Unit 2 - Active Recall Flashcards

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1
Q

Alfred Hersey and Martha Chase - 1952

A

Demonstrated that DNA not protein is transmitted or
passed on to progeny.

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2
Q

Erwin Chargaff - 1948

A

Analyzed the nucleotide composition of
DNA - A=T; G=C.

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3
Q

Franklin & Willams - 1953

A

Watson & Crick devise the secondary structure

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4
Q

Distinguish purines (A&G) from pyrimidines (C&T)?

A

Purines
- Double carbon-nitrogen ring with four nitrogen atoms
- Bigger
- Adenine and Guanine in both DNA and RNA

Pyrimindines
- Single carbon-nitrogen ring with two nitrogen atoms
- Smaller
- Cytosine in both DNA and RNA, Uracil only in RNA, Thymine only in DNA

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5
Q

Basic structure of the nucleotide?

A
  • BASE A, G, C or T: Attached to sugar 1’ carbon
  • PHOSPHATE GROUP: attached to sugar 5’ carbon
  • DEOXYRIBOSE SUGAR: 5 carbon sugar OH at 3’ carbon
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6
Q

DNA vs RNA

A

DNA
- Deoxyribonucleotide

RNA
- Ribonucleotide
- use a RIBOSE sugar
- uses the pyrimidine base uracil instead of thymine

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7
Q

Recall all of the history of the discovery of DNA

A
  • Rosalind Franklin & Maurice Wilkins, using x-ray
    diffraction, determined that DNA was a helix of
    constant diameter.
  • Nucleotide structure & Erwin Chargaff’s rule
    provided information on base pairing and
    positioning of the nucleotides within the helix.
  • James Watson and Francis Crick used model
    building techniques developed by Linus Pauling.
    Watson and Crick initially favored a model with
    bases on outside. Pauling also favored a base-out
    model, but with 3 strands.
  • Franklin pointed out that phosphates on the
    inside would make molecule unstable, hence
    phosphates were on the outside. Watson and
    Crick using Franklin’s data proposed the structure
    for DNA.
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8
Q

What do you know about DNAs double helix structure?

A
  • The backbone of each DNA strand is a repeating deoxyribose sugar-phosphate polymer
  • The planar (flat) bases stack on top of each other, perpendicular to the helix axis
  • The sequences of bases in the two strands are determined by hydrogen bonding between adenine and thymine or guanine and cytosine
  • The B-DNA structure is a right-handed helix with 10 base pairs per rotation of the helix
  • Two grooves: major and minor
    groove.
  • Structure does not depend on any particular sequence, structure is more conserved than sequence.
  • The strands of DNA are anti-parallel, spiraling around the helix axis in opposite directions
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9
Q

How do you melt or denature DNA? What does this do?

A
  • “Melting” is the separation of two DNA strands.
  • Separation is reversible (renature).
  • Process allows artificial hybrid molecules to form (strands from a different sources).
  • Ways to “melt” or denature DNA: increase temperature; reduce salt concentration; increase pH; solvents
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10
Q

Melting temperature (Tm) of DNA?

A
  • Melting temperature (Tm) by definition is the
    temperature at which one half of the DNA duplex will
    dissociate to become single stranded and
    indicates the duplex stability.
  • DNA melting or denaturation can be monitored by measuring absorbance.
  • As the DNA duplex separates - absorbance increases (hyperchromic shift).
  • Tm is an indication of the stability of the hybridized DNA molecule.
  • The higher the Tm the more stable the DNA helix.
  • The higher the GC content (% G+C), the higher melting
    temperature.
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11
Q

Why does salt affect melting temperature?

A
  • The higher the salt concentration of the solution, the higher melting temperature.
  • The repulsion between the negatively charged phosphate backbones destabilizes the double helix.
  • The negative charges are shielded by salt ions (e.g. Na+) in the solution, this stabilizes the helix and increase
    the melting temperature.
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12
Q

What can you do using known melting temperature?

A
  1. Classify organism e.g. bacteria, because the GC content in the DNA is species specific.
  2. Rare gene mutations can be detected because mutated DNA sequences melt at different temperatures than ‘normal’ ranges.
  3. Process of DNA melting plays an important role in molecular biology techniques, e.g. polymerase chain reaction and southern blotting.
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13
Q

Melting temperature constant?

A

Tm = 81.5 + 16.6 log[M] + 0.41(%GC) - 675/L

Note:
- M = molar concentration of ions in solvent..example [Na+] = 100 mM = 0.1M
- %GC = percentage of G’s + C’s
- L = length of DNA measured in base pairs (bp)
- Tm depends on ionic strength of buffer, GC content, and length of DNA

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14
Q

Explain the Meselson and Stahl Experiment?

A
  • Grew E. coli on 15N medium for many generations.
  • Switched some cells to 14N medium.
  • Used equilibrium density gradient centrifugation to
    determine isotope composition of DNA.
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15
Q

What is semi-conservative replication?

A
  • Separation of the two DNA strands of the parental molecule.
  • Each parental strand serves as a template that determines the order of nucleotides along the
    newly synthesized strand.
  • Each “daughter” DNA molecule consists of one parental strand and one newly synthesized strand
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16
Q

What are the requirements for DNA synthesis?

A

1) Template of single-stranded DNA (ssDNA)
2) All four deoxyribonucleoside 5’ triphosphates (dNTPs)
3) DNA polymerase and other
enzymes and proteins
4) Free 3’-OH group

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17
Q

What do you recall about DNA polymerase?

A
  • Uses deoxyribonucleoside 5’ triphosphates (dNTPs).
  • Catalyze phosphodiester bonds.
  • Has an absolute requirement for a preexisting 3’ OH.
  • Cannot make a DNA chain de novo. In other words it can only extend a chain
  • Always elongates chain in the 5’ to 3’ direction.
  • Template strand is always read in the 3’ to 5’
    direction.
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18
Q

Describe synthesis at the replication fork.

A
  • Replication begins at a specific nucleotide sequence - origin of replication.
  • Synthesis takes place within a replication bubble.
  • Both DNA strands are synthesized simultaneously at the replication fork.
  • Replication is semidiscontinuous
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19
Q

Compare circular and linear genome modes of replication?

A

CIRCULAR GENOMES
1. Theta replication (bacteria, e.g. E. Coli)
- Single replicon (for bacteria = entire chromosome).
- Bidirectional replication – two replication forks within a replication bubble.
- Replication is semidiscontinuous at both replication forks.

  1. Rolling circle replication (viruses)
    - No replication bubble.
    - Uncoupling of the replication of the two strands of the DNA molecule.
    - Replication is continuous

LINEAR GENOMES
3. Linear replication (eukaryotes)
- Multiple replicons, origins of replication, replication bubbles.
- Bidirectional replication – two replication
forks within a replication bubble.
- Replication is semi discontinuous at both
replication forks.

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20
Q

How does DNA replication occur in prokaryotes?

A
  1. Initiation
    - Initiator proteins bind to the origin of replication (oriC).
    - A short section of DNA is unwound and proteins bind to the ssDNA.
    - Single-strand-binding proteins keep DNA strands separated.
    - Helicase binds to lagging strand template; breaks hydrogen bonds.
  2. Unwinding
    - DNA helicase separates the two DNA strands by breaking the hydrogen bonds
    - DNA gyrase (a topoisomerase) travels ahead of the
    replication fork and alleviates supercoiling caused
    by unwinding.
  3. Elongation
    - Short stretch of RNA nucleotides (RNA primer) is
    synthesized by Primase.
    - RNA primer provides a free 3’OH for the DNA polymerase to use.
    - The RNA primer is later removed and replaced with DNA nucleotides.
  4. Termination
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21
Q

Overall DNA synthesis

A
  • Connects Okazaki fragments by sealing nicks in the sugar–phosphate backbone.
  • Unwinds the double helix by breaking the hydrogen
    bonding between the two strands at the replication
    fork.
  • Reduces coiling that builds up ahead of the
    replication fork as a result of unwinding.
  • Binds to origin of replication and causes a short
    section of DNA helix to unwind.
  • Prevents the formation of secondary structures
    within single-stranded DNA
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22
Q

DNA primase requires a _____
template and _____ nucleotides to carry out primer
synthesis.

A
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23
Q

What do you know about E.coli DNA polymerases?

A
  • five DNA polymerase in E. coli (Pol I to Pol V)
    (see table 12.3)
  • All five have 5’ to 3’ polymerase activity.
  • Some polymerase have exonuclease activity (to remove
    a newly incorporated nucleotide that does not match the
    template strand)
  • Pol III is the principle replication enzyme.
  • Pol I removes and replaces RNA primers with DNA.
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24
Q

How are RNA nucleotides replaced?

A
  • DNA Pol I 5’ -> 3’ exonuclease activity removes RNA primers starting at the 5’ ends.
  • DNA Pol I 5’ -> 3’ polymerase activity fills in the gap with DNA nucleotides.
  • DNA ligase seals the nick in the sugar phosphate
    backbone.
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25
Q

What are the three eukaryotic DNA polymerases you need to recall?

A

DNA polym α: initation of nuclear DNA synthesis and DNA repair (has primase activity)

DNA polym δ: lagging strand synthesis of nuclear DNA, DNA repair, and translesion DNA synthesis

DNA polym ε: leading-strand synthesis

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26
Q

Describe how eukaryotic DNA replication is initiated?

A

Controlled initiation:
1) An origin must be selected or “licensed” by replication licensing factors.
2) Origin is then activated and replication begins.
3) Once activated/replicated an origin is deactivated.

Note:
- Multiple origins are used during DNA synthesis
- Origins of replication are activated in clusters (20-80
at a time). Each cluster is known as a replication unit.

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27
Q

Explain nucleosome disassembly and reassembly?

A
  • Eukaryotic DNA is packaged into chromatin.
  • Need to disassemble, produce more histones and
    reassemble nucleosomes.
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28
Q

What is the problem and solution for replication of 3’ ends?

A

PROBLEM
Telomeres:
- are the ends of linear chromosomes.
- are made up of G-rich short repeated sequence.
- stabilize chromosomes.

Note:
- Each round of replication leaves up to 200 bp DNA
unreplicated at the 3’ end.

SOLUTION
Telomerase
- Specialized reverse transcriptase.
- Extends the end of the parental DNA by RNA-templated DNA synthesis.
- Responsible for the replication of the chromosome ends
- Conclusion: Telomerase extends the DNA, filling in the
gap due to the removal of the RNA primer

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29
Q

What is the structure of RNA?

A

RNA is usually single-stranded but it can fold into complex secondary structures called
hairpin-loops and stem-loops.

Loops = bases don’t match

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30
Q

Describe transcription steps

A
  1. Initiation does not require a primer: chain synthesis begins de novo
  2. Ribonucleotides are added to the 3’ - OH group of the growing RNA chain.
  3. DNA unwinds at the front of the transcription bubble and
  4. rewinds

Notes:
- SELECTIVE synthesis of RNA.
- Not all DNA is transcribed in a given cell.
- Synthesis is complementary and antiparallel to the
DNA template strand.

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31
Q

What is required for transcription?

A

1) DNA template
2) RNA nucleotides (rNTP’s)
3) RNA polymerase and other proteins.

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32
Q

RNA is transcribed from a DNA template. How? What direction read or synthesized?

A
  • RNA is synthesized from one of the two DNA strands.
  • Either DNA strand can be used as the template strand.
    ➢Template is always read in the 3’ -> 5’ direction.
    ➢RNA is synthesized in the 5’ -> 3’ direction.
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33
Q

Describe the transcriptional unit

A
  • Region of DNA that codes for an RNA molecule and the sequences necessary for transcription.
  • Three critical regions:
    i. PROMOTER (upstream of start site, adjacent to gene)
    ii. RNA CODING REGION (downstream of start site)
    iii. TERMINATION SITE (downstream of start site)
  • Only the RNA coding region is transcribed.
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34
Q

What is a promoter again?

A

The PROMOTER is a DNA sequence that is recognized and bound by the transcription apparatus (RNA polymerase plus other proteins). The promoter
indicates the direction of transcription. Binding of the RNA polymerase to the promoter orients the enzyme towards the start site.

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35
Q

Describe prokaryotic transcription.

A

1.Initiation – assembly of transcription apparatus on the
promoter and begins synthesis of RNA
2.Elongation – DNA is threaded through RNA
polymerase, unwinds the DNA, adds new nucleotides to the 3’ end of the growing RNA strand
3.Termination – the recognition of the end of
transcription

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36
Q

Describe the prokaryotic RNA polymerase

A
  • Many bacteria have multiple types of sigma factors, which help in the recognition of multiple classes of promoters.
  • Without sigma, core enzyme initiates transcription randomly
  • Holoenzyme is the complete enzyme complex composed of the core RNA polymerase and the sigma factor.
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37
Q

What do you know about the bacterial promoters and consensus sequences?

A
  • Promoters contain short stretch of DNA that are conserved among promoters of different genes. These are called consensus sequences.
  • Most common encountered sequences (or elements) are at -10 (Pribnow box) and -35 nucleotides upstream of the start site .
  • Binding of transcription apparatus to these sequence orients the RNA polymerase towards the start site.
  • 35 and -10 elements are not identical in all promoters.
  • Each is a variation on a theme, i.e. consensus sequence.
  • Variation affects the strength of the promoter. (strength = frequency of transcription)
  • recA is a strong promoter.
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38
Q

Compare up and down mutations.

A

down mutations
- base substitutions that make the sequence less similar to the consensus sequences reduce the rate of transcription

up mutations
- sequence becomes more similar to the consensus sequences

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39
Q

How does prokaryotic transcription termination occur?

A
  • Transcription ends after a terminator sequence is transcribed.
  • Two major types of terminators in bacteria.
    i. Rho-dependent (requires Rho protein)
    ii. Rho-independent (also called intrinsic terminator)
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40
Q

Explain all that you know about Rho-dependent terminators.

A

1) Rho binds to RNA upstream of the terminator.
2) RNA polymerase pauses when it reaches the terminator sequence and Rho catches up.
3) Rho unwinds DNA-RNA hybrid using helicase
activity.

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41
Q

Describe the eukaryotic RNA polymerase II promoters. Compare the core promoter to the regulatory promoter.

A

CORE PROMOTER
- Extend upstream/downstream of transcription start site.
- Minimal sequence required for accurate transcription initiation.
- Includes a number of consensus sequences (common elements: TFIIB, TATA, Initiator and DCE) for transcription factor binding.

REGULATORY PROMOTER
- Located upstream of the core promoter, exact location can be variable.
- Transcriptional activator proteins bind to consensus
sequences and affect the rate of transcription.

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42
Q

Describe the assembly of the Basal Transcription Apparatus?

A
  1. TFIID binds to TATA box in core promoter
  2. preassembled holoenzyme consisting of RNA polymerase, transcription factors, and mediators all bind to TFIID
  3. transcription activator proteins bind to sequences in enhancers
  4. DNA loops out, allowing proteins bound to enhancer to interact with basal transcription apparatus
  5. activator proteins bind to sequences in regulatory promoter and interact with basal transcription apparatus through mediator
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43
Q

How does eukaryotic transcription termination occur?

A
  • Transcription does not end at a specific sequence.
  • Termination requires cleavage of the mRNA at a specific site.
  • A 5’->3’ exonuclease degrades the remaining mRNA terminating transcription.
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44
Q

What are the three processes RNAi does?

A
  1. Condenses chromatin to supress transcription,
    mRNA is not made.
  2. The mRNA is destroyed before it is translated into protein.
  3. Inhibit translation, protein is not made.
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45
Q

Describe the origins of miRNA

A
  • The precursors of miRNAs, called primary miRNA (pri-miRNA), are encoded by the genome. The relevant genomic regions are transcribed by RNA Pol II.
  • In the nucleus, Pri-miRNA is cleaved by Drosha (RNAse III enzyme) into pre-miRNA, a stem-loop structure
  • In the cytosol, Dicer cleaves the pre-miRNA into 19–25 nucleotide miRNA:miRNA duplex with no stem-loop
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46
Q

Compare siRNA and miRNA

A

siRNA
- Double-stranded RNA that contains up to 100 nucleotides
- Structure 21-23 nucleotide RNA duplex with 2 nucleotides 3‘ overhang
- Fully complementary to mRNA
- only one mRNA target
- Endonucleolytic cleavage of mRNA

miRNA
- Precursor miRNA (pre-miRNA) that contains 70-100 nucleotides with interspersed mismatches and hairpin structure
- 19-25 nucleotide RNA duplex usually with 2 nucleotides
3’overhang
- Partially complementary to mRNA, typically targeting the 3’ untranslated region of mRNA
- Multiple mRNA targets (could be over 100 at the same time)
- Translational repression.. Degradation of mRNA.. Endonucleolytic cleavage of mRNA (when there is a high level of complementary between miRNA and mRNA)

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47
Q

What can you recall about RNAi and transcriptional gene slicing.

A
  • Another role of RNAi is to direct localized repressive
    chromatin formation.
  • Small RNA (siRNA) duplexes are loaded into a nuclear
    form of RISC, called the RNA-induced transcriptional
    silencing (RITS) complex.
  • Similar to RISC, RITS are effector complexes that are
    targeted to homologous sequences by base-pairing
    interactions involving the guide strand of the small RNA.
  • RITS mediates gene silencing via heterochromatin
    formation.
48
Q

Changes in chromatin structure affect the expression of eukaryotic genes. Describe chromatin structures and how it is used.

A
  • Heterochromatin is the condensed inactive form of
    chromatin.
  • Euchromatin is the open and active form of chromatin.
  • When the chromatin structure is open, transcription
    factors access the DNA and initiate transcription.
  • Histone modification occurs at multiple sites by
    acetylation, methylation and phosphorylation.

Note:
- siRNAs in RITS can base-pair with RNAs that are transcribed from their target DNA. RITS acts as a recruiter of modifying enzymes to specific DNA regions.
- Enzymes, now catalyse the methylation of histone tails or cytosine bases in DNA

49
Q

Why does RNAi matter?

A
  • Approximately, 30% of human genes thought to be
    regulated by RNAi; thousands of genes code for
    miRNAs.
  • Very important for regulating gene expression during
    embryo development.
  • Important research tool for ‘knocking out’ (silencing)
    particular genes.
  • Lead to major advances in the treatment of human
    diseases.
50
Q

How does cancer treatment work alongside RNAi?

A
  • Combination approach of targeted delivery of siRNA and chemo drugs to the cytoplasm of a cancer cell.
  • The siRNA-containing nanoparticle is taken into the cell by endocytosis. The nanoparticle unpacks and the siRNA is released.
51
Q

Describe colinearity between genes and proteins (Crick 1958).

A
  • Continuous sequence of nucleotides encodes a continuous sequence of amino acids.
  • Number of nucleotides in the gene is proportional to the number on amino acids in the protein.
52
Q

What is a gene?

A

A gene includes DNA sequence that codes for all exons,
introns, and those sequences at the beginning and end of the RNA that are not translated into a protein.

53
Q

Compare and contrast prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

A

Prokaryotic protein-coding genes:
- usually found in a contiguous array in the DNA called an Operon. Operon operates as a unit utilizing a single transcription start site for multiple genes.

Eukaryotic protein-coding genes:
- each gene is transcribed from its own start site to yield a pre-mRNA that is processed into a functional mRNA encoding a single protein.

Note:
In prokaryotic DNA genes contain little to no noncoding gaps (introns) and the DNA is transcribed directly into colinear mRNA, which then is translated into protein while the mRNA is still being produced.

54
Q

What are the modifications made on mRNAs?

A

Messenger RNAs (mRNAs), which encode the amino acid sequences of proteins, are modified after transcription.

Modifications:
1) Capping of the 5’ end
2) Polyadenylation of the 3’ end
3) Splicing (removal) of introns

55
Q

Explain what you know about the 5’ end cap? Why is it necessary?

A
  • A methylated guanine nucleotide is attached to the
    5′-end of the pre-mRNA.
  • Methyl groups (CH3) are added

More detail:
- A methylated guanine (G) nucleotide is joined to
the pre-mRNA by an unusual 5’-5’ linkage involving 3 phosphate group
- Modification is necessary for efficient initiation of translation, transport of mRNA from nucleus, protects mRNA from degradation, and enhances RNA splicing.

56
Q

Explain what you know about the polyadenylation of the 3’ end? Why is it necessary?

A
  • around 50 to 250 adenine (A) nucleotides are added to the 3′-end of the pre-mRNA.
  • Modification is necessary for efficient translation and protects mRNA from degradation.
57
Q

What is splicing? What does it require?

A
  • Splicing – removal of introns from pre-mRNA (ie: involves breaking and reforming of bonds)
  • Requires three consensus sequences in the pre-mRNA:
    5’ splice site, 3’ splice site and branch point.
  • Consensus sequences are used by the SPLICEOSOME to
    recognize and remove introns.

More detail:
- Introns are removed in the form of a lariat and exons are spliced together by two successive reactions.

58
Q

Where does splicing occur? How does the needed location where splicing happens assemble?

A
  • Splicing – takes place on a SPLICEOSOME
  • A Ribonucleoprotein complex [300 proteins and 5 small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs)].
  • Contains five snRNPs (small nuclear ribonuclear proteins)…:

snRNA + protein = snRNP
U1, U2, U4, U5 and U6

  • snRNPs are central to the activity of the spliceosome.
  • The snRNAs of U1 and U2 base pair with the consensus sequence at the 5’ splice site and the branch
    point site of the pre-mRNA.
59
Q

What do you recall about RNA polymerase II?

A
  • Functional coupling of mRNA transcription and mRNA processing by RNA polymerase II (Pol II).
  • Coupling of events are mediated by the ‘tail’ or C-
    terminal repeat domain (CTD) of the largest subunit of
    Pol II.
  • mRNA processing enzymes are recruited to the CTD of
    Pol II during transcription.
60
Q

When is the 5’ cap added? Are enzymes recruited? What RNA manages coupling?

A
  • CAP is added as soon as the 5’ end of the pre-mRNA emerges from the polymerase.
  • Capping enzymes are recruited to the C-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase (Pol) II during the early stages of transcription.
  • RNAP II mediates the functional coupling of transcription to splicing by directing the nascent pre-mRNA into spliceosome assembly
61
Q

How are splicing proteins recruited to the RNA?

A
  • Assembly of the spliceosome occur co-transcriptionally,
    while the RNA polymerase (Pol II) is still actively transcribing the template.
  • Components of the spliceosome are recruited to
    the RNA while transcription is occurring.
  • The CTD of Pol II interacts directly with splicing proteins
    to recruit them to the RNA.
62
Q

How is transcription terminated? Polyadenylation?

A
  • Polyadenylation factors are recruited to the CTD of Pol II.
  • RNA is cleaved at the Poly(A) 3’ cleavage site.
  • Degradation of the remaining RNA by Rat1
    terminates transcription.
63
Q

How many different ways can pre-mRNA be processed?

A

A single pre-mRNA can be processed in different ways to
produce different mRNA molecules thereby translating to different proteins…Ways to do this….

1) Alternative splicing: pre-mRNA can be spliced in
different ways.
2) Alternative PolyA site: PolyA tail can be added at
different 3’ cleavage sites.

64
Q

Describe what you recall about alternative splicing?

A
  • Each mRNA produced has a different combination of
    exons.
  • Each mRNA when translated produces a
    different protein (isoforms of protein).

quick overview?
1. Exon skipped
2. Intron retention
3. Alternative 5’ or 3’ splice site
4. Mutually exclusive exons

65
Q

Describe what you recall about the alternative PolyA site?

A
  • Pre-mRNA contains multiple 3’ cleavage sites.
  • The 3’ cleavage site used determines the length of
    the mRNA transcript.
  • Each mRNA when translated produces
    similar proteins of different size.
66
Q

What do you recall about mRNA processing and diseases?

A
  • Many genetic disease arise from mutations that affect pre-mRNA splicing.
    i. Affect use of splice sites
    ii. Affect the splicing machinery
    iii. Affect regulators of alternative splicing
  • About 15% of all single nucleotide mutations (point mutations) that cause diseases alter pre-mRNA splicing.
  • Mutations that affect the splice sites may….
    i. disrupt the consensus sequence so that the spliceosome can no longer recognize the 5’ or 3’ splice site.
    ii. create a new 5’ or 3’ splice site.
    iii. initiate usage of an existing cryptic 5’ or 3’ splice site.
  • Mutations can lead to exon skipping (complete or partial) or intron retention (complete or partial). This result in gene loss of function either by generating a nonfunctional protein or by altering the stability of the
    mRNA (mRNA is degraded and no protein is made).
67
Q

How do we edit RNA?

A

Occasionally a gene is found with a sequence of
nucleotides that does not exactly match that of its RNA
product. Editing alters the coding information of the of mRNA transcripts.
Ways to do this…….

1) Substitution Editing (base conversion)
2) Insertion Editing

68
Q

Explain substitution editing

A

Chemical alteration of individual nucleotides by specific enzymes.
Example C is converted to U.

69
Q

Explain insertion editing

A
  • Addition of U nucleotides occurs by cleavage of the
    mRNA, insertion of the U nucleotide, and ligation of
    the ends.
  • The reactions are catalyzed by a complex of enzymes
    under the direction of guide RNA (gRNA).
  • gRNAs base-pair as best they can with the mRNA to
    be edited and serve as a template for the addition
    of nucleotides.
70
Q

Summarize everything you remember about post-translational processing and translation generally?

A
  • Eukaryotic RNA is processed before export to the cytoplasm and translation.
  • A modified nucleotide is added to 5’ end (capping) and a polyA tail is added to the 3’ end (polyadenylation) of the pre-mRNA.
  • Introns (noncoding sequences) are removed from pre-mRNA and exons (coding sequences) are spliced together by two transesterification reactions to generate the mature mRNA. Splicing takes place in the large ribonucleoprotein complex, the spliceosome.
  • Alternative processing of a pre-mRNA produces different types of mRNA, resulting in the production of different types of proteins from a single gene. Increases protein diversity.
  • RNA editing can also alter the protein product of a gene by changing the nucleotide sequence of the mRNA. Nucleotides are substituted, deleted or inserted.
71
Q

Describe the composition of amino acids?

A

Each amino acid consists of a central carbon
atom (C α) attached to..
(1) an amino group (NH3+)
(2) a carboxyl group (COO−)
(3) a hydrogen atom (H)
(4) a radical group, designated R.

72
Q

What is a codon vs triplet code?

A
  • Three consecutive ribonucleotides (CODON) specifies one amino acid.
  • In DNA the 3 nucleotides are called as Triplet Code
  • In mRNA the 3 nucleotides are called as CODON

Why it had to be a triplet code?
- 20 amino acids
- 4 nucleic acid bases
- Number of possible codons = 4n (n = # nucleotides per codon)
–> 1 base not enough, 2 bases not enough, 3 bases → 64 possible codons

73
Q

There are 64 codons, how do you distinguish their roles?

A

61 sense codons; these code for amino acids.
- Includes a start codon (AUG)
- Initiates translation
- Codes for the amino acid methionine (MET).

3 stop or nonsense codons
- UAA, UAG and UGA
- Terminates translation
- Does not code for amino acids.

74
Q

There are multiple codons per amino acid except
_____________ and ________________.

A

Methionine (Met) and Tryptophan (Trp)

75
Q

What does it mean by degeneracy in the code? What are synonymous codons? Is the code ambiguous?

A

Some amino acids are specified by more than one codon - degeneracy.
- Codons that specify the same amino acids are synonymous codons.
- The code is degenerate but NOT AMBIGUOUS!!!
A codon NEVER specifies more than one amino acid.

76
Q

What are the types of degeneracy?

A
  1. Partial – changing the third base in a codon
    from a purine to a purine (G <-> A), or from a pyrimidine to a pyrimidine (C <-> U).
  2. Complete – changing the third base in a
    codon to any of the four bases, e.g. GGU, GGC, GGA, or GGG, all code for glycine.
77
Q

In what two ways is the degeneracy of genetic code accommodated?

A
  1. Isoaccepting tRNA: tRNAs bind (‘accept’) same
    amino acid, but recognize different codons (by using
    different anticodons).
    - 30 different tRNAs, but only 20 amino acids!
    - All tRNAs are used! So different tRNAs accept the same
    amino acid -> ISOACCEPTING.
    - Example: tRNAs with anticodon 3’ AGG 5’ and 3’ AGU 5’
    both accept serine.
  2. Wobble effect: allows same aa-tRNA to pair with
    more than one codon.
    - 61 sense codons, but only 30 anticodons (30 tRNAs).
    - All 61 codons are used! So the same anticodon base pairs with different codons.
    - Example: tRNA with anticodon 3’ AGG 5’ base pair with codons 5’ UCC 3’ and 5’ UCU 3’.
78
Q

Go into detail about what you recall about the wobble effect?

A
  • Wobble occurs between the 1st (5′) base of an anticodon of t-RNA (Wobble Position) and the 3rd (3′) base of a codon of mRNA.
  • The 1st (5’) base of a anticodon is allowed to move slightly “wobble” from its normal position to form a non-Watson & Crick base pair with the codon.
  • Wobble at the 5’ end of the anticodon allows variable nucleotide at the 3’ end of the codon, therefore more than one codon for an amino acid.
79
Q

What is the importance of inosine?

A
  • Inosine is an intermediate in the metabolism of purine.
  • Inosine is commonly found in tRNAs and is essential for
    proper translation of the genetic code in wobble base pairs.
80
Q

What are reading frames?

A
  • Reading frame refers to protein-coding region of the mRNA.
  • Specifies a single protein starting and ending at internal sites within the mRNA.
  • All RFs begin with AUG, therefore all proteins begin with Methionine (M).
81
Q

What are the reading frame rules?

A

1) Codons consisting of three nucleotides are read 5’ to 3’.
2) Codons are not overlapping, each base is part of only one codon.
3) No gaps, each base in the coding region of an mRNA is
part of a codon.
4) Message is translated in a reading frame set by the
initiator codon, AUG.

82
Q

How do you know a sequence is an open reading frame?

A
  • An open reading frame is a portion of a RNA molecule that, when translated into amino acids, contains no stop codons.
  • Presence of stop codons in 2 of the above reading frames means they are not open reading frames (ORFs). A long open reading frame is likely part of a gene.
83
Q

How many possible reading frames are there in a DNA sequence? What is the correct frame?

A
  • Six possible reading frames in DNA sequence (3 top, 3 bottom)
  • The correct frame is the reading frame which goes from start to stop
84
Q

Compare point mutations/base substitution to frameshift mutations?

A

Frameshift mutations – Insertion and Deletion
Point mutations or base substitution - alter a single nucleotide

85
Q

What is translation?

A
  • Process of converting genetic information stored in nucleic acid sequences into proteins.
  • Sequences of mRNA are translated into unique sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain (linear order is preserved throughout!)
86
Q

Where does translation occur? How are amino acids attached?

A
  • Translation of an mRNA takes place on a RIBOSOME.
  • The mRNA is read in the 5’ to 3’ direction.
  • Amino acids are attached to the carboxyl (C) terminus of the growing polypeptide chain; polypeptide is made in the amino (N) to carboxyl (C) direction.

Note:
- In bacteria, multiple ribosomes can
simultaneously translate the same mRNA molecule –polyribosome (or polysome)

87
Q

What are the 6 prokaryotic requirements for translation?

A
  1. mRNA template
    - Polycystronic, i.e. multiple ORFs)
  2. tRNAs (transfer RNAs)
    - All tRNA’s from all organisms have a similar structure & attachment site
    - Serves as a link between the genetic code in mRNA and the amino-acid sequence of a protein.
    - Sequence is always 5’-CCA-3’
  3. Amino acids
  4. Ribosomes
    - RNA-protein complex: Ribonucleoprotein
    - Prokaryote version has 3 RNA molecules and 2 sub-units
  5. Many accessory proteins
  6. Energy provided by GTP hydrolysis
88
Q

Explain all that you know about the ribosomes role in translation?

A
  • Directs the synthesis of proteins.
  • Synthesis takes place in the cavity between subunits.
  • Small subunit holds mRNA
  • Growing polypeptide exits through the tunnel in the large subunit.
  • Adds 20 amino acids per second.
  • 3 tRNA binding sites
    A = Aminoacyl binding site
    P = Peptidyl binding site
    E = Exit site
  • tRNA binding site spans large and small subunits, so tRNA anticodon loop can make contact with mRNA.
89
Q

Explain process by which mRNA is translated in ribosome.

A
  • Small subunit holds mRNA so only 1 codon at a time can be read by a tRNA.
  • Amino acid at end of tRNA makes contact with catalytic region of the large subunit that joins amino
    acids together to form peptide bonds.
  • The arm of the tRNA is positioned in such a way as to allow polypeptide chain to exit through a tunnel in
    the back of the ribosome.
  • The growing polypeptide is always attached to a tRNA.

Note:
- Many antibiotics attack translational apparatus (e.g., binding to tRNA sites, blocking exit tunnel)

90
Q

What are the 4 steps in translation?

A
  1. tRNA Charging
  2. Initiation
  3. Elongation
  4. Termination and peptide release
91
Q

Describe tRNA charging? Importance of synthetases?

A
  • Attachment of an amino acid to the tRNA is referred to as tRNA charging.
  • ALL amino acids are attached to the adenine (A) nucleotide in the 3’ end acceptor stem.
  • R group = unique side chain specific to a particular amino acid.
  • Energy required for binding of aa to tRNA supplied by ATP

tRNA+aa = aminoacyl-tRNA
e.g.: aminoacyl-tRNAAla has alanine bound to
tRNA….Could also write Ala-tRNAAla

  • Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase correctly attaches an amino acid to the appropriate tRNA.
  • 20 different aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.
  • Each aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase recognizes one amino acid and attaches it to the correct set of tRNA’s.
92
Q

How does initiation of translation start? What are the requirements?

A

Key Steps:
- Assembly of ribosomal subunits at the translation start site.
- Base pairing of initiator-tRNA anticodon with start site codon in the mRNA.

Requirements:
1) mRNA
2) Small and large ribosome subunit
3) Initiator-tRNA
4) Initiation factors (IFs)
5) Guanosine triphosphate (GTP)

93
Q

Recall initiation of translation in prokaryotes.

A
  • IF-3 binds to the small subunit, preventing the large subunit from binding.
  • Small ribosome subunit bind to the mRNA.
  • 16S rRNA of the small ribosome subunit complementary base pairs with the Shine-Dalgarno sequence.
  • Initiator-tRNA anticodon (3’ UAC 5’) base pairs with mRNA initiation/start codon (5’ AUG 3’).
  • Initiator tRNA is charged with fMet amino acid
    (N-formylmethionine).
  • IF-3 proteins keep the small and large ribosomes separated.
  • IF-1 and 2 facilitates initiator-tRNA binding to the correct site. This forms the 30S initiation
    complex.
  • Initiation factor proteins dissociate and the large ribosome subunits binds. This forms the 70S initiation
    complex.
94
Q

How does elongation (Synthesis of the polypeptide chain) of translation start? What are the requirements?

A

The key steps in elongation are:
1) entry of aa-tRNA into the A site of the ribosome,
2) peptide bond formation,
3) ribosome translocation, and
4) Exit of tRNA from E-site of the ribosome

Requirements
- aa-tRNAs (or charged tRNAs)
- 70S initiation complex
- Elongation factors (EFs)
- GTP

95
Q

Recall what three sites the ribosome has that is used by tRNA?

A

1) A-site (aminoacyl) - accepts the incoming aa-tRNA carrying the next amino acid to be added to the chain.
2) P-site (peptidyl) - holds the tRNA carrying the growing polypeptide.
3) E-site (exit) - discharged tRNA’s leave the ribosome from this site.

96
Q

Describe all that you know about elongation.

A

STEP 1: aa-tRNA binds to A-site
- Incoming aa-tRNA bind to the A site.
- Elongation factors (EF) guides the incoming aa-tRNA to the correct site.
- aa-tRNA anticodon base pairs with the mRNA codon.
- Peptidyl transferase catalyses peptide bond formation.
- Enzyme activity performed by rRNA in the large ribosome subunit (ribozyme).

STEP 2: Peptide bond formation and the release of amino acid from P-site
- Peptide bond formation between amino acid attached to P-site tRNA and amino acid attached to A-site tRNA.
- Peptide bond formation releases the amino acid from the tRNA at the P-site.
- Growing polypeptide now attached to A-site tRNA.
- The ribosome translocates in the 5’ to 3’ direction on the mRNA.

STEP 3: Translocation and exit of E-site tRNA, A-site now open to accept new aa-tRNA
- Translocation facilitated by elongation factors.
- P-site tRNA is now located at E-site, this tRNA exits.
- A-site tRNA now located at the P site.
- A-site is now empty and ready to accept another aa-tRNA.

97
Q

Describe all that you know about the termination of translation.

A
  • Protein synthesis terminates when the ribosome translocates to a stop codon.
  • NO aa-tRNA enters an A site that has a stop codon.
  • Release factor (RF) protein binds to the A site and triggers release of the polypeptide from the P-site tRNA.
98
Q

Contrast translation in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? Recall what translation is like in eukaryotes

A

Comparison:
- Prokaryotic mRNA: Polycystronic, i.e. multiple ORFs
- Eukaryotic mRNA: Monocystronic mRNA, i.e. single ORF

Eukaryotic translation:
- Composition of the eukaryotic ribosome complex is different. (60s + 40s = 80s)
- No consensus sequence for ribosome binding.
- 5’ CAP and 3’ poly(A) tail facilitate ribosome binding.
- Initiation complex scans along mRNA until 1st AUG
codon is encountered.

99
Q

What is an operon? Typical operon organization (PROG)?

A
  • is a group of bacterial structural genes
  • under the control of a single promoter
  • they are transcribed together
  • produce a single mRNA molecule that encodes different proteins.
  • regulates the expression of genes by controlling transcription

PROG?
- Promoter, regulator, operon and genes

100
Q

What does a regulatory gene do? What is a regulatory molecule?

A
  • A regulator gene helps to control the expression of the structural genes of the operon by increasing or decreasing their transcription.
  • Although it affects operon function, the regulator gene is not considered part of the operon.
  • Regulatory Molecule = metabolite (precursor or product of metabolic pathway)
101
Q

Operons have two types of transcriptional control, explain both.

A
  1. Negative control
    - in which a regulatory protein is a repressor, binding to DNA and inhibiting transcription.
  2. Positive control
    - in which a regulatory protein is an activator, binding to DNA and stimulating transcription.
102
Q

Compare inducible and repressible operons.

A

Inducible Operon
- transcription is normally OFF (not taking place)
- When Regulatory Molecule binds to Regulatory Protein = Transcription is Turned ON

Repressible Operon
- transcription is normally ON (taking place)
- When Regulatory Molecule binds to Regulatory Protein = Transcription is Turned OFF

103
Q

Negative Inducible Operons regulate the synthesis of the enzymes economically, explain?

A

they are synthesized only when their substrate (V) is available.

also..
- can use the Product (U) to provide negative feedback … turning off the genes involved in synthesis.

104
Q

The lac operon of E. coli is an example of a negative inducible operon. Explain the regulation of the lac operon?

A
  • The lac operon of E. coli is an example of a negative inducible operon.
  • The enzymes β-galactosidase, permease, and transacetylase are encoded by adjacent structural genes in the lac operon and have a common promoter (lacP).
  • β-Galactosidase - lacZ gene, permease - lacY gene, and transacetylase - lacA gene.
105
Q

Recall everything you remember about lac mutations?

A
  • Jacob and Monod worked out the structure and function of the lac operon by analyzing mutations that affected lactose metabolism.
  • Partial-diploid strains of E. coli were used.
  • Mutations on bacterial DNA and the plasmid showed some parts of lac operon are cis acting (able to control the expression of genes on the same piece of DNA), whereas other parts are trans acting (able to control the expression of genes on other DNA molecules)

MAIN MUTATIONS:
1. Structural-gene mutations
2. Regulator-gene mutations
3. Operator mutations
4. Promoter mutations

106
Q

Describe structural-gene mutations

A
  • Mutations on lacZ or lacY structural genes altered the amino acids and affected the structure of the proteins.
  • Mutations of the lacZ and lacY genes were independent and usually affected only the product of the gene in which the mutation occurred.
  • β-galactosidase and permease were produced normally in the presence of lactose

Note:
- The genotype of a partial diploid is written by separating the genes on each DNA molecule
with a slash

107
Q

Describe regulator-gene mutations

A
  • The partial diploid lacI+ lacZ−/ lacI− lacZ+ produces β-galactosidase only in the presence of lactose because the lacI gene is trans dominant.
  • The partial diploid lacIs IacZ+/ lacI+ lacZ+ fails to produce β-galactosidase in the presence and absence of lactose because the lacIs gene encodes a superrepressor.
107
Q

Describe operator-gene mutations

A

Most mutations in the operator, the binding site for repressor, lead to lower affinity for the repressor and hence less binding. Thus these mutations allow continued transcription (and thus expression) of the lac operon even in the absence of inducer; this is referred to constitutive expression.

108
Q

What’s a plasmid?

A

A plasmid is a small DNA molecule within a cell that is physically separated from a chromosomal DNA and can replicate independently.

109
Q

Describe promoter-gene mutations

A
  • Designated lacP−, interfere with the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter.
  • E. coli strains with lacP− mutations don’t produce lac proteins either in the presence or in the absence of lactose.
  • The partial diploid lacI+lacP+lacZ+/ lacI+lacP−lacZ+ exhibits normal synthesis of β-galactosidase
  • lacI+lacP−lacZ+/ lacI+lacP+lacZ− fails to produce β-galactosidase whether or not lactose is present.
110
Q

Recap Positive Control and Catabolite Repression.

A
  • E. coli metabolize glucose preferentially, even in the
    presence of lactose and other sugars. They do so because glucose enters glycolysis without further modification and therefore requires less energy to metabolize than do other sugars.
  • When glucose is available, genes that participate in the
    metabolism of other sugars are turned off through a process known as catabolite repression. Efficient transcription of the lac operon, for example, takes place only if lactose is present and glucose is absent.

Note:
- lac Operon exhibits Catabolite Repression by High Glucose Positive (by CAP) Inducible (by cAMP) Control

111
Q

Gene expression can be controlled at multiple levels. List all five of them.

A
  1. Alteration of DNA or chromatin structure
  2. Transcriptional control
  3. RNA processing & degredation
  4. translational control
  5. Post-translational modification
112
Q

From the alteration of DNA or chromatin structure level:
i. describe chromatin remodelling
ii. histone modification/DNA methylation.

A

i. Chromatin-remodeling complexes
- bind directly to particular sites on DNA and reposition the nucleosomes, allowing other transcription factors
and RNA polymerase to bind to promoters and initiate transcription

ii. Methylation of histones and DNA / Acetylation of histones
- Addition of methyl groups (CH3) to the tails of histone proteins and/or DNA brings about either the activation or the repression of transcription.
- and the Addition of acetyl groups (CH3CO) to histones usually stimulates transcription.

113
Q

From the transcriptional control level:
i. Transcriptional factors and regulator proteins
ii. Enhancers and Insulators

A

i. Transcriptional factors and regulator proteins
- Transcriptional activator proteins stimulate and stabilize the basal transcription apparatus.
- They interact directly or indirectly through coactivator proteins

ii. Enhancers and Insulators
- Enhancers are regulatory elements that affect the transcription of distant genes.
- They can stimulate any promoter in their vicinity .
- Insulators block the effect of enhancers in a position dependent manner.

114
Q

From the RNA processing and degredation level:
i. Gene regulation through RNA splicing and multiple 3’ cleavage sites
ii. RNA Interference (siRNA, miRNA and methylation)

A

i. Gene regulation through RNA splicing and multiple 3’ cleavage sites:
- Alternative splicing allows pre-mRNA to be spliced in multiple ways, generating different proteins in different tissues or at different times in development.
- Multiple 3’ cleavage sites use different cleavage sites to produce mRNA’s of different length.

ii. RNA Interference (siRNA, miRNA and methylation)
- RNA silencing leads to the degradation of mRNA or to the inhibition of translation or transcription.
- Small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) degrade mRNA by cleavage.
- MicroRNAs (miRNAs) lead to the inhibition of translation and/or mRNA degradation.
- Some siRNAs bring about methylation of histone proteins or DNA, inhibiting transcription.

115
Q

From the translational control level:
i. miRNA regulation of translation
ii. Availability of components for translation

A

i. miRNA regulation of translation
- miRNAs inhibit the translation of complementary mRNAs.
- Researchers suggest that miRNA can inhibit the initiation step of translation as well as steps after initiation, such as ribosome stalling or premature termination.

ii. Availability of components for translation
- Ribosomes, charged tRNAs, initiation factors, and
elongation factors are all required for the translation of
mRNA molecules.
- The availability of these components
affects the rate of translation and therefore influences
gene expression.

Note for ii:
- Virus exposure causes an increase in availability of initiation factors for translation
- Rate of translation and protein synthesis is increased

116
Q

From the post-translational modification level, explain protein modification and degradation.

A

Protein modification and degradation
- Many eukaryotic proteins are extensively modified after translation by the selective cleavage and trimming of amino acids from the ends, by acetylation, or by the addition of phosphate groups, carboxyl groups, methyl groups, carbohydrates, or ubiquitin (a small protein).
- Control of these modifications, which affect the transport, function, stability, and activity of the proteins.