Lecture test 3 (ch. 12-17) Flashcards
(153 cards)
1
Q
blocks the portal of entry, limit access to the internal tissues of the body. GENERAL in action.
A
FIRST LINE OF DEFENSE
2
Q
Second line of defense is the _____ immunity
A
INNATE
3
Q
Third line of defense is the _____ immunity
A
ADAPTIVE
4
Q
the study of all features of the bodys second and third lines of defense
A
IMMUNOLOGY
5
Q
immune system is responsible for (3)
A
- Surveillance of the body
- Recognition of foreign material
- destruction of entities deemed to be foreign
6
Q
result of immune system mistakenly attacking the body’s own tissues and organs
A
AUTOIMMUNE DISORDERS
7
Q
what do antigens consist of
A
- proteins and/or sugars
8
Q
immune system monitors by examining molecules on cell surface called
A
ANTIGENS
9
Q
Markers that many different kinds microbes have in common
A
PAMP (Pathogen-associated molecular molecular pattern)
10
Q
Used by host cells with important roles in the innate immunity of the second line of defense. Recognized by PAMP
A
PRR (pattern recognition receptors)
11
Q
-In direct contact with tissue cells and the extracellular fluid
-Blood and lymphatic capillaries penetrate into these tissues
-allow cells and chemicals that originate in the MPS and ECF to diffuse into the blood and lymphatics
A
MPS (Mononuclear phagocyte system)
12
Q
Primary lymphatic organs
A
Red bone marrow
mature in thymus
13
Q
secondary lymphatic organs
A
lymph nodes, splee, MALT, Tcells, Bcells
14
Q
Filter for blood instead of lymph
A
Spleen
15
Q
small active molecules secreted to regulate, stimulate, suppress, and otherwise control many aspects of cell development, inflammation
A
CYTOKINES
16
Q
tough outer layer that is impervious and waterproof
A
STRATUM CORNEUM
17
Q
____ are transformed into ____ after they migrate out of the bloodstream and into the tissues
A
Monocytes, macrophages
18
Q
Viral PAMP
A
double stranded RNA
19
Q
PRR within the cytoplasm of phagocytic cells of the innate immune system
A
Inflammasome
20
Q
redness caused by increased circulation and vasodilation in the injured tissue
A
RUBOR
21
Q
warmth caused by the heat given off by the increased flow of blood
A
CALOR
22
Q
swelling caused by fluid escaping into the tissues
A
TUMOR
23
Q
molecules that can be seen and identified by the immune system
A
ANTIGEN
24
Q
Antigens that provoke a response are called ____
A
immunogens
25
antibodies produced against the chickenpox virus will not function against the measles
SPECIFICITY
26
Lymphocytes have been programmed to "recall" their first engagement with the invader and rush to the attack
MEMORY
27
The precise molecular group of an antigen that defines its specificity and triggers the immune response
EPITOPE
28
B cell maturation occurs in the
BONE MARROW
29
Each individual mature B and T cell has the capacity to respond to ______.
a single unique antigen
30
The CD4 coreceptor on CD4 T cells binds to MHC ______ molecules on antigen presenting cells.
2
31
Which cell type has a CD8 coreceptor on its surface?
cytotoxic t cell
32
pathogen carries antigen across the first line of defense .... (4)
1. resident phagocyte migrate ti the site
2. macrophages ingest the pathogen and initiate an inflammatory response
3. dendritic cells ingest the antigen and migrate to the nearest lymphoid organ, where they process and present T and B lymphocytes
4. Gamma-delta activated
33
found on (all) nucleated cells. produce protein markers. Used to recognize cell as self
MHC class 1
34
code for immune regulatory markers. Found on macrophages, dendritic cells, and b cells. present antigens to T cells during immune reaction.
MHC class 2
35
The immunoglobulin molecule contains ___ polypeptide chains
four
36
release antibodies into the tissue and the blood
PLASMA CELL
37
Tc cells recognize these because telltale virus peptides expressed on their surface
Virally infected cells
38
Tc constantly survey the tissues and immediately attack any abnormal cells they encounter
Cancer cells
39
b-cell activation steps (6)
- binding of antigen
- antigen processing and presentation
- b cell/th cell cooperation and recognization
- b cell activation
- differentiation
- clonal expression
40
what is formed as a result of B cell activation (3)
- effector cells
- memory cells
- regulatory cells
41
Function of antibodies (5)
- coat surface of bacterium
- opsonization
- neutralization
- agglutination
- lysing
- antitoxin
42
process that makes microbes more readily recognized by phagocytes, so that they can dispose them
OPSONIZATION
43
structural and function al classes of immunoglobins
ISOTYPES
44
ISOTYPES (5)
-IgG
-IgM
-IgA
-IgD
-IgE
45
Antibody class. produced by plasma cells in a primary response and by memory cells responding the second time to a given anti-genetic stimulus. Can cross the placenta. Most prevalent.
IgG
46
How many binding sites does IgG have
- 2
47
What antibody class can Neutralize, Opsonize and fix compliments
IgG
48
Dimer is secretory antibody on mucous membranes; monomer is in a small quantities in the blood.
IgA
49
the first exposure to an antigen the system undergoes
Primary response
50
When the immune system is exposed again to the same immunogen within weeks, months, ot even years
SECONDARY RESPONSE
51
First antibody produced during primary response
- IgM. because it has the most bonding cites (10)
52
which period is the secondary response missing and what is the first antibody produced
- LATENT PERIOD (because of memory cells)
- IgG
53
immunity that is acquired through the normal biological experiences of an individual
NATURAL IMMUNITY
54
special binding substances required by some vaccines
Adjuvants
55
The ______ regions of the light and heavy chains form the antigen binding sites in an antibody.
variable
56
By the time T and B cells reach the lymphoid tissues, each one is already equipped to respond to ______.
single, unique
57
Only ________ cells require antigen to be presented on MHC class molecules.
T
58
________ are required by T cells for activation.
APC
59
________ can quickly respond upon second exposure to the eliciting antigen.
memory t cells
60
Granzymes are ______.
enzymes that attack proteins of target cells
61
Most B cells must interact with cells that bear receptors for epitopes on the same antigen to become functional. What type of cell would this be?
T Helper
62
attacks the proteins of a target cell
GRANZYME
63
punches holes in the membrane of a target cell
PERFORIN
64
The Fab fragment of an antibody molecule, with a site that recognizes the antigen, is termed the ____ _____ fragment
antigen binding
65
Plasma cells produce copious amounts of ________.
antibodies
66
The region of an antibody that does not bind to antigen, designated Fc, is called the _____ fragment
crystallizable
67
The principal activity of a(n) ________ is to immobilize, call attention to, or neutralize the antigen which is complementary to its receptor.
ANTIBODY
68
The coating of nonself molecules with antibodies to provide phagocytes with a better grip is called _____
OPSONIZATION
69
In the blood, IgA circulates in the _______ form?
monomer
70
long-term immunity, opsonization, neutralize toxins
IgG
71
First antibody produced in response to antigen.
IgM
72
allergies, worm infections
IgE
73
secretory antibody
IgA
74
Main function is to serve as the B cell receptor.
IgD
75
The characteristics that define passive immunity include ______. (4)
lack of memory cells
lack of antibody production to pathogen
short-term effectiveness
immediate onset of protection
76
True or false: The objective of vaccines is to obtain the same protective memory immune response as a natural infection.
true
77
Which term refers to vaccines prepared from parts of organisms that are chemically bonded to proteins to make them more immunogenic?
Conjugated Vaccines
78
Treating an intact microbe with chemicals, radiation, heat, or other agent that prevents multiplication but preserves antigenicity is used to produce a(n) ______ vaccine for a bacterium and a(n) ______ vaccine for a virus.
killed; inactive
79
The objective of vaccines is to use modified microbes or their components to ______.
Obtain the same protective memory immune response as a natural infection.
80
To ________ is to reduce the virulence of a pathogenic bacterium or virus.
attenuate
81
______ immunity is the principle that when there is a large number of individuals in a population that are immune to a pathogen, it is less likely that an non-immunized member of the population will encounter the pathogen.
HERD
82
A process that is used to reduce the virulence of a pathogen so it can be used in a live vaccine preparation is called ____
Attenuated
83
______ is the study of disease states caused by overreactivity or underreactivity of the immune response.
Immunopathology
84
A disease state in which immune function is incompletely developed, is suppressed, or has been destroyed is a(n) _____ disease
immunodeficiency
85
Allergy and anaphylaxis
type 1 (immediate hypersensitivity involving b lymphocytes that react to allergens and make IgE)
86
IgG and IgM tissue destruction
type 2 ( Hypersensitivity involving B lymphocytes that make IgG and IgM against antigens on the surface)
87
Immune complex reactions
type 3
88
Cell mediated (delayed) hypersensitivity
type 4
89
A localized type I reaction is known as ______, whereas a systemic type I reaction is known as ______
Atopy, Anaphylaxis
90
The main chemical mediators involved in the allergic response include ______.
- prostaglandins
- platelet-activating factor
- histamine
- serotonin
- leukotriene
- bradykinin
91
chronic local allergy
ATOPIC
92
systemic, sometimes fatal
anaphylactic
93
In a range from mild to severe, the majority of type I allergies can be characterized as relatively ____
MILD
94
immune system is incompletely developed suppressed or destroyed
HYPOSENSITIVITY
95
takes the form of allergy or autoimmunity
HYPERSENSITIVITY
96
exaggerated immune response that is manifested by inflammation
ALLERGY
97
what 2 systems fail in anaphylaxis
airway obstructions
circulatory collapse
98
______ to allergens is inherited, not the allergy to a specific substance
Generalized susceptibility
99
Genetic bases for atopy (3)
- increased IgE production
- Increased reactivity of mast cells
- Increased susceptibility of target tissue to allergic mediators
100
allergen portal of entry (3)
- gastrointestinal tract
- respiratory tract
- skin
101
cause food allergies
Ingestants
102
allergies caused by drugs, vaccines, hymenopteran venom (bee)
Injectants
103
allergens that enter through the skin
Contactants
104
airborne environmental allergens such as pollen, house dust, dander, or fungal spores.
INHALANTS
105
Which cytokine is he fastest acting?
HISTAMINE
106
stimulates eosiniophils to release inflammatory cytokines, escalating symptoms
Histamine
107
bradykinin ____ capillary permiability and _____ peripheral arterial's
INCREASE, DILATE
108
slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis
LEUKOTRIENE
109
________ is defined as an acute or chronic allergy of the skin associated with itching and burning sensations. Vesicular, weepy, encrusted lesions are typical in afflicted infants.
eczema
110
Minute amounts of inhalants can trigger severe bronchoconstriction in individuals with ______.
asthma
111
Which two terms describe the situation when immune function is incompletely developed, is suppressed, or has been destroyed?
immunodeficiency
hyposensitivity
112
________ occurs when immune function is incompletely developed, suppressed or destroyed.
immunodeficiency
113
A drug that counters the action of histamine and is useful in allergy treatment is a(n)
antihistamine
114
Therapeutic exposure to known allergens designed to build tolerance and eventually prevent allergic reaction is called
desensitization or hyposensitivity
115
Complement-assisted cell lysis by antibodies is characteristic of type ____ hypersensitivity
2
116
Complement-assisted ______ of the fetal red blood cells is caused by anti-Rh antibodies.
hemolysis
117
To prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn, Rh- mothers who may be carrying Rh+ fetuses receive treatment with a passive ___ preparation
antibody
118
Type III hypersensitivities involve _____.
deposition of immune complexes
119
The reaction of soluble antigen with antibody and the deposition of the resulting complexes in basement membranes of epithelial tissue is characteristic of Type III reaction, called a(n) _____ _____ reaction
immune complex
120
Type II hypersensitivities involve ______.
complement-assisted cell lysis by antibodies
121
Anti-Rh antibodies cause complement-mediated
___ of the fetal red blood cells.
lysis
122
Antibodies are formed against thyroid-stimulating hormone receptors.
graves disease
123
Antibodies are formed against acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions.
myasthenia gravis
124
T cells attack insulin-producing cells.
type 1-diabetes
125
T cells and antibodies sensitized to myelin sheath destroy neurons.
multiple sclerosis
126
________ is a chronic autoimmunity where patients produce autoantibodies against organs and tissues or intracellular materials, such as the nucleoprotein of the nucleus and mitochondria
Systemic lupus erythematosus
127
Type II hypersensitivities involve ______
complement-assisted cell lysis by antibodies
128
The production of antibodies against self antigens is referred to as ___
autoimmunity
129
A disease involving a compromise in insulin function is ____ _____
type 1 diabetes
130
The normal biota of the CNS and PNS includes _____.
there is no normal biota in the CNS or PNS
131
Infectious agents and noninfectious causes can lead to an inflammation of the meninges called ____
meningitis
132
Which type of microorganism causes the more serious types of meningitis?
BACTERIA
133
Specialized cells in the central nervous system perform phagocytosis as a defensive function, including _____ and brain ____
microglia , macrophages
134
Gram-negative cocci responsible for most serious cases of acute meningitis in young children in the United States are _____ ______ serotypes B, C, and Y.
Neisseria meningitidis
135
An inflammation of the meninges is called
meningitis
136
The most susceptible group to listeriosis are _____ women
pregnant
137
Considering vaccines against S. pneumoniae, the pneumococcal vaccine recommended for children is
___ whereas _____ is the vaccine for adults.
prevnar, pneuomovax
138
Which of the following are factors that predispose a person to meningitis caused by Cryptococcus neoformans?
poliomyelitis
139
Which of the following are factors that predispose a person to meningitis caused by Cryptococcus neoformans?
- cancer
- steroid treatment
- diabetes
- immunodeficiency
140
Meningitis caused by ________ is usually milder and shorter lived.
viruses
141
The condition in which long-term survivors of poliomyelitis suffer from progressive muscle deterioration decades after infection is called _____ ____
post polio syndrome
142
Infection with Naegleria fowleri or Acanthamoeba results in _____.
meningoencephalitis.
143
Which disease is caused by an enteroviral infection of the spinal cord, leading to neuromuscular paralysis?
poliomyelitis
144
Naegleria fowleri is transmitted by warm ____ water
fresh
145
Arboviruses are transmitted by _____.
insects
146
Toxoplasma gondii is classified as a(n) _____.
protozoan
147
Prevention of toxoplasmosis is through proper handling of _____ and good _____
meat, hygiene
148
_______ are proteinaceous infectious particles that contain no genetic material.
prions
149
The proteinaceous infectious agents that are highly resistant to chemicals, radiation, and heat, and that can withstand prolonged autoclaving are called
prions
150
A type of viral encephalitis spread by the bite of infected animals is called ___
rabies
151
Clostridium tetani releases a powerful exotoxin that is a neurotoxin called ______
tetanospasmin
152
_______ is caused by a species of Clostridium and causes flaccid muscle paralysis.
Botulism
153
The botulinum toxin prevents the release of ________ at the neuromuscular junction, thus preventing muscle contraction.
acetylcholine
