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Micro > TEST 4 Lecture > Flashcards

TEST 4 Lecture Flashcards

1
Q

presence of viruses in the blood

A

VIREMIA

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2
Q

presence of fungi in the blood

A

FUNGEMIA

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3
Q

Presence of bacteria in the blood

A

BACTEREMIA

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4
Q

bacteria growing and flourishing in the blood

A

SPETICEMIA (SEPSIS)

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5
Q

cascading immune responses to septicemia, resulting in decreased blood pressure, life threatening condition

A

SEPTIC SHOCK

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6
Q

What is the dominant protozoan disease

A

MALARIA

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7
Q

Species of plasmodium that infect humans (5)

A

P. malariae
P. vivax
P. knowlesi
P. ovale
P. falciparum

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8
Q

What plasmodium species is responsible for the most deaths?

A

P. falciparum

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9
Q

type of virus that can permanently integrate viral genes into the host genome that is passed on to progeny cells

A

RETROVIRUS

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10
Q

Approximately how many white blood cells are found in one microliter of blood?

A

5,000-1,000

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11
Q

If any microbes are found in the cardiovascular system, they are considered which of the following?

A

TRANSIENT

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12
Q

The dominant protozoan disease worldwide is

A

MALARIA

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13
Q

The signs/symptoms of malaria include which of the following? (5)

A

MALAISE
FATIGUE
VAGUE ACHES
NAUSEA
FEVER

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14
Q

Plasmodium species are protozoa in the ____ group

A

sporozoan

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15
Q

The principal mode of transmission of malaria is via the female ___ mosquito

A

ANOPHELES

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16
Q

Malaria is caused by members of which of the following genera?

A

PLASMODIUM

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17
Q

The target cells of HIV are leukocytes and tissue cells that possess the CD4 receptor and a co-receptor

A

CCR-5

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18
Q

Both acute and subacute forms of endocarditis show signs and symptoms such as fever, anemia, abnormal heartbeat, and symptoms similar to a

A

myocardial infection

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19
Q

Reverse transcriptase is what type of compound?

A

protein

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20
Q

Staphylococcus aureus causes approximately what percent of acute endocarditis cases?

A

40

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21
Q

S. mutans, S. oralis, and S. sanguis are alpha-hemolytic ____ which can cause subacute endocarditis

A

streptococci

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22
Q

Identify the three possible types of plague infection.

A

bubonic
pneumonic
septicemic

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23
Q

Staphylococcus aureus causes approximately what percent of acute endocarditis cases?

A

bull’s-eye rash
erythema migrans.

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24
Q

The progression of a plague infection to massive bacterial growth in the blood is known as — plague

A

septicemic

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25
Q

EBV is linked to infectious mononucleosis and Burkitt’s lymphoma and is a member of the —- family

A

herpesvirus

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26
Q

Two organs that may become enlarged during an infectious mononucleosis infection are the — and –

A

liver
spleen

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27
Q

Which of the following are second and third line defenses for the respiratory system?

A
  • Alveolar macrophages
  • secretory IgA
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28
Q

The most common cause(s) of pharyngitis is/are which of the following?

A

viruses

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29
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes and Fusobacterium ___ cause the most serious cases of pharyngitis.

A

necrophorum

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30
Q

Which of the following are first line defenses for the respiratory system? (5)

A
  • mucus production
  • ciliated epithelium
  • coughing
  • nasal hair
  • sneezing
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31
Q

First line of defense for digestive system (6)

A

– Intestinal barrier
– Mucus
– Lysozyme
– HCl, bile salts and digestive enzyme
– Motility
– Gut microbiome

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32
Q

Second line of defense for GI tract (5)

A
  • Phagocytic cells
  • Antimicrobial peptides
  • Cytokines
  • Fever
  • Acute inflammation
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33
Q

mucinous glycoprotein covering on the tooth to which streptococci attach

A

pellicle

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34
Q

Where is most of the normal biota found in GI tract

A

large intestine

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35
Q

E. coli synthesizes vitamin ___

A

K

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36
Q

3 or more loose stools in a 24 hour period

A

acute diarrhea

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37
Q

How are most cases of acute diarrhea transmitted?

A

fecal contaminated food

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38
Q

Does salmonella have high or low infectious dose?

A

HIGH

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39
Q

Treatment for salmonella

A

fluid and electrolytes

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40
Q

diarrhea containing blood

A

dysentery

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41
Q

Does shigella have a large or small infectious dose?

A

small 10-200

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42
Q

treatment for shigella

A

no antibiotics only for immunocompromised

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43
Q

What does STEC stand for?

A

Shiga toxin producing E. coli

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44
Q

Cold symptoms typically occur how many days after infection?

A

2-3

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45
Q

Sinusitis is caused by which general types of microorganisms

A

fungi
viruses
bacteria

46
Q

The common cold is caused by which general type of microorganism?

A

rhinovirus

47
Q

Which of the following is the current treatment for uncomplicated acute otitis media

A

wait for resolution

48
Q

Which of the following is the current treatment for uncomplicated acute otitis media

A

wait for resolution

49
Q

causes the greatest number of lethal cases of pneumonia compared to any other microorganism.

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

50
Q

Atypical pneumonias are often caused by which agents?

A

Chlamydia
mycoplasma

51
Q

What fungus is often present in soils contaminated with bat or bird droppings?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

52
Q

COVID-19 was first recognized with which of the following?

A

pneumonia manifestations

53
Q

What fungal agent is responsible for frequent opportunistic infections in AIDS patients

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

54
Q

Which agents usually cause milder forms of pneumonia?

A

viruses

55
Q

Histoplasma capsulatum belongs to which group of microorganisms?

A

fungi

56
Q

Pneumocystis jiroveci belongs to which group of microorganisms?

A

fungi

57
Q

The signs and symptoms of influenza include which of the following? (7)

A

fever
FATIGUE
headache
sore throat
stuffy nose
dry cough
body aches

58
Q

Which viral agents are known to cause viral pneumonia as their primary disease?

A

hantavirus
sars coronavirus

59
Q

The influenza virus has a high level of variation in its genome due to antigenic ____ and antigenic ___

A

shift ; drift

60
Q

The influenza virus has a high level of variation in its genome due to antigenic ____ and antigenic ___

A

shift ; drift

61
Q

A major change in the influenza virus due to swapping of genetic material between different viral strains is known as which of the following?

A

antigenic shift

62
Q

Why is annual flu vaccination recommended?

A

the virus is altered by antigenic drift

63
Q

the ____ stage is the second stage of pertussis characterized by uncontrollable coughing with a distinct sound.

A

paroxysmal

64
Q

Pneumocystis jiroveci belongs to which group of microorganisms?

A

fungi

65
Q

Major changes in the influenza A virus due to recombination of viral strains from 2 different host species are referred to as antigenic ____

A

shift

66
Q

Which of the following agents usually causes minor colds in most patients, but can lead to a serious respiratory infection in young children?

A

respiratory syncytial virus

67
Q

Which of the following is the most noticeable symptom seen in the paroxysmal stage of pertussis?

A

uncontrollable cough

68
Q

An effective passive antibody preparation called ____ is used as a prevention for RSV in babies born prematurely.

A

Palivizumab

69
Q

Secondary tuberculosis is also called _____ tuberculosis

A

reactivation

70
Q

The large influx of mononuclear cells into the __ play a key role in the formation of infectious sites called tubercles in TB.

A

Lungs

71
Q

A major change in the influenza virus due to swapping of genetic material between different viral strains is known as which of the following?

A

antigenic shift

72
Q

the ____ _____ virus causes colds in most people, but can cause a potentially devastating infection in children and neonates.

A

respiratory syncytial

73
Q

the ___ stage is the second stage of pertussis characterized by uncontrollable coughing with a distinct sound.

A

paroxysmal

74
Q

Which of the following types of tuberculosis occurs when the infection spreads to other organs outside the lungs?

A

extrapulmonary

75
Q

Which of the following agents usually causes minor colds in most patients, but can lead to a serious respiratory infection in young children?

A

respiratory syncytial virus

76
Q

Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis is also known as _____.

A

MDR-TB

77
Q

List the major defenses against infection in the GI tract. (4)

A

Saliva contains lysozyme and lactoferrin
Secretory Ig A
Food kept moving via peristalsis in the GI tract
Surfaces coated with mucous layer

78
Q

The usual route of shigellosis is the — route

A

oral

79
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of shigellosis?

A

Intense abdominal pain
Fever
Nausea
Bloody stools

80
Q

Identify properties that are characteristics of Clostridioides difficile.

A

normal microbiota of the intestine
rod-shaped cells

81
Q

Which of the following properties are characteristics of Clostridoides difficile?

A

Gram-positive
rod shaped
forms endospores

82
Q

Which of the following are symptoms of Giardia infection?

A

Abdominal pain

Diarrhea of long duration

Flatulence

83
Q

Which of the following are symptoms of Giardia infection?

A

Abdominal pain

Diarrhea of long duration

Flatulence

84
Q

Which of the following properties are characteristics of Clostridoides difficile?

A

forms endospores
rod shaped
Gram-positive

85
Q

Microbes in the genus Lactobacillus thrive in the —– environment of the vagina, and discourage the growth of many other microorganisms.

A

acidic

86
Q

Candida albicans, a yeast, is found in low levels in the genital tract of which of the following?

A

healthy females

87
Q

Which of the following are common signs/symptoms of cystitis

A

Fever
Burning pain with urination
Cloudy, tinged urine
Frequent urge to urinate

88
Q

The _____ urinary tract has fewer types of microbes and lower abundance of microbes than the _____ urinary tract.

A

upper; lower

89
Q

Pyelonephritis is an infection of which of the following?

A

kidney

90
Q

In the male, the normal biota of both the — tract and the – tract are the same.

A

urinary; reproductive

91
Q

Microbes in which genus thrive in the acidic environment of the vagina, and discourage the growth of many other microorganisms?

A

Lactobacillus

92
Q

Which of the following commonly cause urinary tract infections?

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus
E. coli

93
Q

The fungus commonly found in low levels in the healthy female genital tract is

A

Candida albicans

94
Q

What is dysuria?

A

burning pain when urinating

95
Q

Which of the following are the common signs/symptoms of symptomatic gonorrhea in males?

A

urethritis
painful urination
yellowish discharge

96
Q

Neonates born to mothers with gonorrhea are at risk for which type of serious infections

A

eye

97
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause for urinary tract infections?

A

e. coli

98
Q

Gonorrhea infections are usually transmitted in which ways?

A

Maternal-neonate transmission
Sexual contact

99
Q

In males, gonorrhea infection is usually limited to which structures of the reproductive system?

A

urethra

100
Q

In males, gonorrhea infection is usually limited to which structures of the reproductive system?

A

urethra

101
Q

Females may exhibit which of the following signs/symptoms of a chlamydia infection?

A

discharge
cervicitis
salpingitis

102
Q

What infection results in inflammation of the vagina and presents with some degree of vaginal itching?

A

vaginitis

103
Q

Candida albicans is which type of microorganism?

A

fungus

104
Q

Which of the following are the possible signs/symptoms of vaginitis?

A

vaginal discharge
burning sensation
vaginal itching

105
Q

Which of the following represent stages of untreated syphilis infection in an adult?

A

tertiary
primary
secondary

106
Q

Which of the following describe the chancre of syphilis?

A

painless
hard
found at the site of entry of the pathogen

107
Q

The primary lesion seen in syphilis infections is called which of the following?

A

chancre

108
Q

a – is a painful swollen syphilitic tumor characteristic of tertiary syphilis.

A

gumma

109
Q

the – stage of syphilis infection is characterized by systemic signs and symptoms, such as rashes, hair loss, fever, and sore throat, that are eventually resolved.

A

secondary

110
Q

bladder infection

A

cystitis

111
Q

infection of kidneys

A

pyelonephritis

Micro (4 decks)

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