UNIT 2 Ch. 6-11 Flashcards

1
Q

A(n) ______ is a microbe which prefers environments near or at a pH of 7.

A

NEUTROPHILE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which organism is an important human pathogen, and is classified as a facultative halophile?

  • E. coli
  • S. aureus
  • S. pneumoniae
  • Neisseria
A

S. AUREUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

An organism that prefers a habitat where the pH is below 7 is called a(n)

A

ACIDOPHILE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which term best describes the association between a human host and the normal microbiota that aids in digestion?

A

MUTUALISTIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hydrogen peroxide formed during aerobic respiration is converted to water and oxygen by the enzyme

A

CATALASE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A microbe that can use gaseous oxygen in its metabolism and possesses the enzymes needed to process toxic oxygen products is called a(n)

A

AEROBE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

An interrelationship between two or more free-living organisms that benefits them but is not necessary for their survival is

A

SYNERGISM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Some microbes live in mixed communities attached to a surface and are fairly resistant to antibiotics. These formations are called ____ and often grow on materials such as catheters

A

BIOFILMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

____ are resistant to salt, but do not normally reside in high salt environments

A

FACULTATIVE HALOPHILS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bacteria reproduce by ___ FISSION

A

BINARY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A relationship where microorganisms compete for survival in a common environment is known as

A

ANTAGONISM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cells in the lag phase of the growth curve ______.
-undergo rapid binary fission
-are metabolically dormant
-are metabolically active
-are most susceptible to pH changes

A

ARE METABOLICALLY ACTIVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

an organism that uses inorganic CO2 as its carbon source. not nutritionally dependent on other living things.

A

AUTOTROPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

an organism that must obtain its carbon in an organic form

A

HETEROTROPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Can get energy from the energy in light. Photosynthesizes

A

PHOTOTROPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Microbes that gets its energy from chemical compounds.

A

CHEMOTROPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How to classify nutritional categories

A
  • SOURCE OF ENERGY
  • NUTRITIONAL TYPE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

List all Essential Nutrients

A

-CARBON (ORGANIC)
-HYDROGEN (ORGANIC AND INORGANIC)
-OXYGEN (ORGANIC AND INORGANIC)
-NITROGEN (FUNDAMENTAL FOR PROTEIN)
-PHOSPHATE (CELL MEMBRANE)
-SULFUR (SULFER BINDS TOGETHER. ESSENTIAL FOR VITAMINS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

water moves from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

A

OSMOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Environmental factors

A
  • temp
  • pH
    -gases
    -radiation
  • osmotic pressure
    -hydrostatic pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cardinal temperatures

A

-MINIMUM TEMPERATURE
-MAXIMUM TEMPERATURE
-OPTIMUM TEMPERATURE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Optimum temperature below 15C. Rarely pathogenic. grow in freezer :(

A

PSYCHROPHILES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Grow slowly in the cold temperature. Optimum temperature between 15-30C

A

PSYCHROTOLERANT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Grow between 20-40C. Most common pathogen

A

MESOPHILES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Grow at temperatures greater than 45C

A

THERMOPHILES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

3 categories of microbes in regard to O2

A
  • USE O2 AND DETOXIFY IT
  • CAN NEITHER USE NOT DETOXIFY IT
  • DO NOT USE BUT DETOXIFY IT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Organisms that grow best at a higher CO2 tension that is normally present in the atmosphere

A

CANOPHILES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Organisms that thrive in acidic environments

A

ACIDOPHILES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

live in habitats with high solute concentration

A

OSMOPHILES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

perefer high concentration of salt

A

HALOPHILES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

acidophile. grows at pH 0-1

A

EUGLENA MUTABILIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Acidophiles. grows at pH 1-2. lack archaea wall. Will die if exposed to pH of 7.

A

THERMOPLASMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Acidophiles. Grows at pH of 0.7 or of 0

A

PICROPHILUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

new cells require a period of adjustment, enlargement, and synthesis. Cells not yet multiplying at maximum rate.

A

LAG PAHSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cells reach maximum rate of cell division

A

EXPONENTIAL GROWTH PHASE (LOG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  • DNA wound around histone proteins
  • located in the nucleus
  • diploid or haploid
  • more or less linear
A

EUKARYOTIC CHROMOSOME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  • DNA condensed into a packet by means of histone like proteins
  • one two or sometimes several chromosome
A

BACTERIAL CHROMOSOME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

3 categories of genes

A
  • STRUCTURAL GENES
  • GENOTYPE
  • PHENOTYPE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The sum of all genes types; an organism’s distinctive genetic makeup

A

GENOTYPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

the ‘expression’ of the genotype creates traits. what we can see or measure

A

PHENOTYPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

DNA becomes fragmented and spliced to change. Any event in which one bacterium donates DNA to another bacterium.

A

RECOMBINATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

protein tube that will let one stranded DNA through

A

PILUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

cell that has the plasmid

A

F+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The study of the inheritance of living things is called

A

GENETICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The ______ is the sum total of genetic material in an organism.

A

GENOME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Genomes of cells are composed of ______.

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A discrete cellular structure composed of a neatly packaged DNA molecule is called a(n)

A

CHROMOSOME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Where are the chromosomes of yeast cells located?

A

IN THE NUCLEUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

In the bacterium Escherichia coli, where is the chromosome located?

A

CYTOPLASM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Eukaryotic chromosomes are located in the ______, while prokaryotic chromosomes are found in the ______.

A

NUCLEUS; NUCLEOID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

An organism’s distinctive genetic makeup, including all of its structural, ribosomal and regulatory genes, is called its ______.

A

GENOTYPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which term refers to the transfer of genes from donor to recipient microorganisms?

A

RECOMBINATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

In a protozoal or fungal cell, chromosomes are located in the

A

NUCLEUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Gene transfer that results in organisms acquiring genes that did not come directly from parent organisms is called ____ gene trasnfer

A

HORIZONTAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A small circular segment of DNA found in the cytoplasm of bacteria that is capable of independent replication and usually contains nonessential genes is called a(n)

A

PLASMID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

_______ involves the use of a connecting bridge, _______ requires a bacterial virus vector, and ______ entails transfer of naked DNA.

A

CONJUCATION; TRANSDUCTION; TRANSFORMATION

57
Q

A pilus connects two bacterial cells to facilitate the transfer of genetic material during the process of

A

CONJUGATION

58
Q

Transfer of DNA from a source other than the parent organisms

A

HORIZONTAL GENE TRANSFER

59
Q

Transfer of DNA from parent organisms during reproduction

A

VERTICAL GENE TRANSFER

60
Q

A(n) ______ cell has a separate fertility plasmid, whereas a(n) _____ cell has the F factor incorporated into its chromosome.

A

F+ ; Hfr

61
Q

Which two types of horizontal gene transfer do NOT require direct contact between the donor and the recipient cells?

A

TRANSDUCTION ; TRANSFormation

62
Q

Donor and recipient bacterial cells are connected by a(n) ______ during conjugation

A

PILUS

63
Q

A(n) ______ is a bacterial virus involved in _______, a means of horizontal gene transfer.

A

BACTERIOPHAGE ; TRANSDUCTION

64
Q

Any change to the nucleotide sequence in the genome is called a(n)

A

MUTATION

65
Q

What is commonly shared between bacteria through the process of conjugation?

A

GENES FOR VIRLENCE FACTORS
RESISTANCE PLASMID

66
Q

Which is an agent that induces changes in DNA?

A

MUTAGEN

67
Q

A phage is a virus that infects ______.

A

BACTERIA

68
Q

Mutation can provide adaptive advantages for cells, such as ______.

A

ACQUIRED DRUG RESISTANCE

69
Q

Permanent loss of reproduction capability even when put in optimum environment

A

MICROBIAL DEATH

70
Q

Cellular targets of the mode of action of the agent

A

CELL WALL
CYTOPLASMIC MEMBRANE
CELLULAR SYNTHESIS
PROTEINS

71
Q

Elevated temperatures are ____

A

MICROBICIDAL

72
Q

Lower temperatures are _____

A

MICROBISTATIC

73
Q

Shortest length of time required to kill all test microbes at a specific temperature

A

(TDT) THERMAL DEATH TIME

74
Q

The lowest temperature required to kill all microbes in a sample in 10 minutes

A

(TDP) THERMAL DEATH POINT

75
Q

Quinine is a drug used to treat

A

MALARIA

76
Q

Antimicrobial drugs often cannot penetrate the sticky extracellular material surrounding organisms in a ______

A

BIOFILM

77
Q

A situation where microbes begin to tolerate an antimicrobial agent at a level which would normally be inhibitory is called

A

ANTIMICROBIAL RESISTANCE

78
Q

Which term refers to bacteria that slow or stop their metabolism so that they cannot be harmed by an antibiotic?

A

PERSISTERS

79
Q

Plasmids called ______ factors confer antibiotic resistance through horizontal transfer.

A

RESISTANCE

80
Q

Which of the following is an enzyme secreted by certain bacteria that cleaves the beta-lactam ring of penicillin and cephalosporin and thus provides for resistance against these antibiotics?

A

PENICILLINASE AND BETA-LACTAMASE

81
Q

An R factor is a type of ____ that confers antibiotic resistance.

A

PLASMID

82
Q

A bacterial system that can be used to cause very specific cuts in genes is termed _____.

A

CRISPR

83
Q

Who discovered penicillin

A

ALEXANDER FLEMMING

84
Q

Antibiotics are originally metabolic products of ____ and ____

A

BACTERIA AND FUNGI

85
Q

an agar diffusion test that provides useful data on antimicrobial susceptibility

A

KIRBY BAUER TECHNIQUE

86
Q

What do excellent selectively toxic antibiotics kill bacteria? Give an example.

A

IT INHIBITS SYNTHESIS IN CELL WALL OF BACTERIA. PENICILLIN

87
Q

Antimicrobial drug categories

A
  • INHIBITION OF CELL WALL SYNTHESIS
  • INHIBITION OF NUCLEIC ACID STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION
  • INHIBITON OF PROTEIN SYNTHESIS
  • INTERFERENCE WITH CELL MEMBRANE STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION
88
Q

effective against more than one group of bacteria

A

BROAD SPECTRUM DRUGS

89
Q

Target a specific group of bacteria

A

NARROW SPECTRUM DRUGS

90
Q

Agents used to treat fungal infections

A

Macrolide polyenes
Azoles
Echinocandins (-fungin)
Allylamines (-fine)

91
Q

a system found in bacteria that can cause very specific cuts in genes

A

CRISPR

92
Q

preparations of live microorganisms fed to animals and humans to improve intestinal biota

A

PROBIOTICS

93
Q

nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial microbes in the intestine

A

PREBIOTICS

94
Q

used to treat recurrent Clostridioides difficile infection and ulcerative colitis

A

FECAL TRANSPLANT

95
Q

microbes that were once small in number can begin to overgrow and cause disease

A

SUPER INFECTION

96
Q

UTI caused by E. coli treated with antibiotics (broad spectrum)

A

Overgrowth of Candida albicans causing yeast infection

97
Q

the sum total of all microbes found on and in a normal human

A

HUMAN MICROBIOME

98
Q

relative severity of a disease caused by a particular microbe. Degree of pathogenicity

A

VIRULENCE

99
Q

any characteristic or structure of the microbe that contributes to its ability to establish itself in the host and cause damage

A

VIRULENCE FACTORS

100
Q

examples of virulence factors

A
  • ability to create a capsule
  • having fimbriae
101
Q

infections with contributions from more than one microbe

A

POLYMICROBIAL

102
Q

the route that a microbe takes to enter the tissue of the body to initiate an infection

A

PORTAL OF ENTRY

103
Q

originating from a source outside the body

A

EXOGENOUS MICROBE

104
Q

Microorganisms with smaller infectious doeses have ____ virulence

A

GREATER

105
Q

structures that help bacterial, protozoan, and fungal attach

A

Fimbriae
surface proteins
adhesive slimes or capsule

106
Q

kill phagocytes outright

A

LEUKOCIDINS

107
Q

4 steps leading to Disease

A
  1. Portal of Entry
  2. Attaching to Host Cells
  3. Surviving Host Defense
  4. Causing disease
108
Q

Enzymes secreted by microbes that break down and inflict damage on tissues

A

EXOENZYME

109
Q

Three ways that microorganisms cause damage to their host:

A
  • Directly through stuff the action of enzyme or toxins
  • Indirectly by inducing the hosts defense to respond EXCESSIVELY
  • Epigenetic changes made to host cells by microbes
110
Q

Parasitic worms attach by….

A

Hooks
suckers
barbs

111
Q

increased in white blood cells

A

LEUKOCYTOSIS

112
Q

decreased in white blood cell levels

A

LEUKOPENIA

113
Q

primary habitat in the natural world from which a pathogen originates

A

reservoirs

114
Q

The invasion and multiplication of a pathogen in the human host is referred to as a(n)

A

INFECTION

115
Q

The main portals of entry include ______.

A

UROGENITAL TRACT
GASTROINTESTINAL TRACT
SKIN
RESPIRATORY TRACT

116
Q

______ can be characterized as any deviation from the healthy state.

A

DISEASE

117
Q

minimum number of microbes that must enter the body to cause infection?

A

INFECTIOUS DOSE

118
Q

A pathogen that can cause disease in healthy persons with normal immune defenses is referred to as a(n) _______ pathogen

A

TRUE

119
Q

A microbe that usually does not cause disease in a normal healthy host, but can cause disease in an immunocompromised host is called a(n) ________ pathogen.

A

OPPURTUNISTIC

120
Q

When an infectious agent spreads from a local site and is carried to other tissues, the infection is called a(n) _____ INFECTION

A

FOCAL

121
Q

A(n) ______ infection invades many compartments and organs via the bloodstream.

A

SYSTEMIC

122
Q

After entering the body, microbes remain confined to a specific tissue in a(n) ______ infection.

A

LOCALIZED

123
Q

The term ______ infection refers to an additional infection, with a different microbe, that follows an initial infection.

A

SECONDARY

124
Q

An infection that persists over a long duration is referred to as a _____ INFECTION

A

CHRONIC

125
Q

An infection characterized by a rapid onset and short duration is called a(n) ______ infection.

A

ACUTE

126
Q

Suppose a patient who is suffering from influenza develops bacterial pneumonia within a week of first becoming sick with the flu. In this sequence of illnesses, influenza virus caused the ______ infection.

A

PRIMARY

127
Q

Any subjective evidence of disease that is sensed by the patient is called a(n) _______.

A

SYMPTOMS

128
Q

A(n) ________ infection occurs when several microbes establish themselves simultaneously at the infection site.

A

POLYMICROBIDIAL

129
Q

After the initial symptoms in certain chronic infectious diseases, the infectious agent retreats into a dormant state called ______.

A

LATENCY

130
Q

When the infectious agent can be transmitted from infected host to a new host, a disease is considered to be __________

A

communicable

131
Q

If the disease agent is highly communicable, especially through direct contact, the disease is considered to be _______

A

CONTAGIOUS

132
Q

Suppose that a person takes a fall while hiking and develops tetanus when the pathogen enters through an open wound in their arm. They do not spread the tetanus infection to anyone else. The tetanus infection is considered to be ______.

A

NONCOMMUNICABLE

133
Q

______ transmission occurs when an agent is transferred from an infected person to another person without an intermediate object, substance, or space.

A

CONTACT

134
Q

Transmission of infectious agents from host to host with the involvement of an intermediate inanimate material is considered to be ______ transmission.

A

INDIRECT

135
Q

Which of the following is considered a common mechanical vector, for it transmits an infectious agent via contaminated external body parts?

A

HOUSEFLY

136
Q

Which is the term used to describe an infectious disease that is acquired during a stay in a health care facility?

A

NOSOCOMIAL INFECTION

137
Q

A vector that transports an infectious agent without being infected itself is called a(n) ____ vector

A

MECHANICAL

138
Q

A(n) ______ disease is a disease that must be brought to the attention of local, district, state or national agencies by medical personnel aware of the condition.

A

REPORTABLE

139
Q

An infectious disease that exhibits a relatively steady frequency over a long time period in a particular geographic locale is _____.

A

ENDEMIC