UNIT 2 - LECTURE Flashcards

1
Q

What is the skeletal system composed of?

A

The skeletal system includes bones, joints, and other supporting tissues.

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2
Q

What types of tissues are found in bones?

A

Bones contain bone tissue (osseous tissue), dense regular collagenous tissue, dense irregular connective tissue, and bone marrow.

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3
Q

What defines ‘healthy bones’?

A

‘Healthy bones’ have properly functioning cells and adequate quantities and quality of extracellular matrix.

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4
Q

What are the primary functions of the skeletal system?

A

The skeletal system provides support, protection, mineral storage, blood cell formation, fat storage, and movement.

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5
Q

How are bones classified by shape?

A

Bones are classified into five shapes: long, short, flat, irregular, and sesamoid.

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6
Q

What are long bones?

A

Long bones are longer than they are wide, such as the humerus and femur.

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7
Q

What are short bones?

A

Short bones are about as long as they are wide, like the carpals and tarsals.

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8
Q

What are flat bones?

A

Flat bones are thin and broad, including most bones of the skull and the ribs.

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9
Q

What are irregular bones?

A

Irregular bones have irregular shapes and include the vertebrae and certain skull bones.

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10
Q

What are sesamoid bones?

A

Sesamoid bones are small, flat, oval-shaped bones located within tendons, like the patella.

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11
Q

What is the structure of a long bone?

A

A long bone has a diaphysis (shaft) and two epiphyses (ends), covered by periosteum and containing a medullary cavity.

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12
Q

What is the periosteum?

A

The periosteum is a dense irregular connective tissue membrane that covers the surface of bones.

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13
Q

What is the medullary cavity?

A

The medullary cavity is a hollow cavity within the diaphysis of long bones that houses bone marrow.

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14
Q

What are the two types of bone marrow?

A

The two types of bone marrow are red bone marrow, which is involved in blood cell formation, and yellow bone marrow, which stores fat.

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15
Q

What is hematopoiesis?

A

Hematopoiesis is the process of blood cell formation that occurs in red bone marrow.

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16
Q

What is the difference between compact and spongy bone?

A

Compact bone is dense and forms the outer layer, while spongy bone has a honeycomb-like structure and is found inside.

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17
Q

What is the endosteum?

A

The endosteum is a membrane lining the inner surfaces of bones, containing bone cells that help maintain bone homeostasis.

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18
Q

What are epiphyseal lines?

A

Epiphyseal lines are remnants of the epiphyseal plate, a line of hyaline cartilage from which long bones grow in length.

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19
Q

What is the structure of short, flat, irregular, and sesamoid bones?

A

These bones have an outer layer of compact bone surrounding an inner layer of spongy bone, without diaphyses or epiphyses.

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20
Q

What is the periosteum?

A

The periosteum is a layer of dense connective tissue that surrounds the outer surface of bones.

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21
Q

What are the two types of bone?

A

The two types of bone are compact bone and spongy bone.

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22
Q

What is diploë?

A

Diploë refers to the spongy bone found between two layers of compact bone in flat bones.

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23
Q

What is the function of red bone marrow?

A

Red bone marrow is responsible for hematopoiesis, the production of blood cells.

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24
Q

What happens to yellow marrow as we age?

A

As we age, yellow marrow begins to replace some of the red bone marrow.

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25
Q

How are bones supplied with blood?

A

Bones are supplied with blood through vessels in the periosteum and nutrient arteries that enter the bone.

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26
Q

What is a nutrient foramen?

A

A nutrient foramen is a small hole in the diaphysis of a bone through which a nutrient artery enters.

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27
Q

What are the two types of bone marrow?

A

The two types of bone marrow are red bone marrow and yellow bone marrow.

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28
Q

What is the primary function of osteoblasts?

A

Osteoblasts are responsible for building bone.

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29
Q

What do osteocytes do?

A

Osteocytes maintain the bone extracellular matrix.

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30
Q

What is the role of osteoclasts?

A

Osteoclasts break down bone during the process of bone resorption.

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31
Q

What is the extracellular matrix of bone made of?

A

The extracellular matrix of bone consists of an inorganic matrix and an organic matrix.

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32
Q

What is the predominant component of the inorganic matrix?

A

The predominant component of the inorganic matrix is calcium salts.

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33
Q

What is osteoid?

A

Osteoid is the organic matrix of bone, consisting of protein fibers and other components.

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34
Q

What happens if the organic matrix of bone is destroyed?

A

If the organic matrix is destroyed, the bone becomes brittle and shatters easily.

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35
Q

What is the function of collagen fibers in bone?

A

Collagen fibers help bone resist torsion and tensile forces.

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36
Q

What is the process of bone deposition?

A

Bone deposition is the process by which osteoblasts secrete the organic matrix and aid in the formation of the inorganic matrix.

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37
Q

How do osteoclasts resorb bone?

A

Osteoclasts secrete hydrogen ions and enzymes that break down the bone extracellular matrix.

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38
Q

What is excretion?

A

The process of eliminating waste from the body.

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39
Q

What is an osteoclast?

A

A type of bone cell that degrades bone extracellular matrix (ECM).

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40
Q

What are collagen fibers of the periosteum?

A

Fibers that provide structural support and strength to the outer layer of bone.

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41
Q

What is the function of osteoclasts?

A

To resorb bone by degrading the bone ECM.

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42
Q

What is osteopetrosis?

A

A disease characterized by defective osteoclasts that do not degrade bone properly, leading to increased bone mass but weakened bones.

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43
Q

What are osteons?

A

The structural units of compact bone, resembling small, tightly packed trees.

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44
Q

What are lamellae?

A

Thin layers of bone that make up the rings of an osteon.

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45
Q

What is the central canal?

A

A passage in the center of each osteon that contains blood vessels and nerves.

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46
Q

What are lacunae?

A

Small cavities in bone that house osteocytes.

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47
Q

What are canaliculi?

A

Tiny canals that connect lacunae and allow communication between osteocytes.

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48
Q

What are the two types of ossification?

A

Intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification.

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49
Q

What is primary bone?

A

Immature bone that consists of irregularly arranged collagen bundles and abundant osteocytes.

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50
Q

What is secondary bone?

A

Mature bone that has fully formed lamellae with regularly arranged collagen bundles.

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51
Q

What is intramembranous ossification?

A

The process of bone formation that occurs within a mesenchymal membrane.

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52
Q

What is endochondral ossification?

A

The process of bone formation that occurs based on a model made of hyaline cartilage.

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53
Q

What are trabeculae?

A

Branching ‘ribs’ of bone that form a protective framework for bone marrow.

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54
Q

What is endochondral ossification?

A

Endochondral ossification is the process by which all bones in the body below the head, except the clavicles, form from a model of hyaline cartilage.

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55
Q

When does endochondral ossification begin?

A

Endochondral ossification begins during the fetal period for most bones, although some ossify later.

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56
Q

What are primary and secondary ossification centers?

A

Primary ossification centers are where endochondral ossification begins, while secondary ossification centers are located within the epiphyses of long bones.

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57
Q

What role do osteoblasts play in bone formation?

A

Osteoblasts in the periosteum lay down early compact bone and continue to secrete organic bone matrix.

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58
Q

What happens to the cartilage model during endochondral ossification?

A

The cartilage model is replaced by bone as chondrocytes die and are replaced by osteoblasts.

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59
Q

What is the difference between primary bone and secondary bone?

A

Primary bone is the initial bone laid down during ossification, while secondary bone replaces primary bone as it matures.

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60
Q

What is the periosteum?

A

The periosteum is the connective tissue membrane that surrounds the developing bone.

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61
Q

What is the significance of the epiphyseal plate?

A

The epiphyseal plate is a region of cartilage that allows for the growth in length of long bones.

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62
Q

How does longitudinal growth occur in long bones?

A

Longitudinal growth occurs from the division of chondrocytes in the epiphyseal plate, not from bone cells.

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63
Q

What is achondroplasia?

A

Achondroplasia is a genetic condition that results in dwarfism due to a defect in a growth factor receptor affecting cartilage development.

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64
Q

What are the causes of osteoporosis?

A

Osteoporosis can be caused by dietary factors, hormonal changes, advanced age, and genetic factors.

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65
Q

What preventative methods can help avoid osteoporosis?

A

Preventative methods include ensuring adequate dietary calcium intake, engaging in weight-bearing exercise, and possibly replacing estrogen in women.

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66
Q

What is the difference between intramembranous and endochondral ossification?

A

Intramembranous ossification forms flat bones within a fibrous membrane, while endochondral ossification forms long bones from a hyaline cartilage model.

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67
Q

What is the zone of reserve cartilage?

A

The zone of reserve cartilage is the area in the epiphyseal plate that contains chondrocytes in lacunae.

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68
Q

What occurs in the zone of proliferation?

A

The zone of proliferation has actively dividing chondrocytes, which contribute to longitudinal growth.

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69
Q

What is the zone of hypertrophy?

A

The zone of hypertrophy contains mature chondrocytes that have enlarged and ceased dividing.

70
Q

What happens in the zone of calcification?

A

In the zone of calcification, chondrocytes die, and their matrix accumulates calcium salt deposits.

71
Q

What is the role of osteoblasts in the zone of ossification?

A

Osteoblasts invade the calcified cartilage in the zone of ossification and begin to lay down bone.

72
Q

What is the significance of the epiphyseal plate?

A

The epiphyseal plate is crucial for longitudinal growth and eventually closes, leaving behind the epiphyseal line.

73
Q

What hormone is primarily responsible for bone growth?

A

Growth hormone, produced by the anterior pituitary, enhances protein synthesis and cell division in bone tissue.

74
Q

How does testosterone affect bone growth?

A

Testosterone increases the rate of mitosis at the epiphyseal plate and promotes appositional growth.

75
Q

What is appositional growth?

A

Appositional growth is the process by which bones increase in width through the activity of osteoblasts.

76
Q

What are the effects of excessive growth hormone?

A

Excessive growth hormone can lead to gigantism if secreted before epiphyseal plate closure or acromegaly if secreted after.

77
Q

What is the process of bone remodeling?

A

Bone remodeling involves bone deposition by osteoblasts and bone resorption by osteoclasts.

78
Q

What is the role of osteoclasts in bone resorption?

A

Osteoclasts secrete hydrogen ions to dissolve the inorganic matrix and enzymes to degrade the organic matrix.

79
Q

What is the first step in fracture repair?

A

The first step in fracture repair is the formation of a hematoma that fills the gap between bone fragments.

80
Q

What is a simple fracture?

A

A simple fracture is one where the skin and tissue around the fracture remain intact.

81
Q

What is a compound fracture?

A

A compound fracture involves damage to the skin and surrounding tissue around the fracture.

82
Q

What are simple fractures?

A

Simple fractures, also called closed fractures, are those in which the skin and tissue around the fracture remain intact.

83
Q

What are compound fractures?

A

Compound fractures, also called open fractures, involve damage around the fracture.

84
Q

What happens if the ends of a bone do not fuse properly?

A

If the ends of the bone do not fuse properly, they may be united only by scar tissue or cartilage, often requiring surgical removal of the scar tissue and re-fixation of the bone.

85
Q

What is a spiral fracture?

A

A spiral fracture results when twisting forces are applied to a bone.

86
Q

What is a compression fracture?

A

A compression fracture occurs when a bone is crushed under the weight it is meant to support; it is common in the elderly and those with reduced bone mass.

87
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

A comminuted fracture is one in which the bone is shattered into multiple fragments, making it difficult to repair.

88
Q

What is an avulsion fracture?

A

An avulsion fracture occurs when a tendon or ligament pulls off a fragment of bone, often seen in ankle fractures.

89
Q

What is a greenstick fracture?

A

A greenstick fracture is one in which the bone breaks on one side but only bends on the other side, similar to a young twig; it occurs only in children and young adults.

90
Q

What is the process of bone formation called?

A

Bone formation is called ossification or osteogenesis.

91
Q

What is primary bone?

A

Primary bone is the first bone formed, which is later replaced by much stronger secondary bone.

92
Q

What is intramembranous ossification?

A

Intramembranous ossification occurs from within a membrane composed of embryonic mesenchyme, forming spongy bone first.

93
Q

What is endochondral ossification?

A

Endochondral ossification takes place within a hyaline cartilage model, beginning with early compact bone in the bone collar.

94
Q

What are the functions of the skeletal system?

A

Functions of the skeletal system include protection, mineral storage, maintenance of acid-base homeostasis, blood cell formation, fat storage, movement, and support.

95
Q

How do bones grow in length?

A

Longitudinal growth occurs at the epiphyseal plate in long bones, which consists of five zones of cells.

96
Q

What happens when the epiphyseal plate fully ossifies?

A

When the epiphyseal plate fully ossifies, no further longitudinal bone growth is possible.

97
Q

What is appositional growth?

A

Bones grow in width by appositional growth, during which osteoblasts in the periosteum secrete new circumferential lamellae.

98
Q

What are the three main types of cells found in bone?

A

The three main types of cells in bone are osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts.

99
Q

What do osteoblasts do?

A

Osteoblasts are responsible for bone deposition.

100
Q

What do osteocytes do?

A

Osteocytes are mature osteoblasts that have become surrounded by the ECM they have secreted.

101
Q

What do osteoclasts do?

A

Osteoclasts are responsible for bone resorption.

102
Q

What is the inorganic matrix of bone primarily composed of?

A

The inorganic matrix is composed primarily of calcium and phosphorus salts existing as hydroxyapatite crystals.

103
Q

What is the organic matrix of bone called?

A

The organic matrix is called osteoid and consists of collagen fibers and other ECM components.

104
Q

What triggers osteoblasts and bone deposition?

A

Tension placed on a bone triggers osteoblasts and bone deposition.

105
Q

What stimulates osteoclasts?

A

Osteoclasts are stimulated when pressure is placed on a bone, leading to bone resorption.

106
Q

What hormones influence bone growth?

A

Three hormones that exert a significant effect on bone growth are growth hormone, testosterone, and estrogen.

107
Q

What is the role of parathyroid hormone?

A

Parathyroid hormone stimulates osteoclasts, calcium ion absorption in the intestines, and calcium ion retention by the kidneys, increasing calcium ion concentration in the blood.

108
Q

What is the subunit of compact bone called?

A

The subunit of compact bone is called an osteon, which consists of rings of bone matrix called lamellae.

109
Q

What are the branching pieces of bone in spongy bone called?

A

The branching pieces of bone in spongy bone are called trabeculae.

110
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary ossification centers?

A

Primary ossification centers are the initial sites of bone formation, while secondary ossification centers develop later, typically at the ends of long bones.

111
Q

What is the effect of a parathyroid hormone-secreting tumor on bone tissue?

A

A parathyroid hormone-secreting tumor would increase the concentration of calcium ions in the blood.

112
Q

What is blood cell formation also called?

A

Blood cell formation is also called hematopoiesis or hemopoiesis.

113
Q

What are the three groups of blood cells?

A

The three groups of blood cells are red blood cells (erythrocytes), white blood cells (leukocytes), and blood platelets (thrombocytes).

114
Q

What are the broad groups of white blood cells?

A

The white blood cells are subdivided into three broad groups: granulocytes, lymphocytes, and monocytes.

115
Q

Where do blood cells originate?

A

Blood cells do not originate in the bloodstream but in specific blood-forming organs, notably the marrow of certain bones.

116
Q

What percentage of white blood cells does the bone marrow produce in adults?

A

In the human adult, the bone marrow produces 60-70 percent of the white blood cells (i.e., the granulocytes).

117
Q

What organs produce lymphocytes?

A

The lymphatic tissues, particularly the thymus, the spleen, and the lymph nodes, produce the lymphocytes.

118
Q

What percentage of white blood cells are lymphocytes?

A

Lymphocytes comprise 20-30 percent of the white blood cells.

119
Q

What organs produce monocytes?

A

The reticuloendothelial tissues of the spleen, liver, lymph nodes, and other organs produce monocytes.

120
Q

What percentage of white blood cells are monocytes?

A

Monocytes account for 4-8 percent of the white blood cells.

121
Q

How are platelets formed?

A

Platelets are formed from bits of the cytoplasm of the giant cells (megakaryocytes) of the bone marrow.

122
Q

What was the first site of blood formation in the human embryo?

A

The first site of blood formation in the human embryo is the yolk sac.

123
Q

Which organ becomes the most important red blood cell-forming organ during embryonic life?

A

The liver becomes the most important red blood cell-forming organ during embryonic life.

124
Q

What is the only source of red blood cells and granulocytes in adult life?

A

In adult life, the bone marrow is the only source of both red blood cells and granulocytes.

125
Q

How do red and white blood cells arise?

A

Red and white blood cells arise through a series of complex, gradual, and successive transformations from primitive stem cells.

126
Q

What are precursor cells?

A

Precursor cells are stem cells that have developed to the stage where they are committed to forming a particular kind of new blood cell.

127
Q

How many red cells are produced by the bone marrow each week in a normal adult?

A

In a normal adult, the bone marrow produces about half a litre (almost one pint) of red cells every week.

128
Q

What is the daily production rate of red cells, white cells, and platelets?

A

A typical production might average 200 billion red cells per day, 10 billion white cells per day, and 400 billion platelets per day.

129
Q
A
130
Q

What is the stage of bone healing where blood vessels reunite?

A

Soft callus

131
Q

What is a fracture that occurs when a tendon or ligament pulls a portion of bone away?

A

Avulsion

132
Q

What is the stage of bone healing where irregularly placed osseous tissue unites bone ends?

A

Hard callus

133
Q

What type of fracture is characterized by a bone bending and partially breaking?

A

Greenstick

134
Q

What is the first stage of bone healing?

A

Hematoma formation

135
Q

What is the second stage of bone healing?

A

Soft callus formation

136
Q

What is the third stage of bone healing?

A

Hard callus formation

137
Q

What is the fourth stage of bone healing?

A

Bone remodeling

138
Q

What forms the thoracic curvature?

A

Formed by other bones fusing with vertebrae
(CONVEX)

139
Q

What forms the cervical curvature?

A

Formed by weight of bones on top
(CONCAVE)

140
Q

What forms the lumbar curvature?

A

Formed by weight of bones on top
(CONCAVE)

141
Q

What forms the sacral curvature?

A

Formed by other bones fusing with vertebrae
(CONVEX)

142
Q

What is the manner in which long bones form?

A

Endochondral ossification

Also known as the process where cartilage is replaced by bone.

143
Q

What is the manner in which flat bones form?

A

Intramembranous ossification

This process involves the direct transformation of mesenchymal tissue into bone.

144
Q

Match the cartilage type with the example tissue: Epiglottis.

A

Elastic cartilage

Elastic cartilage provides flexibility and support.

145
Q

Match the cartilage type with the example tissue: Intervertebral discs.

A

Fibrocartilage

Fibrocartilage is tough and provides support and rigidity.

146
Q

In utero, bones begin as what type of cartilage before becoming osseous tissue?

A

Hyaline cartilage

Hyaline cartilage is the most common type of cartilage in the body.

147
Q

Match the cartilage type with the example tissue: Pinna.

A

Elastic cartilage

The pinna is the outer part of the ear, which requires flexibility.

148
Q

Match the cartilage type with the example tissue: Pubic symphysis.

A

Fibrocartilage

The pubic symphysis provides strength and flexibility during childbirth.

149
Q

What does the epiphyseal growth plate do during childhood?

A

Adds length to long bones

The growth plate is crucial for bone growth until it hardens.

150
Q

What happens to the epiphyseal growth plate at puberty?

A

It hardens to become the epiphyseal line

This marks the end of bone lengthening.

151
Q

What stimulates calcitonin release?

A

Increased blood calcium levels

Results in decreased blood calcium levels.

152
Q

What do osteoclasts do?

A

Remove calcium from bone

Cause bone resorption.

153
Q

What do osteoblasts do?

A

Add calcium to bone

Cause bone deposit.

154
Q

Osteoblasts

A

Results in decreased blood calcium when activated

Stimulated by calcitonin.

155
Q

Osteoclasts

A

Results in increased blood calcium when activated

Stimulated by PTH.

156
Q

What occurs when blood calcium levels are too low?

A

Bone resorption occurs when blood calcium levels are too low.

The hormone PTH is released into the bloodstream.

157
Q

What hormone is released when blood calcium levels are low?

A

PTH (Parathyroid Hormone) is released into the bloodstream.

This process is known as bone resorption.

158
Q

What stimulates the release of PTH?

A

PTH release is stimulated by low blood calcium levels.

This results in increased blood calcium levels.

159
Q

What is the effect of PTH on blood calcium levels?

A

PTH increases blood calcium levels.

This is a response to low calcium levels in the blood.

160
Q

Match the hormone with the process it will stimulate: erythropoietin

A

erythropoiesis

161
Q

Match the hormone with the process it will stimulate: thrombopoietin

A

thrombopoiesis

162
Q

Match the hormone with the process it will stimulate: interleukin

A

leukopoiesis

163
Q

Match the hormone with the process it will stimulate: CSF (colony stimulating factor)

A

leukopoiesis

164
Q

Red bone marrow contains ________ that have the ability to transform into erythrocytes, leukocytes, or platelets.

A

hematocytoblasts

165
Q

What can hematocytoblasts transform into?

A

erythrocytes, leukocytes, or platelets

166
Q

Match the hormone with the cell it is associated with making: erythropoietin

A

erythrocyte

167
Q

Match the hormone with the cell it is associated with making: thrombopoietin

A

platelet

168
Q

Match the hormone with the cell it is associated with making: interleukin

A

leukocyte

169
Q

The process of erythropoiesis is initiated when the hormone ___________ causes red bone marrow to increase erythrocyte production.

A

erythropoietin

170
Q

Match the hormone with the organ/tissue that will release it into the body: erythropoietin

A

kidneys

171
Q

Match the hormone with the organ/tissue that will release it into the body: thrombopoietin

A

liver

172
Q

Match the hormone with the organ/tissue that will release it into the body: interleukin

A

immune system