meiosis or mitosis.
- Trisomy: may be viable
- Monosomy: usually not viable, except for sex chromosomes
- chromosomal abnormalities, particularly autosomal trisomy, is thought to be the most common cause of spontaneous abortions or miscarriages.

2) Deletion of a centromere leads to chromosome loss.

Note:
Nondisjunction – failure of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate

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22
Q

Give examples of three autosomal aneuploidies.

A
  1. trisomy 13 Patau syndrome; about 1 in 16000
    newborns
  2. trisomy 18 Edwards syndrome; about 1 in 5000 live-
    born infants
  3. trisomy 21 Down syndrome; 1 in 800 newborns
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23
Q

Give four examples of Sex chromosome aneuploidies.

A
  1. monosomy X (XO)
  2. Turner syndrome: 1 in 2500 newborn girls
  3. Extra copies of the X chromosome (e.g. XXY-most common, XXXY)
  4. Klinefelter syndrome; 1 in 500-1000 newborn males
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24
Q

Describe what you know about Primary Down Syndrome? Why does the incidence of trisomy 21 rise with maternal age?

A
  • Trisomy 21: 3 copies of chromosome 21 (2n+1 = 47 chromosomes)
  • Accounts for most cases of Down syndrome.
  • Most cases arise from random nondisjunction during meiotic division.
  • Mother contributes the extra chromosome in ~75% of cases.

REASON:
- Possibly due to the fact that oocytes (eggs) are formed
by birth, in arrested stage of meiosis.

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25
Q

What is familial Down syndrome? Define Robertsonian translocation.

A

FAMILIAL DS:
- An extra copy of chromosome 21 is attached to another chromosome (e.g. 14 or 15).
- Account for 3-4% of cases.
- Arise in offspring of parent who carry a chromosome that underwent Robertsonian translocation
- Translocation carrier: 45 chromosomes, one of which is a translocation chromosome…Normal phenotype, does not have Down syndrome.

DEFINTION
- Robertsonian translocation = exchange of long arms of non-homologous acrocentric chromosomes

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26
Q

Is Aneuploidy viable in plants?

A

Yes! plants tolerate it better than animals.. Usually viable; phenotype maybe altered and fertility reduced.

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27
Q

What can you recall about polyploidy?

A
  • For diploid (2n) individuals, polyploidy is the presence of more than two sets of chromosomes.
    i. Triploids - 3n;
    ii. Tetraploids - 4n;
    iii. Pentaploids - 5n; and so on……
  • Common in plants, less common in animals (some fishes, reptiles, amphibians and invertebrates). Not known in mammals and birds; presumably lethal.
  • Polyploidy is very important in plants. 30-35% of Angiosperms evolved via some form of polyploidy.
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28
Q

What are the two types of polyploidy?

A

1) Autopolyploid: Multiples of the same genome.
e.g., autotetraploid - 4n
- can occur during mitosis or meiosis
- Nondisjunction of ALL chromosomes during mitosis in early embryo can produce autotetraploid

Ex:
- Diploid gamete + normal gamete = autotriploid (3n).
- Diploid gamete + Diploid gamete = autotetraploid (4n).

2) Allopolyploid : Multiples of closely related genomes
e.g., allotetraploid - 4n; 2n from species i and 2n from species ii

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29
Q

What are the effects of Autopolyploidy?

A
  • Usually sterile (odd-numbered ploidy).
  • Most gametes produced are genetically unbalanced.
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30
Q

What is the significance of polyploids in agriculture?

A
  1. Wheat
    - cell volume correlated with nucleus volume, correlated with genome size.
    - Polyploids often have bigger leaves, fruits, seeds.
    - Bread wheat is a polyploid derived from 3 species.
  2. Produce
    - Production of larger fruits, e.g. strawberries and
    grapes.
    - Production of seedless fruit (sterile), e.g. bananas, grapes and watermelon.
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31
Q

Why isn’t polyploidy not the best for bananas?

A
  • Domestic bananas (mostly 3n = 33) are derived from 2 wild species: Musa acuminata (‘A’) and Musa balbisiana (‘B’).
  • ‘Gros Michel’, Cavendish are AAA
  • Most plantains are ABB or AAB
  • World production = 100 Mt
  • Most varieties derived from spontaneous hybrid polyploids found in the wild
  • 2n gametes from one species, 1n gamete
    from another

Overall:
- In 1950s & 1960s, Gros Michel wiped out by ‘Panama disease’ (Fusarium)…Replaced by resistant Cavendish.
- In 1980s, a new strain of Fusarium, ‘Tropical Race 4’ appeared in Malaysia, now spreading around world. Cavendish has no resistance.

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32
Q

How are mutations both rare and uncommon?

A
  • Rare because DNA replication occurs with high fidelity.
  • Common because there is a lot of DNA being replicated! (e.g., ~64 new mutations/human generation)
  • Ultimate source of all genetic variation.
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33
Q

Quickly compare somatic and gene-line mutation inheritance?

A
  • Somatic mutations are not transmitted from one generation to another.
  • Germ-line mutations may be transmitted to ~50% of offspring
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34
Q

What are the three types of point mutations?

A
  1. Silent (aka synonymous): no change in amino acid (aa) sequence. Happens in reading frames because of redundancy in genetic code.
  2. Missense (aka nonsynonymous): mutation causes 1 aa to be substituted for another, changing the aa sequence.
  3. Nonsense: An amino acid codon is converted into a stop codon.
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35
Q

What are indels? How do they affect aa sequence of protein? Do they affect phenotype?

A

Recall: Indels cause frameshifts that alter reading frames, creating either nonsense or missense effects on
protein….

EXCEPT when indels occur as multiples of 3 nucleotides. In such cases the amino acid sequence will change (either become shorter or longer), but the reading frame is preserved. Indels outside of reading frames
usually have no effect on phenotype.

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36
Q

Give some examples of mutations effect on functional phenotype?

A
  1. Loss-of-function: protein function completely or partly lost. Recessive inheritance.
  2. Gain-of-function (aka radical): new gene product, or gene product in ‘wrong’ tissue. Dominant inheritance.
  3. Neutral: Missense mutation that results in non-significant change in protein function, because one
    chemically similar amino acid substituted for another, or occurs in a part of the protein that is not important for function
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37
Q

In point mutations, are transitions or transversions more common?

A

Because of the nature of the chemical changes leading to mutations, transitions are more common than transversions, even though there are twice as many possible transversions.

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38
Q

Classify forward and reverse mutations?

A

Forward mutation: alters wild phenotype

Reverse mutation changes mutant phenotype back to wild phenotype.
i. Intragenic supressor mut. (same gene)
ii. intergenic supressor mut. (Dif gene)

Note:
- Suppressor mutations: first mutation is suppressed by a second mutation

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39
Q

Name the three types of spontaneous mutations?

A
  1. Tautomeric shifts (base tautomers) during DNA replication.
  2. DNA strand-slippage during DNA replication.
  3. Misalignment of homologous chromosomes during
    crossing-over (recombination) at meiosis I.
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40
Q

Mutagens are agents that cause mutations. Please give examples of RADIATION mutagens.

A
  1. Ionizing radiation: cosmic rays, X-rays and
    gamma rays.
    - change stable molecule into a free radical or an ion, which can alter the structure of bases and break phosphodiester bonds in DNA.
  2. Ultraviolet radiation (from sunlight)
    - Ultraviolet (UV) radiation is electromagnetic radiation of lower energy than ionizing radiation. Can still generate free radicals under some circumstances, but less likely to do so than higher energy radiation.
    * Can be generated by various types of lamps, e.g., mercury vapour lamps.
    - PYRIMIDINE DIMERS (TT or CC) THYMINE DIMERS INDUCED BY ULTRAVIOLET RADIATION
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41
Q

How does DNA repair damaged DNA?

A

Nucleotide excision repair:
1. Protein recognizes mismatches
2. Unwinds DNA in area of mismatch
3. Excises out nucleotides
4. Fills in correct nucleotides

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42
Q

Mutagens are agents that cause mutations. Please give examples of CHEMICAL mutagens.

A
  1. Base analogs.
    - Chemicals that appear similar to the normal bases in DNA, but causes incorrect base-pairing and introduce point mutations during DNA replication.
    - EX: 5-BROMOURACIL…A nucleotide analog that resembles both thymine and cytosine. Like thymine, 5-bromuracil normally base pairs with adenine, but when ionized it will base pair with guanine.
  2. Base modifying agents.
    - Chemicals that modify groups on the normal bases in DNA that result in incorrect base-pairing and introduce point mutations during DNA replication.
  3. Intercalating agents.
    - Chemicals that distort the normal stacking of bases in DNA resulting in insertion or deletion of a single base-pair during DNA replication.
    - EX: Intercalating agents insert between adjacent bases
    distorting them by 0.68 nm, the size of a base. First round of DNA replication, the DNA polymerase randomly
    selects any nucleoside triphosphate opposite the
    intercalating agent…Result: frame-shift due to
    insertion of a base.
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43
Q

What is the AMES test?

A

Assay for chemical mutagenicity:
- A simple method to measure the reversion of a mutant His- Salmonella bacterial strain to His+ Salmonella wild-type strain by potential mutagens.
- His- Salmonella cannot grow on minimal medium lacking the essential amino acid, histidine.
- His+ Salmonella will grow on minimal medium.
- Increased reversions of His- to His+ Salmonella indicate the chemical is a mutagen, and thus, a potential carcinogen.

Note:
- Inclusion of rat liver enzymes to mimic the chemical modification of potential mutagens in the human body.
- Liver enzymes could make the chemical more or less
mutagenic.

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44
Q

Define Type 1 restriction endonucleases

A
  • Type I restriction endonucleases, discovered in
    1960s, recognize specific DNA sequences and then cleave the DNA sequences…somewhere else.
  • “Restrict” entry of foreign (i.e., viral) DNA into bacterial cells.
  • Originally thought to be rare, later found to be very common.
  • not very useful in molecular biology.
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45
Q

Define Type 2 restriction endonucleases (aka restriction enzymes).

A
  • First reported in 1970.
  • Thousands now known, hundreds commercially
    available.
  • ‘Type II’ REs cleave DNA within the recognition site.
  • This property has made them incredibly useful in
    molecular biology.
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46
Q

Define a palindromic sequence?

A

Sequence of nucleotide bases reads the same on the top strand as the sequence of nucleotide bases reads on the bottom strand of the DNA molecule in 5′ - 3’ direction.

Ex:

5’ - GAATTC - 3’
3’ - CTTAAG - 5’

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47
Q

Why don’t bacterial restriction endonucleases
attack the host’s own DNA?

A

The most common reason is that the ‘host’ (bacterial cell)
methylates a base in every copy of the RE site within its own genome.

Note: When we get to CRISPR we will encounter an even more clever bacterial host defence system.

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48
Q

DNA sequences cut by Type II restriction
endonucleases can be rejoined with _______.

A

ligases

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49
Q

Gel electrophoresis..What do you recall about this?

A
  • a method for sorting DNA (& RNA) sequence fragments by size
  • At neutral pH, DNA molecules are negatively charged because of phosphate groups.
  • In an electrical field, DNA will tend to move toward
    the positive electrode.
  • In addition to agarose and water, the gel contains a buffer that provide ions to allow current flow, and to keep the pH slightly above neutral.
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50
Q

Why can’t electrophoresis be done in a liquid?

A

Cannot do electrophoresis in a liquid. Need to make a ‘gel’. Most common kind is made from agarose, an uncharged polysaccharide purified from agar of the seaweed, Agar agar.

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51
Q

How does one prepare an agarose gel?

A
  1. The gel tray.
  2. Prepare barriers to retain the agarose.
  3. Pour molten agarose into the tray.
  4. Insert comb to form the wells before the agarose solidifies.
  5. Load DNA samples in individual wells and apply voltage.
52
Q

Explain size-fractionation of DNA during agarose gel-electrophoresis?

A
  • Shorter DNA fragments migrate more rapidly through the gel-matrix than longer molecules.
  • Migration rate of a linear DNA molecule is inversely related to log of its molecular mass (or # of base-pairs
    [bp]).
  • A ‘standard curve’ of known size DNA fragments can be used to extrapolate the size (bp) of an unknown DNA
    fragment.
  • Often the 1st stage in the characterization of an unknown DNA molecule.
  • Based on mobility, can extrapolate the
    molecular mass (or bp) of an unknown DNA molecule
53
Q

What other factors effect mobility of DNA fragments in a gel?

A
  1. Agarose concentration in gel.
    - As agarose concentration increases, pore size in gel matrix decreases.
    - Smaller pores more resistant to DNA movement, favouring small DNA fragments, and giving better resolution of size differences of small fragments.
  2. Topology (physical conformation) of DNA
    molecule.
    - ie: linear (2nd fastest), relaxed circular (slowest) or supercoiled circular (moves fastest)
    - In cells, DNA is often negatively supercoiled.
    - Positively supercoiled DNA can be produced in vitro.
  3. Voltage.
    - Greater voltage speeds up migration rate of DNA fragments during agarose gel-electrophoresis
54
Q

What factors DO NOT influence the rate of migration of DNA molecules during agarose gel-electrophoresis?

A

The %GC or sequence of a DNA molecule

For example, two DNA molecules of equal molecular mass (# of base-pairs), one containing 25% GC and the other 75% GC, will migrate through the gel-matrix at the same rate.

55
Q

In regards to the famous image of bands stained A-K that led to a Nobel Prize awarded, what did the image show and why did it revolutionize molecular biology?

A

IMAGERY:
- The image above showed DNA bands in a polyacrylamide gel that were produced after simian virus 40 (SV40) was cleaved by the first known Type II
restriction endonuclease.
- The DNA bands were radioactively labeled.
- This showed how Type II REs could be used to cut DNA sequences in predictable ways.

REVOLUTIONIZED:
1. First easy way to study variation in DNA sequences, and map particular features.
2. For first time, could easily recombine DNA sequences (with help of ligases) to create novel DNA sequences. This was the birth of recombinant DNA technology.

Note: Addition of agarose gel electrophoresis and EtBr staining also helped a great deal (= easier lab methods)

56
Q

Minimum requirements for DNA synthesis in vitro?

A
  • A strand of DNA to act as a template
  • A short, single strand of DNA complementary to part of the template (the ‘primer’)
  • DNA polymerase
  • Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs)
  • Mg+ (needed by polymerase)

Note:
- DNA synth. proceeds in 3’ direction

57
Q

What do you recall about the history PCR? What was Mullis’ insight?

A

HISTORY
- Polymerase chain Reaction (PCR) invented by Kary Mullis in 1983, patented in 1985, published
in 1986.
- led to Nobel Prize and Japan Prize in 1993.
- Has been called the most important technique in
all of molecular biology.

INSIGHT
- Mullis’ insight: enzymatic copying of double-stranded DNA using 2 primers, complementary to opposite strands could lead to exponential increase in amount of target sequence.

58
Q

PCR requires DNA to be cycled repeatedly through 3 temperatures. Why? And how is precise temperature cycling done?

A
  • Generally, ~30-35 cycles. This allows (in theory*) for more than a billion-fold amplification of target DNA.
  • Temperature cycling is accomplished using computer-controlled heating/cooling devices (‘thermal cycler’ or ‘PCR machine’)
59
Q

What are the three steps in PCR?

A
  1. Denaturation
    - Temperature: 94-96°C
    - Double stranded DNA denatures (‘melts’) -> single stranded DNA
  2. Annealing
    - Temperature: 50-65°C (dependant on the annealing/melting temperature of primers; Tm)
    - Primers bind to their complementary sequences
    - Tm is dependent on length and base composition of primers
  3. Extension
    - Temperature: 72°C
    - DNA polymerase binds to the annealed primers and extends DNA at the 3’ end of the chain
59
Q

What are the ‘ingredients’ needed for PCR?

A
  • Dinucleoside triphosphates, dATP , dCTP , dGTP , dTTP (‘dNTPs’)
  • Mg2+ (essential for enzyme, affects primer annealing)
  • Primers (usually, 2)
  • Template DNA (need not be pure; can be double or single-stranded)
  • Thermostable DNA polymerase (most often Taq, from Thermus aquaticus)…The ‘original’ version of PCR required addition of DNA polymerase after every
    denaturation step!….
  • Other ingredients: a salt, Tris (pH control), plus stabilizers.
60
Q

What are primers? What do you know about PCR primers?

A

PRIMERS
- short molecules of singled-stranded DNA (aka ‘oligonucleotides’ or just ‘oligos’ for short), most often 18-25 b long; can be shorter or longer.

PCR PRIMERS
- Priming between two oligos annealed to opposite strands can give exponential growth of product.
- Size of PCR product depends on how far apart the annealing sites of the 2 primers.
- PCR products up to 40 kb have been produced but most PCR involves products 2 kb or less. Yield drops with increasing length of DNA product.

61
Q

Why are primers 18-25 bp long?

A

REASON
- Primers that are ~18-25b long are long enough to (usually) match only the intended DNA target sequence.

OTHER
- Successful PCR depends on specific binding of primers to the exact positions that will allow us to amplify our ‘target’ DNA.
- Shorter primers are not specific enough in their binding; they may match and bind to multiple positions in the genomic DNA, resulting in amplification of ‘incorrect’ (off-target) DNA sequences.
- Longer primers are more costly to make and purchase, but offer little increase in specificity.

62
Q

What are two main applications of PCR? And several rare DNA applications?

A
  1. Amplifying target sequences for further study.
    - Amplifying a target sequence from within a complex mixture (e.g. genomic DNA sample) is ~equivalent to purifying the sequence of interest.
    - E.g.: could use to amplify a gene sequence for further study in biomedical, or evolutionary analysis contexts.
    —> Must know enough about the sequence of interest to design effective primers
  2. Detection of rare DNA sequences.
    - Can detect as little as a single copy of DNA sequence, even in a complex mixture.

RARE APPLICATIONS
- bacterial contaminants in food, etc. (e.g., E.coli or Listeria food poisoning)
- bacteria in environmental samples
- pathogens or endosymbionts in organisms (e.g., HIV, COVID-19)
- Forensics – detection of evidentiary DNA at crime scenes
- Environmental DNA (eDNA)
—> But NOT good for determining abundance of these rare sequences!

63
Q

Recall the stages of PCR in terms of graph.

A
  • During early cycles of PCR, production of DNA product is only limited by the amount in the previous cycle –> exponential growth of product.
  • In later cycles, dNTPs are less abundant, and
    DNA polymerase may start to wear out, leading to slower growth of product –> ‘linear’ phase.
  • Eventually, growth in amount of PCR product slows down greatly and then stops, as polymerase and dNTPs start to become exhausted –> ‘plateau’ phase.
  • Cp value marks first point product exceeds detection threshold of instrument.
  • When viewed on a log scale, the growth in DNA product during the exponential phase of PCR appears linear. The log-linear phase provides the best information to estimate starting amount of DNA (or RNA) template.
64
Q

Real time PCR - How is DNA quantified in each cycle?

A
  • Growth in amount of PCR product is monitored by using a reporter dye, and a PCR machine capable of detecting fluorescence in each well.
  • SYBR Green is simplest and cheapest reporter dye.
  • SYBR fluoresces much more strongly when bound to double-stranded DNA.
  • Binds primarily to minor groove in double-stranded DNA.
65
Q

What are the two applications of qPCR?

A
  1. Quantify amount of starting DNA of a particular sequence.
    - E.g. How abundant is a particular type of bacteria (or virus!) in a sample.
  2. Measuring rate at which a particular gene is transcribed.
    - Need to convert mRNA to cDNA first.
    - Use reverse transcriptase for this.
66
Q

Dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates terminate DNA synthesis. What else can you recall?

A
  • Consider what would happen in a DNA extension (synthesis) reaction, in which most of the dGTP is regular dGTP, but a small amount, say 5%, is ddGTP.
  • In that case, most (95%) of the time when ‘G’ is incorporated, it would be a normal dGTP, and strand elongation past that base could continue. BUT, 5% of the time, a ddGTP would be incorporated, and when that happened, there would be no further extension of that particular DNA strand.
  • This would give us DNA daughter strands of varying lengths, the lengths of which are determined by where the ‘G’s occur in the sequence.
  • We could do the same thing for the other bases: ‘Spike’ the DNA polymerization cocktail with small amounts of ddATP, ddCTP, and ddTTP (in addition to the ddGTP).
  • In this case, we would get a subset of DNA elongation products terminating with a ddNTP base at every position in the DNA sequence.
67
Q

How do we keep track of which bases are terminating which fragments?

A

We attach (different) fluorescent colours to each type of ddNTP (e.g., blue, red, ‘black’, green in this example)

68
Q

How do we sort out the different fragments by size?

A

We use gel electrophoresis to sort the fragments by size. The smallest fragments will represent DNA sequences terminating close to the primer.

69
Q

‘Fluorescent’ dideoxy sequencing is usually
automated…What else can you recall about it?

A
  • Gel electrophoresis uses denaturing polyacrylamide gel (contains urea) to separate single-stranded DNA fragments by size. This type of gel gives very fine resolution, ability to distinguish fragments that differ by 1 base in size.
  • As ddNTP-terminated fragments migrate in the
    gel, they pass a laser beam, that excites the fluorescent dyes, and a camera that records the flash of coloured light that results.
70
Q

What are the pros and cons of the Sanger dideoxy sequencing?

A

PROS
- Very accurate
- Relatively long sequencing reads (up to nearly 1,000b; although ~650b more common)
- Easy to do; can be automated.
- Low cost (for small numbers of samples).
- Continues to be used for all these reasons.

CONS
- Too slow for many applications, such as genome sequencing!
- Costly when scaled up to acquire lots of data.
- Requires purification and preparation of each individual DNA sequence that is being studied.
- These limitations led to invention of other methods, so called ‘next-generation’ methods.

71
Q

Sequencing capacity then and now…

A
  • Human Genome Project Consortium in 2000 (total of
    many labs in 6 countries): 8.64 x 10 7 bases/day (~~10 8 bases/day)
  • Bentzen lab Illumina MiSeq DNA sequencer: ~1.5 x 10 10 bases/day
72
Q

The problem: ‘single’ sample sequencing is too slow..What was the solution?

A

The solution: switch to ‘massively parallel’ sequencing

Other notes:
- Genomes are big!
- Handling and sequencing individual samples
(DNA templates) is too slow for genome sequencing.
- An approach was needed that allow for many
(millions) of DNA segments to be sequenced at once ( = ‘massively parallel’)

73
Q

What is the key information you can recall about Illumina DNA sequencing?

A
  • DNA needs to be short segments: accomplished by shearing or use of short PCR products.
  • ‘Adaptor’ sequences are added by ligation to ends of DNA segments.
  • Adaptors add sites for attachment of DNA sequencing primers and enable attachment to the oligonucleotides on the surface of the flow cell.
  • DNA segments to sequenced are randomly arrayed across flow cell surface.
  • ‘Bridge amplification’ used to amplify single DNA molecules into clusters of identical DNA molecules.
  • Sequencing occurs by addition of fluorescently labeled nucleotide analogs, 1 based at a time. These dNTP analogs are chain terminators (like Sanger) but are reversible (unlike terminators used in Sanger sequencing), so that after chemical treatment of the newly added dNTP, the chain can continue to elongate.
  • After each dNTP is added, sequencer pauses and exposes flow cell to laser, and takes a picture to record (for each DNA cluster) what base was incorporated in each cluster. Process continues for a few hundred
    cycles.
  • Computer interprets the data to infer the DNA sequence within each DNA cluster on the flow cell.
  • Millions of distinct DNA sequences determined simultaneously this way (= massively parallel DNA sequencing)
74
Q

3rd generation sequencing: faster, single-
molecule, longer reads…What it called? Define the process.

A

Nanopore sequencing
- NOT DNA sequencing by synthesis.
- Single molecule at a time (no pre-amplification by PCR).
- Enzyme unwinds DNA; a single strand is pulled by an electrical current through a pore in a membrane.
- Each base produces a characteristic disturbance in
electrical current, which can be used to read the base as it travels through the pore

75
Q

Nanopore sequencing pros & cons?

A

PROS:
- Long reads - up to 100kb!
- No amplification step to boost amount of template DNA before sequencing.
- Small, highly portable DNA sequencer connects to USB port on a computer.
- Can be used in the field to get rapid
results.
- Can detect methylated bases.

CONS:
- Slightly less accurate than other methods

76
Q

Sequencing methods compared

A

review slide 35 on DNA sequencing slides 11.3

77
Q

Explain genome assembly by shotgun sequencing?

A
  • Shear genomic DNA into short sequences.
  • Sequence by next-gen.
  • Assembler software looks for sequence overlaps between fragments to assemble them into larger fragments (contigs).
  • Now preferred way of sequencing genomes, but has problems with repetitive DNA sequences.
  • Long-read sequences (e.g. Nanopore) often used to
    overcome this problem.
78
Q

What is the advantage of long reads?

A

they help with the ‘assembly’ and ‘alignment’ of short reads

79
Q

Genome assembly by shotgun sequencing is a
big bioinformatic task. Explain briefly why?

A
  • Haploid human genome = ~3.15, Bbp; ~3.2-3.4pg
  • Roughly equivalent to 7,500 250 page books
  • A genomic DNA sample includes many thousands copies of whole genome
  • When a genome is first sequenced, each segment is
    sequenced, on average, hundreds – thousands of times.
80
Q

Explain ‘Read’ or ‘Sequencing’ Depth

A
  • The number of times a particular base is represented within all the reads from a sequencing run.
  • Greater read depth gives more confidence a base is accurately read – known as ‘base calling’.
  • When a genome is sequenced for 1st time, read depth is usually several hundreds – thousands.
  • When additional copies of a genome are sequenced (called ‘resequencing’) much lower read depths are usually sufficient.
81
Q

An application of ‘Read’ or ‘Sequencing’ Depth is transcriptomics and or gene expression analysis. Explain the process.

A
  1. Isolate mRNA.
  2. Convert to cDNA.
  3. Shear cDNA, add adaptors.
  4. Sequence by next-gen.
  5. Bioinformatics software sorts sequences into
    different genes (the ‘transcriptome’).
  6. The number of times each gene appears in the sequence data is a measure of the degree to which that gene was being expressed in the organism/tissue being studied.
82
Q

What is DNA barcoding?

A
  • Many genes/DNA sequences can be used
    to identify species, but the mitochondrial DNA
    (mtDNA) COI gene is the most widely used for
    identifying animal species.
  • Other genes are used for plants and fungi.
83
Q

Uncovering the evolutionary relationships of living and extinct species of human is related to Sanger’s technique. Explain.

A
  • Early studies (1990s) targeted mtDNA using Sanger sequencing.
  • Used estimates of how fast mtDNA evolves to
    date key events.
  • Showed that all living humans have a common female ancestor who lived in either East or South Africa ~150-200 ka.
  • All non-African humans have a common female ancestor who lived ~65,000 years ago, about when modern humans dispersed from Africa
  • Modern humans first dispersed from Africa ~65,000 ya
  • In Eurasia, encountered 2 other species of human, and interbred with them (next gen).
  • Next gen. good for mixed up and degraded ancient DNA, also good for detecting genetic traces of ancient
    hybridization in
84
Q

How is studying microbiomes done?

A
  • Isolate DNA from an environmental sample;
  • Amplify microbial sequences using 16s rDNA primers;
  • Sequence using next gen (e.g. Illumina);
  • run data through databases to see what species are present and in what relative abundance
85
Q

What is the application of eDNA?

A
  • All living (and recently alive) multicellular organisms constantly shed small particles containing DNA.
  • DNA can be isolated from environmental samples (e.g., filtered water).
  • Using appropriate primers, informative DNA sequences can be amplified (e.g., mtDNA) and then sequenced. Species that are present can be identified via use of species – DNA databases.
  • Particular species can also be targeted using taxon-specific primers, followed by qPCR.
  • Can also detect eDNA in air samples!
86
Q

Review the comparison of analysis tenchiques and sequencing info.

A

see slide 15 on Lecture 13 Sequencing Genotyping Applications

87
Q

Why do we study genetic variation at the molecular level?

A
  • To determine the genetic basis of inherited diseases or phenotypic traits.
  • To study the relatedness of individuals or populations, and degree of intermixing of populations (population genetics).
  • To identify individuals (wildlife ecology).
  • Parentage analysis or inferring pedigrees.
  • To identify criminals (forensics).
88
Q

What’s DNA fingerprinting or minisatellite (DNA)?

A
  • In the 1980s, Alec Jeffries invented DNA fingerprinting using minisatellite DNA.
  • Minisatellites consist of ~10-100 bp sequences
    that are repeated many times (up to thousands)
    in tandem arrays
  • Minisatellite arrays (‘loci’) have extremely high allelic
    variation, due to frequent mutations involving replication slippage errors and/or unequal crossing-over.
89
Q

DNA profiling is now done with mircosatellites. Explain what you know.

A
  • Jeffries’ discovery had many important applications, including studies of parentage, kinship, and criminal forensics.
  • However, the method relied on a tedious method called Southern blotting, now no longer much used.
  • Instead DNA profiling is done using microsatellites*.
  • Microsatellites are similar to minisatellites, but have shorter sequence repeats (< 10
    bp; usually, 2-5 bp).
  • Like minisatellite arrays, microsatellite arrays show much allelic variation, due to slippage mutations.
  • Microsatellite arrays can be amplified via PCR.

Note:
* also known as short tandem repeats (STRs) … and also
as… simple sequence repeats (SSRs)

90
Q

Explain mircosatellite (STR, SSR) genotyping

A
  • PCR primers designed for flanking sequences.
  • Primers are fluorescently labeled. Amplify products of different size.
  • Separate products by electrophoresis.
  • Genotypes identified by size of
    product(s)…E.g. 10 / 12, 28 / 31 repeat genotypes
  • Co-dominant…..Heterozygotes produce 2 bands, this means both alleles are detected.
  • Usually use same capillary electrophoresis machines used for dideoxy sequencing.
  • Multiple microsatellites often amplified at same time, using primers labeled in different fluorescent colours. Called ‘multiplex’ analysis.
  • 13 ‘standard’ microsatellite loci are used in criminal forensics. These detect enough variability to distinguish all human individuals (except for identical twins).

Note:
- DNA profiling with microsatellites can be used to track and count wildlife

91
Q

Describe the use of microsatellite/STR ‘DNA
fingerprinting’ in criminal forensics?

A
  • PCR-based microsatellite genotyping requires only tiny
    amounts of DNA: ideal for criminal forensics.
  • DNA-based methods have helped convict criminals and exonerated many more innocent suspects.
  • Methods are so sensitive, though, that contamination can be a problem.
92
Q

A few microsatellite/STR/SSR loci cause genetic disorders. Why?

A
  • Most microsatellite loci have no effect on health; they are selectively ‘neutral’.
  • Generally occur outside of exons (e.g., in introns or mostly between genes).
  • In humans, however, a few microsatellites cause disease. In all cases, these loci involve trinucleotide repeats within genes or other important DNA sequences.
  • All humans have these microsatellite loci; however, healthy humans have versions (alleles) with a small number of repeats. Humans with genetic disorder have versions with too many repeats. These versions cause production of abnormal proteins.
  • Examples include Huntington’s Disease, myotyonic dystrophy, fragile X syndrome
93
Q

Use of restriction enzymes to can detect DNA polymorphism (restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) analysis). Explain how/why?

A
  • Mutations can either create or destroy restriction
    endonuclease sites.
  • Gain or loss of restriction sites (restriction site
    polymorphisms) can be detected using gel electrophoresis.
  • Restriction site polymorphisms are most
    commonly caused by single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs).
  • Examples diagramed in this slide are for haploid
    DNA
94
Q

Explain what you know about single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)?

A
  • SNPs caused by single base mutations are the
    most common genetic variations in genomes.
  • On average, a SNP occurs every 800-1000 bp in
    human DNA.
  • Any 2 randomly chosen humans will have different SNP alleles at several million ‘SNP loci’
  • > 600 millions SNPs have been catalogued in human genomes from genome sequencing studies; avg. human genome differs from standard ‘reference’ genome at 4-5M sites.
  • Usually di-allelic (e.g. an ‘A’ or a ‘G’ at a particular
    position.
  • SNPs that are close to each other on a
    chromosome are usually inherited together (because of limited recombination) forming ‘haplotypes’.
  • A haplotype is an arbitrarily long stretch of DNA characterized by particular alleles at the SNP
    positions in that sequence.
  • Current technologies allow many SNPs to be genotyped simultaneously
95
Q

SNP Chips are used to genotype large numbers of SNPs. Explain why?

A
  • ‘SNP chips’, aka microarrays, are designed to allow many (up to ~1- million) SNPs to be genotyped at
    once.
  • Use DNA hybridization-based assay to determine genotypes at known SNPs.
  • Have become the general method of choice for rapidly screening thousands - ~million SNPs (loci) at
    once.
  • Will likely be eventually supplanted by super-cheap genome sequencing.
96
Q

What is/are genome-wide association (GWAS)?

A
  • Aim is to find genetic links (predictors) to diseases (or traits).
  • Look for SNPs that have alleles correlated with presence of disease/trait.
  • Many diseases/traits are influenced by many genes and
    the environment.
  • Need to survey many SNPs, and many individuals.
97
Q

Sometimes the genetic basis of a trait is simple..how so?

A
  • Some diseases/traits are entirely or mostly determined by a single gene.
  • Examples: cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia…ear wax type!
  • A single gene polymorphism strongly determines how much fat is in ear wax…and whether it is ‘wet’ or ‘dry’
  • Same gene polymorphism influences amount of fatty molecules in sweat.

Cool example:
- During COVID pandemic, it was discovered that some Neanderthal genetic markers influence resistance to COVID

98
Q

Define CRISPR-CAS. CRISPR and or CAS meaning?

A
  • bacterial defence against foreign DNA now used by molecular biologists as a genetic engineering tool
  • CRISPR = Clustered Regularly Spaced Palindromic Repeats
  • CAS = CRISPR ASsociated proteins
99
Q

What else do you know about CRISPR

A
  • First discovered in 1987; but function as a defence
    mechanism against foreign DNA (bacteriophages &
    plasmids) only discovered in 2005.
  • Designed to target specific DNA molecules, comparable to adaptive immune systems of vertebrates.
  • Found in 50% of bacterial species, and 90% of archaea.
  • CRISPR-CAS systems occur in many different versions, but much interest has focused on CRISPR-Cas9 type
100
Q

How does CRISPR immunity work? Outline steps and three components.

A

I. Spacer Acquisition (aka ‘adaptation’)
II. Expression of crRNAs
III. Interference

Three components:
A. Cas9 enzyme
B. crRNA
C. tracr RNA

101
Q

What is the Protospacer Adjacent Motif (PAM) or PAM site?

A

NGG (N = any nucleotide) next to the spacer sequence

  • Not found in the CRISPR DNA array
  • Simple and common elsewhere
102
Q

Who discovered how CRISPR-Cas9 can be
co-opted for genome editing and engineering? What was the key innovation?

A
  • Jennifer Doudna and Emanuelle Charpentier
  • The key innovation: substitution of chimeric gRNA in place of natural crRNA and tracrRNA

Notes:
- ‘chimeric’ = combination of different things
- tracrRNA = trans- activating CRISPR RNA
- The ~20 bases at the 5’ end of the gRNA are specific to a target sequence in the genome to be edited.
- PAM sequences occur frequently in most genomes

103
Q

Explain what you know about genome editing with CRISPR-Cas

A
  • (s)gRNA designed to target a specific sequence in genome.
  • sgRNA assembles with Cas9 protein to
    form effector complex.
  • Effector complex first finds a PAM, then Cas9 unwinds DNA immediately upstream. If target sequence is present, 20 b 5’ end of sgRNA pairs with it.
  • Cas9 makes double-stranded cut in genome.
  • Cellular DNA repair mechanisms engaged, with 2 possibilities:
    I. Broken ends can be rejoined without
    any template [nonhomologous end
    joining, NHEJ].
    II. Broken ends can be rejoined using a
    template [homology directed repair,
    HDR]
104
Q

What is non-homologous end-joining (NHEJ) ?

A
  • Most common type of repair to double-strand
    break in DNA .
  • No template used.
  • Instead, nucleotides may be randomly inserted or
    deleted as the cleaved ends of the chromosome
    are rejoined.
  • Often results in insertions and deletions (INDELS).
  • But if no INDEL mutation occurs, Cas9 keeps cutting the site until a mutation does occur…
  • Resulting frameshifts lead to non- functional alleles –> gene silencing, ‘knockout’.
105
Q

Explain Homology Directed Repair (HDR)

A
  • Another way to repair double-strand breaks in DNA.
  • Uses same repair enzymes as in crossing over or recombination.
  • Can use a homologous chromosome (sister chromatid) as template.
  • In CRISPR experiments, can inject ‘donor’ DNA (aka ‘guide DNA’) at same time as Cas9-CRISPR to stimulate
    HDR
106
Q

What are the advantages of CRISPR-Cas9

A
  • Relatively cheap and easy.
  • TARGETING! Can design single-guide RNA to target (almost) any sequence desired.
  • Relatively specific.
  • ‘Indels’ created by non-homologous end-joining can create gene knockouts to determine gene function/ phenotype.
  • Can be introduced to intact, living cells (mRNA for Cas9, or intact Cas9 protein, and sgRNA, mRNA translated by cell).
  • Can introduce Cas9 with donor DNA to stimulate HDR (homology-directed repair).
107
Q

What are the two challenges of CRISPR-Cas9

A
  1. Off-target effects - cleavage sometimes not specific
    - A modified Cas9 structure has been created to use
    longer target sequence, but slower acting.
    - Can be hard to control whether NHEJ or HDR is used.
    Germline cells have enhanced homology-directed repair
    (HDR); adding donor template DNA may help.
  2. Mosaicism: not all cells edited, different genomes, so get mosaic effect
    - Delivery of Cas9 not 100% for all cells; challenge for multicellular organisms.
    - Various approaches for delivery: transfection, microinjection, electroporation!
    - Embryo injections at single-cell stage
108
Q

What are two potential uses of CRISPR-mediated genome editing?

A
  1. Basic research (create gene knockouts):
    - Disrupt genes to determine unknown gene functions
  2. Editing (“hacking”) genomes to meet human
    needs/desires:
    - Reversing mutations that cause genetic disorders.
    - Donor organs from animals
    - Improved farm animals (e.g., disease resistance).
    - Domestication of new plants for agriculture.
    - ‘De-extinction’ (recreation) of extinct species.
    - Gene drives to eliminate insect-spread diseases (e.g.
    Malaria)
109
Q

Explain the example in class of designer livestock: e.g. Genome edited pigs.

A
  • In a study published in 2017, Tait-Burkard and
    collaborators used CRISPR-Cas9 to clip out a section of
    CD163 that codes for a single protein domain. The
    receptor, they observed, seemed unperturbed, while
    both of the two problematic PRRSV species were still
    blocked from entry into pig cells in vitro. What’s more,
    the same team reported this year that gene-edited pigs
    don’t become infected when exposed to the virus. “It is a
    complete resistance,” Tait-Burkard says. “It truly is a dead end for the virus.”
  • In another study…Those enzymes, β-glucanase, xylanase, and phytase, break down matter that pigs don’t otherwise digest; the researchers engineered them to be produced in the modified pigs’ salivary glands.

Note: See “Designer Livestock”
- The endeavor was a success. Months after the embryos’ implantations, 33 live piglets were born, eight of which survived to sexual maturity. In a paper published in eLife a few months ago, the scientists report that the transgenic pigs indeed produced less nitrogen and phosphorus in their feces, had a faster growth rate, and boosted their feed conversion—the proportion of food that turns into meat.

110
Q

Explain the application of designer livestock: e.g. Genome edited cattle

A
  • Cattle with dark coat are heat stressed in some
    countries.
  • Some breeds (e.g. Highland) have naturally light
    coats.
  • Introducing light colour gene to dark coated breeds
    (while preserving desirable traits of dark breeds)
    would take many generations of selective breeding.
  • Skin cells from male Holstein Friesian cultured.
  • PMEL (pigment) gene edited with CRISPR.
  • Cloning used to produce embryos, which were implanted in cows.
  • Calves were born with light pigment
111
Q

CRISPR now approved as cure for sickle cell
anemia.. Explain how?

A
  • Sickle cell anemia and beta thalassemia are caused by mutations in gene coding for ‘adult’ form of haemoglobin.
  • Affect 5-7 M people world-wide.
  • Mutation causes red blood cells to ‘sickle’. This confers resistance to malaria, but also causes anemia, pain and tissue damage.
  • In new treatment, blood stem cells are removed, cultured, and gene that codes for ‘off switch’ for fetal haemoglobin is knocked out with CRISPR using NHEJ.
  • Edited stem cells are reintroduced to patient.
  • Cost may be&raquo_space;$1M!

Note:
- Malaria is a life-threatening disease caused by parasites that are transmitted to people through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. It is preventable and curable.
- In 2019, there were an estimated 229 million cases of malaria worldwide.
- The estimated number of malaria deaths stood at 409 000 in 2019.
- Children aged under 5 years are the most vulnerable group affected by malaria; in 2019, they accounted for 67% (274 000) of all malaria deaths worldwide

112
Q

Explain Gene Drives

A
  • A DNA construct contains gRNA sequence, Cas9, a payload gene, and flanking sequences (H1, H2).
  • Once introduced as one copy, it copies itself to homologous chromosome via HDR. After sexual reproduction, heterozygous offspring are converted to individuals homozygous for gene drive construct.
  • In this manner, the payload gene can spread rapidly through the population, because of non-Mendelian inheritance.
  • Could be used to insert gene for resistance to Malaria, or a gene that reduces fertility of mosquito
113
Q

What are four main reasons for cloning DNA in living cells?

A
  • Before PCR, cloning was the only way to copy (‘amplify’) DNA sequences.
  • To make more DNA with high fidelity for further study or manipulation (living cells copy DNA with much more accuracy than PCR).
  • To produce substances of scientific or commercial value from genes (e.g., numerous enzymes, synthetic hormones, etc…).
  • To modify the genomes of plants or animals to introduce new, desired traits.
114
Q

Cloning requires a vector…Plasmids are commonly used as cloning vectors.

A

A plasmid is a stable, self-replicating molecule circular DNA molecule. It contains:
- Origin of replication.
- Selectable markers to identify cells that have taken up the plasmid.
- Unique restriction enzyme cleavage sites.

115
Q

Recall that DNA sequences cut by Type II restriction
endonucleases can be rejoined with ligases…Give examples of Type II Restriction Endonuclease recognition sites & cleavage patterns.

A

ENZYME / SEQUENCE / ENDS

EcoRI / GAATTC 5’ / OVERHANG
HinDIII / A
AGCTT 5’ / OVERHANG
HpaII / CCGG 5’ / OVERHANG
HaeIII / GG
CC / BLUNT
HindII / GTYRAC / BLUNT
PstI / CTGCA
G 3’ / OVERHANG
NotI / GC*GGCCGC 5’ / OVERHANG
* = cleavage site

116
Q

pUC19 is a typical, and commonly used bacterial vector…what else do you remember about it?

A
  • Contains a portion of the lacZ+ gene, with a restriction site ‘linker’ that contains numerous unique restriction enzyme cut sites.
  • [‘unique’ sites = sites found nowhere else on the plasmid]
  • Antibiotic resistance gene ‘ampR’ (for ampicillin)
117
Q

Explain the process of inserting foreign DNA sequence into a plasmid.

A
  • Cut foreign DNA with a restriction enzyme.
  • Cut plasmid with same restriction enzyme.
  • Mix cut foreign DNA and cut plasmid DNA.
  • Use DNA ligase to seal sugar-phosphate bonds.
118
Q

Explain the process of transforming bacteria &
selecting for recombinants?

A
  • ‘Competent’ bacteria are E. coli made receptive to transformation by chemical or electrical treatment.
  • They are also ‘lacZ-’, meaning they lack the portion of the lacZ gene that is present in the plasmid.
  • Ligated plasmids containing DNA inserts are used to transform competent cells.
  • Transformed bacteria are plated out on agar media containing ampicillin, and X-gal (artificial substrate for β-
    galactosidase).
  • Bacteria with no plasmid: do not grow (no antibiotic resistance!).
  • Bacteria with non-recombinant plasmid: produce B-galactosidase, resulting in blue colonies.
  • Bacteria with recombinant plasmids: (lacZ gene is disrupted by insert) do not produce B-galactosidase, resulting in white colonies.
119
Q

What else do you know about bacterial expression vectors being used to make gene products?

A
  • Include operon and regulatory sequences to allow expression of genes in bacteria.
  • Good for production of many enzymes, especially those that originate from bacteria. E.g., Taq DNA polymerase, commercially available restriction enzymes, etc.
  • Not good for gene products that require post-translational modification, as occurs with many
    eukaryotic proteins (eukaryotic cells, such as yeast used to make these gene products).
120
Q

The creation of trans-genic Atlantic Salmon…Explain everything about it.

A
  • In 1989, researchers at Memorial University created 1st transgenic salmon. Combined growth hormone gene (cDNA) from Chinook Salmon with promoter and terminator sequences for antifreeze gene from Ocean
    Pout.
  • Chinook Salmon growth hormone (GH) similar to Atlantic Salmon GH (95% amino acid (aa) identity, 98% aa similarity).
  • Ocean Pout antifreeze promoter shown to be constitutively active in Atlantic Salmon, in contrast to normal GH promoter in salmon, which is only active in response to environmental cues (e.g., day length).
  • Gene construct injected directly into salmon eggs. Some salmon resulting from this procedure had accelerated growth.
  • Further breeding showed Ocean Pout promoter-Chinook GH construct was stably integrated into Atlantic Salmon genome, allowing creation of a strain that constitutively expresses Chinook Salmon GH.
  • The gene construct was found to have rearranged itself inside the Atlantic Salmon genome. Part of the promoter region moved to a downstream position (Figure 1b). The fragmented promoter still worked, but at a slightly lower level than unfragmented promoter.
  • A company, AquaBounty was formed, and transgenic Atlantic Salmon trademarked as AquAdvantage Salmon.
121
Q

AquAdvantage salmon have been approved for sale in U.S

A
  • Several measures taken to reduce risk of transgenic salmon escaping and interbreeding with wild salmon.
  • Farmed salmon will be triploids, made by pressure treating eggs. Triploid females are sterile. Males can produce sperm, but this risk controlled by using ‘neomales’: sex-reversed females created by methyl testosterone treatment. All offspring will be females.
  • Salmon are grown in closed systems on land, instead of net pens in the ocean. This is economically feasible because the fish grow so much faster than normal salmon.
122
Q

__________________ (formerly known as Agrobacterium tumefaciens ) naturally __________ the ______ of higher plants. It can be co-opted to introduce new _____ to plants (i.e., used as a ‘vector’).

A

Rhizobium radiobacter, transforms, DNA, genes

123
Q

Bacillus thuringiensis produces a protein, Bt toxin, lethal to many insects…but what are the benefits of this?

A
  • toxicity specific to some insects, not toxic to humans
    & other animals, biodegradable.
  • Bt gene has been transferred to many plants using R. radiobacter
124
Q

Explain the general approach to using R. radiobacter to introduce foreign DNA into plants?

A
  1. First, cloned Bt gene into an E. coli plasmid to produce large amounts of the gene sequence for later use.
  2. Used restriction enzymes to produce DNA sequences containing varying portions of the Bt genes. These were ligated to a neo gene (confers resistance to kanamycin).
  3. Constructs inserted into an expression vector
    (contained promotor and poly(A) consensus sequences
    needed for proper gene expression in plant cells)
  4. neo+Bt-containing plasmids used to transform R. radiobacter* bacteria. Recombination between expression vector and Ti plasmid occurred inside the bacterial cells.
  5. Tobacco plant cells infected with transformed R. radiobacter* bacteria. Whole plants regenerated from
    plant cells. Recombinant plants screened for
    Kanamycin resistance. (kanamycin is normally toxic to plants)
  6. Plants fed to tobacco hornworms to evaluate toxicity.
  7. Most-insect toxic plants had ~2/3 of the Bt gene inserted; full length gene was not effective (perhaps not well expressed by plant). Further breeding demonstrated that Bt gene was stably integrated in plant genome. Similar approach used for other plant species (e.g., cotton, tomatoes, corn…)
125
Q

Culumulating everything we have learned in this section, what makes up the molecular toolbox?

A

Molecular toolbox
- Restriction endonucleases(REs) repurposed as DNA scissors.
- Ligases allow DNA molecules (from different sources) cut by REs to be recombined to produce novel recombinant DNA, including plasmids & other vectors that can transform other organisms.
- PCR is a convenient way to make modest amounts of a particular DNA sequencing, but when large amounts of DNA, or the products of genes (enzymes, proteins) are required, cloning is best.
- PCR also routinely used to check success of experiments.
- Gel electrophoresis used routinely in combination with RE cleavage or PCR to check the success of cloning/transformation experiments.