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Micro > Lecture test 3 (ch. 12-17) > Flashcards

Lecture test 3 (ch. 12-17) Flashcards

1
Q

blocks the portal of entry, limit access to the internal tissues of the body. GENERAL in action.

A

FIRST LINE OF DEFENSE

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2
Q

Second line of defense is the _____ immunity

A

INNATE

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3
Q

Third line of defense is the _____ immunity

A

ADAPTIVE

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4
Q

the study of all features of the bodys second and third lines of defense

A

IMMUNOLOGY

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5
Q

immune system is responsible for (3)

A
  1. Surveillance of the body
  2. Recognition of foreign material
  3. destruction of entities deemed to be foreign
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6
Q

result of immune system mistakenly attacking the body’s own tissues and organs

A

AUTOIMMUNE DISORDERS

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7
Q

what do antigens consist of

A
  • proteins and/or sugars
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8
Q

immune system monitors by examining molecules on cell surface called

A

ANTIGENS

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9
Q

Markers that many different kinds microbes have in common

A

PAMP (Pathogen-associated molecular molecular pattern)

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10
Q

Used by host cells with important roles in the innate immunity of the second line of defense. Recognized by PAMP

A

PRR (pattern recognition receptors)

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11
Q

-In direct contact with tissue cells and the extracellular fluid
-Blood and lymphatic capillaries penetrate into these tissues
-allow cells and chemicals that originate in the MPS and ECF to diffuse into the blood and lymphatics

A

MPS (Mononuclear phagocyte system)

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12
Q

Primary lymphatic organs

A

Red bone marrow
mature in thymus

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13
Q

secondary lymphatic organs

A

lymph nodes, splee, MALT, Tcells, Bcells

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14
Q

Filter for blood instead of lymph

A

Spleen

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15
Q

small active molecules secreted to regulate, stimulate, suppress, and otherwise control many aspects of cell development, inflammation

A

CYTOKINES

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16
Q

tough outer layer that is impervious and waterproof

A

STRATUM CORNEUM

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17
Q

____ are transformed into ____ after they migrate out of the bloodstream and into the tissues

A

Monocytes, macrophages

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18
Q

Viral PAMP

A

double stranded RNA

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19
Q

PRR within the cytoplasm of phagocytic cells of the innate immune system

A

Inflammasome

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20
Q

redness caused by increased circulation and vasodilation in the injured tissue

A

RUBOR

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21
Q

warmth caused by the heat given off by the increased flow of blood

A

CALOR

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22
Q

swelling caused by fluid escaping into the tissues

A

TUMOR

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23
Q

molecules that can be seen and identified by the immune system

A

ANTIGEN

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24
Q

Antigens that provoke a response are called ____

A

immunogens

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25
Q

antibodies produced against the chickenpox virus will not function against the measles

A

SPECIFICITY

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26
Q

Lymphocytes have been programmed to “recall” their first engagement with the invader and rush to the attack

A

MEMORY

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27
Q

The precise molecular group of an antigen that defines its specificity and triggers the immune response

A

EPITOPE

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28
Q

B cell maturation occurs in the

A

BONE MARROW

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29
Q

Each individual mature B and T cell has the capacity to respond to ______.

A

a single unique antigen

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30
Q

The CD4 coreceptor on CD4 T cells binds to MHC ______ molecules on antigen presenting cells.

A

2

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31
Q

Which cell type has a CD8 coreceptor on its surface?

A

cytotoxic t cell

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32
Q

pathogen carries antigen across the first line of defense …. (4)

A
  1. resident phagocyte migrate ti the site
  2. macrophages ingest the pathogen and initiate an inflammatory response
  3. dendritic cells ingest the antigen and migrate to the nearest lymphoid organ, where they process and present T and B lymphocytes
  4. Gamma-delta activated
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33
Q

found on (all) nucleated cells. produce protein markers. Used to recognize cell as self

A

MHC class 1

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34
Q

code for immune regulatory markers. Found on macrophages, dendritic cells, and b cells. present antigens to T cells during immune reaction.

A

MHC class 2

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35
Q

The immunoglobulin molecule contains ___ polypeptide chains

A

four

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36
Q

release antibodies into the tissue and the blood

A

PLASMA CELL

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37
Q

Tc cells recognize these because telltale virus peptides expressed on their surface

A

Virally infected cells

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38
Q

Tc constantly survey the tissues and immediately attack any abnormal cells they encounter

A

Cancer cells

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39
Q

b-cell activation steps (6)

A
  • binding of antigen
  • antigen processing and presentation
  • b cell/th cell cooperation and recognization
  • b cell activation
  • differentiation
  • clonal expression
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40
Q

what is formed as a result of B cell activation (3)

A
  • effector cells
  • memory cells
  • regulatory cells
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41
Q

Function of antibodies (5)

A
  • coat surface of bacterium
  • opsonization
  • neutralization
  • agglutination
  • lysing
  • antitoxin
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42
Q

process that makes microbes more readily recognized by phagocytes, so that they can dispose them

A

OPSONIZATION

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43
Q

structural and function al classes of immunoglobins

A

ISOTYPES

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44
Q

ISOTYPES (5)

A

-IgG
-IgM
-IgA
-IgD
-IgE

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45
Q

Antibody class. produced by plasma cells in a primary response and by memory cells responding the second time to a given anti-genetic stimulus. Can cross the placenta. Most prevalent.

A

IgG

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46
Q

How many binding sites does IgG have

A
  • 2
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47
Q

What antibody class can Neutralize, Opsonize and fix compliments

A

IgG

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48
Q

Dimer is secretory antibody on mucous membranes; monomer is in a small quantities in the blood.

A

IgA

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49
Q

the first exposure to an antigen the system undergoes

A

Primary response

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50
Q

When the immune system is exposed again to the same immunogen within weeks, months, ot even years

A

SECONDARY RESPONSE

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51
Q

First antibody produced during primary response

A
  • IgM. because it has the most bonding cites (10)
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52
Q

which period is the secondary response missing and what is the first antibody produced

A
  • LATENT PERIOD (because of memory cells)
  • IgG
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53
Q

immunity that is acquired through the normal biological experiences of an individual

A

NATURAL IMMUNITY

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54
Q

special binding substances required by some vaccines

A

Adjuvants

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55
Q

The ______ regions of the light and heavy chains form the antigen binding sites in an antibody.

A

variable

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56
Q

By the time T and B cells reach the lymphoid tissues, each one is already equipped to respond to ______.

A

single, unique

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57
Q

Only ________ cells require antigen to be presented on MHC class molecules.

A

T

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58
Q

________ are required by T cells for activation.

A

APC

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59
Q

________ can quickly respond upon second exposure to the eliciting antigen.

A

memory t cells

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60
Q

Granzymes are ______.

A

enzymes that attack proteins of target cells

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61
Q

Most B cells must interact with cells that bear receptors for epitopes on the same antigen to become functional. What type of cell would this be?

A

T Helper

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62
Q

attacks the proteins of a target cell

A

GRANZYME

63
Q

punches holes in the membrane of a target cell

A

PERFORIN

64
Q

The Fab fragment of an antibody molecule, with a site that recognizes the antigen, is termed the ____ _____ fragment

A

antigen binding

65
Q

Plasma cells produce copious amounts of ________.

A

antibodies

66
Q

The region of an antibody that does not bind to antigen, designated Fc, is called the _____ fragment

A

crystallizable

67
Q

The principal activity of a(n) ________ is to immobilize, call attention to, or neutralize the antigen which is complementary to its receptor.

A

ANTIBODY

68
Q

The coating of nonself molecules with antibodies to provide phagocytes with a better grip is called _____

A

OPSONIZATION

69
Q

In the blood, IgA circulates in the _______ form?

A

monomer

70
Q

long-term immunity, opsonization, neutralize toxins

A

IgG

71
Q

First antibody produced in response to antigen.

A

IgM

72
Q

allergies, worm infections

A

IgE

73
Q

secretory antibody

A

IgA

74
Q

Main function is to serve as the B cell receptor.

A

IgD

75
Q

The characteristics that define passive immunity include ______. (4)

A

lack of memory cells
lack of antibody production to pathogen
short-term effectiveness
immediate onset of protection

76
Q

True or false: The objective of vaccines is to obtain the same protective memory immune response as a natural infection.

A

true

77
Q

Which term refers to vaccines prepared from parts of organisms that are chemically bonded to proteins to make them more immunogenic?

A

Conjugated Vaccines

78
Q

Treating an intact microbe with chemicals, radiation, heat, or other agent that prevents multiplication but preserves antigenicity is used to produce a(n) ______ vaccine for a bacterium and a(n) ______ vaccine for a virus.

A

killed; inactive

79
Q

The objective of vaccines is to use modified microbes or their components to ______.

A

Obtain the same protective memory immune response as a natural infection.

80
Q

To ________ is to reduce the virulence of a pathogenic bacterium or virus.

A

attenuate

81
Q

______ immunity is the principle that when there is a large number of individuals in a population that are immune to a pathogen, it is less likely that an non-immunized member of the population will encounter the pathogen.

A

HERD

82
Q

A process that is used to reduce the virulence of a pathogen so it can be used in a live vaccine preparation is called ____

A

Attenuated

83
Q

______ is the study of disease states caused by overreactivity or underreactivity of the immune response.

A

Immunopathology

84
Q

A disease state in which immune function is incompletely developed, is suppressed, or has been destroyed is a(n) _____ disease

A

immunodeficiency

85
Q

Allergy and anaphylaxis

A

type 1 (immediate hypersensitivity involving b lymphocytes that react to allergens and make IgE)

86
Q

IgG and IgM tissue destruction

A

type 2 ( Hypersensitivity involving B lymphocytes that make IgG and IgM against antigens on the surface)

87
Q

Immune complex reactions

A

type 3

88
Q

Cell mediated (delayed) hypersensitivity

A

type 4

89
Q

A localized type I reaction is known as ______, whereas a systemic type I reaction is known as ______

A

Atopy, Anaphylaxis

90
Q

The main chemical mediators involved in the allergic response include ______.

A
  • prostaglandins
  • platelet-activating factor
  • histamine
  • serotonin
  • leukotriene
  • bradykinin
91
Q

chronic local allergy

A

ATOPIC

92
Q

systemic, sometimes fatal

A

anaphylactic

93
Q

In a range from mild to severe, the majority of type I allergies can be characterized as relatively ____

A

MILD

94
Q

immune system is incompletely developed suppressed or destroyed

A

HYPOSENSITIVITY

95
Q

takes the form of allergy or autoimmunity

A

HYPERSENSITIVITY

96
Q

exaggerated immune response that is manifested by inflammation

A

ALLERGY

97
Q

what 2 systems fail in anaphylaxis

A

airway obstructions
circulatory collapse

98
Q

______ to allergens is inherited, not the allergy to a specific substance

A

Generalized susceptibility

99
Q

Genetic bases for atopy (3)

A
  • increased IgE production
  • Increased reactivity of mast cells
  • Increased susceptibility of target tissue to allergic mediators
100
Q

allergen portal of entry (3)

A
  • gastrointestinal tract
  • respiratory tract
  • skin
101
Q

cause food allergies

A

Ingestants

102
Q

allergies caused by drugs, vaccines, hymenopteran venom (bee)

A

Injectants

103
Q

allergens that enter through the skin

A

Contactants

104
Q

airborne environmental allergens such as pollen, house dust, dander, or fungal spores.

A

INHALANTS

105
Q

Which cytokine is he fastest acting?

A

HISTAMINE

106
Q

stimulates eosiniophils to release inflammatory cytokines, escalating symptoms

A

Histamine

107
Q

bradykinin ____ capillary permiability and _____ peripheral arterial’s

A

INCREASE, DILATE

108
Q

slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis

A

LEUKOTRIENE

109
Q

________ is defined as an acute or chronic allergy of the skin associated with itching and burning sensations. Vesicular, weepy, encrusted lesions are typical in afflicted infants.

A

eczema

110
Q

Minute amounts of inhalants can trigger severe bronchoconstriction in individuals with ______.

A

asthma

111
Q

Which two terms describe the situation when immune function is incompletely developed, is suppressed, or has been destroyed?

A

immunodeficiency
hyposensitivity

112
Q

________ occurs when immune function is incompletely developed, suppressed or destroyed.

A

immunodeficiency

113
Q

A drug that counters the action of histamine and is useful in allergy treatment is a(n)

A

antihistamine

114
Q

Therapeutic exposure to known allergens designed to build tolerance and eventually prevent allergic reaction is called

A

desensitization or hyposensitivity

115
Q

Complement-assisted cell lysis by antibodies is characteristic of type ____ hypersensitivity

A

2

116
Q

Complement-assisted ______ of the fetal red blood cells is caused by anti-Rh antibodies.

A

hemolysis

117
Q

To prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn, Rh- mothers who may be carrying Rh+ fetuses receive treatment with a passive ___ preparation

A

antibody

118
Q

Type III hypersensitivities involve _____.

A

deposition of immune complexes

119
Q

The reaction of soluble antigen with antibody and the deposition of the resulting complexes in basement membranes of epithelial tissue is characteristic of Type III reaction, called a(n) _____ _____ reaction

A

immune complex

120
Q

Type II hypersensitivities involve ______.

A

complement-assisted cell lysis by antibodies

121
Q

Anti-Rh antibodies cause complement-mediated
___ of the fetal red blood cells.

A

lysis

122
Q

Antibodies are formed against thyroid-stimulating hormone receptors.

A

graves disease

123
Q

Antibodies are formed against acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions.

A

myasthenia gravis

124
Q

T cells attack insulin-producing cells.

A

type 1-diabetes

125
Q

T cells and antibodies sensitized to myelin sheath destroy neurons.

A

multiple sclerosis

126
Q

________ is a chronic autoimmunity where patients produce autoantibodies against organs and tissues or intracellular materials, such as the nucleoprotein of the nucleus and mitochondria

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

127
Q

Type II hypersensitivities involve ______

A

complement-assisted cell lysis by antibodies

128
Q

The production of antibodies against self antigens is referred to as ___

A

autoimmunity

129
Q

A disease involving a compromise in insulin function is ____ _____

A

type 1 diabetes

130
Q

The normal biota of the CNS and PNS includes _____.

A

there is no normal biota in the CNS or PNS

131
Q

Infectious agents and noninfectious causes can lead to an inflammation of the meninges called ____

A

meningitis

132
Q

Which type of microorganism causes the more serious types of meningitis?

A

BACTERIA

133
Q

Specialized cells in the central nervous system perform phagocytosis as a defensive function, including _____ and brain ____

A

microglia , macrophages

134
Q

Gram-negative cocci responsible for most serious cases of acute meningitis in young children in the United States are _____ ______ serotypes B, C, and Y.

A

Neisseria meningitidis

135
Q

An inflammation of the meninges is called

A

meningitis

136
Q

The most susceptible group to listeriosis are _____ women

A

pregnant

137
Q

Considering vaccines against S. pneumoniae, the pneumococcal vaccine recommended for children is
___ whereas _____ is the vaccine for adults.

A

prevnar, pneuomovax

138
Q

Which of the following are factors that predispose a person to meningitis caused by Cryptococcus neoformans?

A

poliomyelitis

139
Q

Which of the following are factors that predispose a person to meningitis caused by Cryptococcus neoformans?

A
  • cancer
  • steroid treatment
  • diabetes
  • immunodeficiency
140
Q

Meningitis caused by ________ is usually milder and shorter lived.

A

viruses

141
Q

The condition in which long-term survivors of poliomyelitis suffer from progressive muscle deterioration decades after infection is called _____ ____

A

post polio syndrome

142
Q

Infection with Naegleria fowleri or Acanthamoeba results in _____.

A

meningoencephalitis.

143
Q

Which disease is caused by an enteroviral infection of the spinal cord, leading to neuromuscular paralysis?

A

poliomyelitis

144
Q

Naegleria fowleri is transmitted by warm ____ water

A

fresh

145
Q

Arboviruses are transmitted by _____.

A

insects

146
Q

Toxoplasma gondii is classified as a(n) _____.

A

protozoan

147
Q

Prevention of toxoplasmosis is through proper handling of _____ and good _____

A

meat, hygiene

148
Q

_______ are proteinaceous infectious particles that contain no genetic material.

A

prions

149
Q

The proteinaceous infectious agents that are highly resistant to chemicals, radiation, and heat, and that can withstand prolonged autoclaving are called

A

prions

150
Q

A type of viral encephalitis spread by the bite of infected animals is called ___

A

rabies

151
Q

Clostridium tetani releases a powerful exotoxin that is a neurotoxin called ______

A

tetanospasmin

152
Q

_______ is caused by a species of Clostridium and causes flaccid muscle paralysis.

A

Botulism

153
Q

The botulinum toxin prevents the release of ________ at the neuromuscular junction, thus preventing muscle contraction.

A

acetylcholine

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