Lecture test 3 (ch. 12-17) Flashcards
blocks the portal of entry, limit access to the internal tissues of the body. GENERAL in action.
FIRST LINE OF DEFENSE
Second line of defense is the _____ immunity
INNATE
Third line of defense is the _____ immunity
ADAPTIVE
the study of all features of the bodys second and third lines of defense
IMMUNOLOGY
immune system is responsible for (3)
- Surveillance of the body
- Recognition of foreign material
- destruction of entities deemed to be foreign
result of immune system mistakenly attacking the body’s own tissues and organs
AUTOIMMUNE DISORDERS
what do antigens consist of
- proteins and/or sugars
immune system monitors by examining molecules on cell surface called
ANTIGENS
Markers that many different kinds microbes have in common
PAMP (Pathogen-associated molecular molecular pattern)
Used by host cells with important roles in the innate immunity of the second line of defense. Recognized by PAMP
PRR (pattern recognition receptors)
-In direct contact with tissue cells and the extracellular fluid
-Blood and lymphatic capillaries penetrate into these tissues
-allow cells and chemicals that originate in the MPS and ECF to diffuse into the blood and lymphatics
MPS (Mononuclear phagocyte system)
Primary lymphatic organs
Red bone marrow
mature in thymus
secondary lymphatic organs
lymph nodes, splee, MALT, Tcells, Bcells
Filter for blood instead of lymph
Spleen
small active molecules secreted to regulate, stimulate, suppress, and otherwise control many aspects of cell development, inflammation
CYTOKINES
tough outer layer that is impervious and waterproof
STRATUM CORNEUM
____ are transformed into ____ after they migrate out of the bloodstream and into the tissues
Monocytes, macrophages
Viral PAMP
double stranded RNA
PRR within the cytoplasm of phagocytic cells of the innate immune system
Inflammasome
redness caused by increased circulation and vasodilation in the injured tissue
RUBOR
warmth caused by the heat given off by the increased flow of blood
CALOR
swelling caused by fluid escaping into the tissues
TUMOR
molecules that can be seen and identified by the immune system
ANTIGEN
Antigens that provoke a response are called ____
immunogens
antibodies produced against the chickenpox virus will not function against the measles
SPECIFICITY
Lymphocytes have been programmed to “recall” their first engagement with the invader and rush to the attack
MEMORY
The precise molecular group of an antigen that defines its specificity and triggers the immune response
EPITOPE
B cell maturation occurs in the
BONE MARROW
Each individual mature B and T cell has the capacity to respond to ______.
a single unique antigen
The CD4 coreceptor on CD4 T cells binds to MHC ______ molecules on antigen presenting cells.
2
Which cell type has a CD8 coreceptor on its surface?
cytotoxic t cell
pathogen carries antigen across the first line of defense …. (4)
- resident phagocyte migrate ti the site
- macrophages ingest the pathogen and initiate an inflammatory response
- dendritic cells ingest the antigen and migrate to the nearest lymphoid organ, where they process and present T and B lymphocytes
- Gamma-delta activated
found on (all) nucleated cells. produce protein markers. Used to recognize cell as self
MHC class 1
code for immune regulatory markers. Found on macrophages, dendritic cells, and b cells. present antigens to T cells during immune reaction.
MHC class 2
The immunoglobulin molecule contains ___ polypeptide chains
four
release antibodies into the tissue and the blood
PLASMA CELL
Tc cells recognize these because telltale virus peptides expressed on their surface
Virally infected cells
Tc constantly survey the tissues and immediately attack any abnormal cells they encounter
Cancer cells
b-cell activation steps (6)
- binding of antigen
- antigen processing and presentation
- b cell/th cell cooperation and recognization
- b cell activation
- differentiation
- clonal expression
what is formed as a result of B cell activation (3)
- effector cells
- memory cells
- regulatory cells
Function of antibodies (5)
- coat surface of bacterium
- opsonization
- neutralization
- agglutination
- lysing
- antitoxin
process that makes microbes more readily recognized by phagocytes, so that they can dispose them
OPSONIZATION
structural and function al classes of immunoglobins
ISOTYPES
ISOTYPES (5)
-IgG
-IgM
-IgA
-IgD
-IgE
Antibody class. produced by plasma cells in a primary response and by memory cells responding the second time to a given anti-genetic stimulus. Can cross the placenta. Most prevalent.
IgG
How many binding sites does IgG have
- 2
What antibody class can Neutralize, Opsonize and fix compliments
IgG
Dimer is secretory antibody on mucous membranes; monomer is in a small quantities in the blood.
IgA
the first exposure to an antigen the system undergoes
Primary response
When the immune system is exposed again to the same immunogen within weeks, months, ot even years
SECONDARY RESPONSE
First antibody produced during primary response
- IgM. because it has the most bonding cites (10)
which period is the secondary response missing and what is the first antibody produced
- LATENT PERIOD (because of memory cells)
- IgG
immunity that is acquired through the normal biological experiences of an individual
NATURAL IMMUNITY
special binding substances required by some vaccines
Adjuvants
The ______ regions of the light and heavy chains form the antigen binding sites in an antibody.
variable
By the time T and B cells reach the lymphoid tissues, each one is already equipped to respond to ______.
single, unique
Only ________ cells require antigen to be presented on MHC class molecules.
T
________ are required by T cells for activation.
APC
________ can quickly respond upon second exposure to the eliciting antigen.
memory t cells
Granzymes are ______.
enzymes that attack proteins of target cells
Most B cells must interact with cells that bear receptors for epitopes on the same antigen to become functional. What type of cell would this be?
T Helper
attacks the proteins of a target cell
GRANZYME
punches holes in the membrane of a target cell
PERFORIN
The Fab fragment of an antibody molecule, with a site that recognizes the antigen, is termed the ____ _____ fragment
antigen binding
Plasma cells produce copious amounts of ________.
antibodies
The region of an antibody that does not bind to antigen, designated Fc, is called the _____ fragment
crystallizable
The principal activity of a(n) ________ is to immobilize, call attention to, or neutralize the antigen which is complementary to its receptor.
ANTIBODY
The coating of nonself molecules with antibodies to provide phagocytes with a better grip is called _____
OPSONIZATION
In the blood, IgA circulates in the _______ form?
monomer
long-term immunity, opsonization, neutralize toxins
IgG
First antibody produced in response to antigen.
IgM
allergies, worm infections
IgE
secretory antibody
IgA
Main function is to serve as the B cell receptor.
IgD
The characteristics that define passive immunity include ______. (4)
lack of memory cells
lack of antibody production to pathogen
short-term effectiveness
immediate onset of protection
True or false: The objective of vaccines is to obtain the same protective memory immune response as a natural infection.
true
Which term refers to vaccines prepared from parts of organisms that are chemically bonded to proteins to make them more immunogenic?
Conjugated Vaccines
Treating an intact microbe with chemicals, radiation, heat, or other agent that prevents multiplication but preserves antigenicity is used to produce a(n) ______ vaccine for a bacterium and a(n) ______ vaccine for a virus.
killed; inactive
The objective of vaccines is to use modified microbes or their components to ______.
Obtain the same protective memory immune response as a natural infection.
To ________ is to reduce the virulence of a pathogenic bacterium or virus.
attenuate
______ immunity is the principle that when there is a large number of individuals in a population that are immune to a pathogen, it is less likely that an non-immunized member of the population will encounter the pathogen.
HERD
A process that is used to reduce the virulence of a pathogen so it can be used in a live vaccine preparation is called ____
Attenuated
______ is the study of disease states caused by overreactivity or underreactivity of the immune response.
Immunopathology
A disease state in which immune function is incompletely developed, is suppressed, or has been destroyed is a(n) _____ disease
immunodeficiency
Allergy and anaphylaxis
type 1 (immediate hypersensitivity involving b lymphocytes that react to allergens and make IgE)
IgG and IgM tissue destruction
type 2 ( Hypersensitivity involving B lymphocytes that make IgG and IgM against antigens on the surface)
Immune complex reactions
type 3
Cell mediated (delayed) hypersensitivity
type 4
A localized type I reaction is known as ______, whereas a systemic type I reaction is known as ______
Atopy, Anaphylaxis
The main chemical mediators involved in the allergic response include ______.
- prostaglandins
- platelet-activating factor
- histamine
- serotonin
- leukotriene
- bradykinin
chronic local allergy
ATOPIC
systemic, sometimes fatal
anaphylactic
In a range from mild to severe, the majority of type I allergies can be characterized as relatively ____
MILD
immune system is incompletely developed suppressed or destroyed
HYPOSENSITIVITY
takes the form of allergy or autoimmunity
HYPERSENSITIVITY
exaggerated immune response that is manifested by inflammation
ALLERGY
what 2 systems fail in anaphylaxis
airway obstructions
circulatory collapse
______ to allergens is inherited, not the allergy to a specific substance
Generalized susceptibility
Genetic bases for atopy (3)
- increased IgE production
- Increased reactivity of mast cells
- Increased susceptibility of target tissue to allergic mediators
allergen portal of entry (3)
- gastrointestinal tract
- respiratory tract
- skin
cause food allergies
Ingestants
allergies caused by drugs, vaccines, hymenopteran venom (bee)
Injectants
allergens that enter through the skin
Contactants
airborne environmental allergens such as pollen, house dust, dander, or fungal spores.
INHALANTS
Which cytokine is he fastest acting?
HISTAMINE
stimulates eosiniophils to release inflammatory cytokines, escalating symptoms
Histamine
bradykinin ____ capillary permiability and _____ peripheral arterial’s
INCREASE, DILATE
slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis
LEUKOTRIENE
________ is defined as an acute or chronic allergy of the skin associated with itching and burning sensations. Vesicular, weepy, encrusted lesions are typical in afflicted infants.
eczema
Minute amounts of inhalants can trigger severe bronchoconstriction in individuals with ______.
asthma
Which two terms describe the situation when immune function is incompletely developed, is suppressed, or has been destroyed?
immunodeficiency
hyposensitivity
________ occurs when immune function is incompletely developed, suppressed or destroyed.
immunodeficiency
A drug that counters the action of histamine and is useful in allergy treatment is a(n)
antihistamine
Therapeutic exposure to known allergens designed to build tolerance and eventually prevent allergic reaction is called
desensitization or hyposensitivity
Complement-assisted cell lysis by antibodies is characteristic of type ____ hypersensitivity
2
Complement-assisted ______ of the fetal red blood cells is caused by anti-Rh antibodies.
hemolysis
To prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn, Rh- mothers who may be carrying Rh+ fetuses receive treatment with a passive ___ preparation
antibody
Type III hypersensitivities involve _____.
deposition of immune complexes
The reaction of soluble antigen with antibody and the deposition of the resulting complexes in basement membranes of epithelial tissue is characteristic of Type III reaction, called a(n) _____ _____ reaction
immune complex
Type II hypersensitivities involve ______.
complement-assisted cell lysis by antibodies
Anti-Rh antibodies cause complement-mediated
___ of the fetal red blood cells.
lysis
Antibodies are formed against thyroid-stimulating hormone receptors.
graves disease
Antibodies are formed against acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions.
myasthenia gravis
T cells attack insulin-producing cells.
type 1-diabetes
T cells and antibodies sensitized to myelin sheath destroy neurons.
multiple sclerosis
________ is a chronic autoimmunity where patients produce autoantibodies against organs and tissues or intracellular materials, such as the nucleoprotein of the nucleus and mitochondria
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Type II hypersensitivities involve ______
complement-assisted cell lysis by antibodies
The production of antibodies against self antigens is referred to as ___
autoimmunity
A disease involving a compromise in insulin function is ____ _____
type 1 diabetes
The normal biota of the CNS and PNS includes _____.
there is no normal biota in the CNS or PNS
Infectious agents and noninfectious causes can lead to an inflammation of the meninges called ____
meningitis
Which type of microorganism causes the more serious types of meningitis?
BACTERIA
Specialized cells in the central nervous system perform phagocytosis as a defensive function, including _____ and brain ____
microglia , macrophages
Gram-negative cocci responsible for most serious cases of acute meningitis in young children in the United States are _____ ______ serotypes B, C, and Y.
Neisseria meningitidis
An inflammation of the meninges is called
meningitis
The most susceptible group to listeriosis are _____ women
pregnant
Considering vaccines against S. pneumoniae, the pneumococcal vaccine recommended for children is
___ whereas _____ is the vaccine for adults.
prevnar, pneuomovax
Which of the following are factors that predispose a person to meningitis caused by Cryptococcus neoformans?
poliomyelitis
Which of the following are factors that predispose a person to meningitis caused by Cryptococcus neoformans?
- cancer
- steroid treatment
- diabetes
- immunodeficiency
Meningitis caused by ________ is usually milder and shorter lived.
viruses
The condition in which long-term survivors of poliomyelitis suffer from progressive muscle deterioration decades after infection is called _____ ____
post polio syndrome
Infection with Naegleria fowleri or Acanthamoeba results in _____.
meningoencephalitis.
Which disease is caused by an enteroviral infection of the spinal cord, leading to neuromuscular paralysis?
poliomyelitis
Naegleria fowleri is transmitted by warm ____ water
fresh
Arboviruses are transmitted by _____.
insects
Toxoplasma gondii is classified as a(n) _____.
protozoan
Prevention of toxoplasmosis is through proper handling of _____ and good _____
meat, hygiene
_______ are proteinaceous infectious particles that contain no genetic material.
prions
The proteinaceous infectious agents that are highly resistant to chemicals, radiation, and heat, and that can withstand prolonged autoclaving are called
prions
A type of viral encephalitis spread by the bite of infected animals is called ___
rabies
Clostridium tetani releases a powerful exotoxin that is a neurotoxin called ______
tetanospasmin
_______ is caused by a species of Clostridium and causes flaccid muscle paralysis.
Botulism
The botulinum toxin prevents the release of ________ at the neuromuscular junction, thus preventing muscle contraction.
acetylcholine
