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Anatomy > Unit 2 > Flashcards

Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the functions of the integumentary system?

A

Protection, Immunologic, Homeostasis, Sensory, Endocrine, Exocrine

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2
Q

What are the main components of the integumentary system?

A

Skin, Epidermal Derivatives (hair follicles and hair, nails, sweat (sudoriferous) glands, sebaceous (oil) glands)

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3
Q

How many layers is the skin and what are they?

A

2; epidermis and dermis

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4
Q

What are the characteristics of the epidermis?

A

top layer, avascular, keratinized stratified squamous epithelium, derived from ectoderm

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5
Q

What are the characteristics of the dermis?

A

Deep layer, vascularized, connective tissue, derived from mesoderm, 2 separate layers

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6
Q

What lies deep to the skin?

A

Subcutaneous Layer

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7
Q

What is the subcutaneous layer made of?

A

adipose tissue and vasculature

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8
Q

Where is thick skin found?

A

Palms of the hands and soles of the feet

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9
Q

What makes up thick skin/epidermis?

A

it is just a much thicker epidermal layer; it is also hairless

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10
Q

Where do you find thin skin/epidermis?

A

everywhere except the palms of the hands and soles of the feet (has hair follicles)

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11
Q

What area of the body is skin the thickest?

A

the upper back

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12
Q

What are the layers of skin from superficial to deep?

A

Stratum corneum –>Stratum lucidum–>Stratum granulosum–>Stratum spinosum–>Stratum basale
(thin skin does not have a stratum lucidum)

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13
Q

What is the mnemonic for the layers of the skin?

A

Bad Sprinters Get Leg Cramps

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14
Q

What 4 cells are associated with the epidermis?

A

keratinocytes, melanocytes, Langerhan’s cells, Merkel’s cells

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15
Q

What do keratinocytes do?

A

Produce keratins

Participate in formation of a water barrier

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16
Q

What do melanocytes do?

A

Produce pigment

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17
Q

What do Langerhan’s cells do?

A

antigen presenting cells of the immune system

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18
Q

What do Merkel’s cells do and where are they found?

A

mechanoreceptor cells associated with sensory nerve endings; found in the stratum basale

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19
Q

What cell is the most predominant in the epidermis?

A

keratinocyte

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20
Q

What is formed from keratin proteins?

A

keratin filaments

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21
Q

What type of filament are keratin filaments classified as?

A

intermediate filaments (tonofilaments)

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22
Q

Keratinocytes within the stratum spinosum produce….?

A

lamellar bodies

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23
Q

What is a lamellar body?

A

tubular, lipid containing organelle that aids in water barrier function of the epidermis

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24
Q

Where are lamellar bodies secreted?

A

intracellular space between the stratum granulosum and the stratum corneum - this is where they participate in the formation of the epidermal water barrier

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25
Q

What are some characteristics of the stratum basale?

A

single layer of cells, sometimes cuboidal or columnar, mitotically active, has stem cells that give rise to keratinocytes, adjacent to the dermis, production of intermediate filaments (keratin) begins here

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26
Q

What are some characteristics of the stratum spinosum?

A

many layers, keratinocytes are larger and have cytoplasmic spine-like processes

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27
Q

How do the spine processes of the stratum spinosum attach to one another?

A

desmosomes (macula adherens)

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28
Q

What are tonofibrils?

A

intermediate filaments (tonofilaments)

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29
Q

Where do tonofibrils begin to form?

A

stratum spinosum

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30
Q

What initiates the bundling of tonifibrils?

A

keratohyalin granules

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31
Q

Where are keratohyalin granules synthesized?

A

upper layers of stratum spinosum

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32
Q

How many cell layers are in the stratum granulosum?

A

1 to 3, (very basophilic because of keratohyalin granules)

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33
Q

What layer of epidermis are lamellar bodies released?

A

stratum granulosum

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34
Q

Where are tonofilaments actually bundled into tonofibrils?

A

stratum granulosum or stratum spinosum

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35
Q

keratinization

A

conversion of granular cells into cornified cells

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36
Q

Describe the composition of stratum lucidum

A

thin, translucent layer of eosinophilic cells

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37
Q

In what layer of the epidermis do the nucleus, cytoplasm, and other organelles begin to disappear from a cell?

A

stratum lucidum

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38
Q

Describe the cells of the stratum corneum

A

no nucleus, no cytoplasmic organelles, filled with 85% keratin

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39
Q

What layer of the epidermis are the melanocytes found?

A

stratum basale and their dendritic projections reach to the stratum spinosum

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40
Q

What pigment do melanocytes produce and secrete?

A

melanin

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41
Q

Where is melanin specifically synthesized and stored?

A

an organelle called a melanosome within the melanocyte

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42
Q

When the melanosomes travel to the dendritic processes of the melanocyte, they are released between keratinocytes. This is where melanin is released. True or False?

A

True

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43
Q

What function does melanin have?

A

protect the nuclei/genetic information in the keratinocytes from UV radiation

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44
Q

Where are Langerhan’s cells derived from?

A

bone marrow

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45
Q

What path does a Langerhan’s cell take to relay information it has accumulated within the epidermis?

A

Gather antigen information in epidermis –> travel to near by lymph node–>presents processed antigen to a T-lymphocyte

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46
Q

What staining technique is used on Langerhan cells?

A

immunostaining

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47
Q

What are some characteristics of Merkel cells?

A

lobed nuclei, neurosecretory cells in their cytoplasm

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48
Q

What makes up Mekel’s Corpuscle?

A

Merkel cell and afferent nerve fibers

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49
Q

3 types of skin cancer

A

basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, malignant cell melanoma

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50
Q

Characteristics of basal cell carcinoma

A

most common type of skin cancer, usually does not metastasize, slow growing, resembles cells in the stratum basale

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51
Q

Characteristics of squamous cell carcinoma

A

second most common type of skin cancer, more prone to metastasize than basal cell, atypical cells all throughout the epidermis

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52
Q

Characteristics of malignant cell melanoma

A

most serious type of skin cancer, presents on surface of epidermis, asymmetrical, varies in color, originates from melanocytes

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53
Q

What are the two layers of the dermis?

A

papillary and reticular

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54
Q

What is the papillary dermis layer made of?

A

loose areolar connective tissue

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55
Q

What are dermal papillae?

A

finger like connective tissue projections

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56
Q

What is the reticular dermis layer made of?

A

dense irregular connective tissue

thicker than papillary

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57
Q

What is the Pacinian Corpuscle?

A

encapsulated nerve (myelinated) ending detecting pressure changes and vibration in the skin

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58
Q

Where is the Pacinian corpuscle found?

A

dermis and hypodermis

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59
Q

What is the Meissner’s Corpuscle?

A

encapsulated nerve (unmyelinated) endings that detect light touch in hairless skin areas (lips, palms of hands, soles of feet)

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60
Q

What are epidermal skin appendages?

A

down growths of epidermal epithelium during embryological development

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61
Q

Examples of epidermal skin appendages

A

hair, hair follicles, Eccrine sweat glands, Apocrine sweat glands, sebaceous glands

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62
Q

Arrector pili muscle

A

smooth muscle connected to the connected tissue around a hair follicle to the papillary dermis layer; makes hair stand on end when contracting (goosebumps)

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63
Q

What innervation is associated with the arrector pili muscles?

A

sympathetic nerve innervation

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64
Q

What are the different types of sweat glands?

A

eccrine and apocrine

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65
Q

Where are eccrine sweat glands found?

A

all over body except lips and external genetalia

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66
Q

Where are apocrine sweat glands found?

A

axillary and perineal areas

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67
Q

Functions for cartilage

A

model for developing bone
movement
cushion

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68
Q

Functions for bone

A

Support
Movement
Protection
Hematopoiesis

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69
Q

What two places do cells of bones and cartilage derive from?

A

Mesenchyme Derivative

Hematopoietic Derivative

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70
Q

What cells build/lay down cartilage?

A

Chondroblasts

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71
Q

What cells make up “mature” cartilage?

A

Chondrocytes

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72
Q

What cells build/lay down bone?

A

Osteoblasts

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73
Q

What cells are described as ‘osteoblasts surrounded by the matrix they secrete’?

A

Osteocytes

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74
Q

What cells break down bone?

A

Osteoclasts

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75
Q

Which cells are derived from mesenchymal cells?

A

chondrocytes, chondroblasts, osteocytes, osteoblasts

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76
Q

Which cells are derived from hematopoietic cells?

A

osteoclasts

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77
Q

What are the three types of cartilage?

A

hyaline, elastic, fibrocartilage

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78
Q

Where can you find hyaline cartilage?

A

epiphyseal plate, articular surface within synovial joints

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79
Q

What are the zones of the epiphyseal plate?

A

reserve, proliferation, hypertrophy, mineralization

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80
Q

Where is fibrocartilage found?

A

tendon (bone to muscle), ligaments (bone to bone), and some joints (sutures, pubic symphysis)

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81
Q

Fibrocartilage contains a perichondrium. True or False

A

False

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82
Q

What type of collagen makes up fibrocartilage?

A

Type I and II collagen

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83
Q

Freshly layed bone is termed…?

A

primary spongiosa

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84
Q

Matured bone is termed…?

A

secondary spongiosa

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85
Q

Two structure types of bone

A

compact bone (outer) and spongy bone (inner)

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86
Q

Lines the inner layer of bone structures

A

Endosteum

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87
Q

Lines the outer layer of bone structures

A

Periosteum

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88
Q

What makes up bone tissue?

A

Type I collagen (organic) and hydroxyapatite (inorganic)

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89
Q

What makes up the ground substance of bone?

A

proteoglycans and noncollagen molecules

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90
Q

What are some characteristics of an osteoblast?

A

mononucleated, cuboidal in shape (somewhat flat), mitotic

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91
Q

What function do osteoblasts have?

A

synthesize organic bone matrix

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92
Q

What is an osteocyte?

A

an osteoblast trapped in the matrix is releases

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93
Q

How do osteocytes communicate with each other?

A

through canuliculi

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94
Q

How do osteocytes connect to one another?

A

Haversian canals

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95
Q

How do osteocytes connect to the bone surface?

A

Volkmann’s canals

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96
Q

What are of the epiphyseal plate are cells mitotic?

A

the zone of proliferation

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97
Q

What cartilage is responsible for interstitial growth?

A

Hyaline cartilage

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98
Q

What cartilage is responsible for appositional growth?

A

Elastic cartilage

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99
Q

Define appostional growth.

A

Growing in thickness by addition of extracellular matrix

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100
Q

Define interstitial growth.

A

Growth in length

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101
Q

What cells are found in fibrocartilage?

A

chondrocytes and fibroblasts

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102
Q

Do hyaline and elastic cartilages have a perichondrium?

A

yes

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103
Q

Why are molecules like glycose aminoglycans and proteoglycans present in cartilage?

A

To help stabilize the cartilage because without them cartilage is unstable

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104
Q

What are the osteoblasts in the craniofacial skeleton derived from?

A

ectomesenchymal cells (neural crest cells)

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105
Q

What type of cells secrete collagen type I?

A

fibroblasts, osteoblasts, odontoblasts

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106
Q

What is a bone lining cell?

A

a cell that lines the bone and has communication with the osteocytes through Volkmann’s canals

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107
Q

Are there more osteocytes in woven bone or lamellar bone?

A

Woven bone

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108
Q

What is the mechanical role of an osteocyte?

A

Sensory - sense where more bone needs to be laid down or taken away

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109
Q

Can osteocytes degrade bone?

A

Yes, through a process known as osteocytic osteolysis

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110
Q

True or False - An osteoclast is mononuclear.

A

False they are multinucleated

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111
Q

What are osteoclasts derived from?

A

hematopoietic lineage

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112
Q

What are the hollowed out depressions created by osteoclasts?

A

Howship lacunae

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113
Q

When is an osteoclast active?

A

When it is attached to bone

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114
Q

How does an osteoclast degrade bone matrix?

A

through hydrogen ions, acid phosphatase, cathepsin k

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115
Q

What is an osteoid?

A

noncalcified bone matrix

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116
Q

What makes up the osteoid?

A

collagen I and ground substance

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117
Q

Where do you find woven bone?

A

in a fetus or an area of bone fracture

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118
Q

Term for primary immature bone

A

woven bone

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119
Q

Is woven bone organized?

A

no, it is haphazard. This makes it weak

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120
Q

What is the organizing unit of compact bone?

A

osteon (AKA Haversian system)

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121
Q

What is a lamella?

A

layers in compact bone

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122
Q

What are found within an osteon?

A

blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, nerves, osteocytes, calcified matrix

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123
Q

Where can you find compact bone?

A

shaft of all long bones and the external layer of all bones

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124
Q

What is cancellous bone?

A

spongy bone

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125
Q

Where do you find spongy bone?

A

irregular bones, epiphysis of long bones, short or flat bones

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126
Q

What type of bone remodels faster? spongy or compact

A

spongy

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127
Q

What is within the spaces of spongy bone

A

bone marrow

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128
Q

Where does hematopoiesis take place?

A

bone marrow

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129
Q

Where on the bone can you find osteoblasts?

A

area where there is more stress on the bone

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130
Q

Where can you find osteoclasts on the bone?

A

area where there is less stress

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131
Q

What supplies the periosteum with blood?

A

periosteal arteries

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132
Q

What supplies the diaphysis of a long bone and red bone marrow with blood?

A

nutrient arteries

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133
Q

What supplies the epiphysis and red bond marrow with blood?

A

metaphyseal and epiphyseal arteries

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134
Q

What does more pyrophosphate in the body do?

A

inhibits bone mineralization

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135
Q

What does more orthophosphate in the body do?

A

promotes bone mineralization

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136
Q

What is the primary mineral component of bone?

A

hydroxyapatite = calcium + phosphate

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137
Q

In what forms does phosphate exist in the body?

A

phosphate, monohydrogen phosphate, dihydrogen phosphate

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138
Q

At what pH does hydroxyapatite form?

A

pH must be above 7

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139
Q

What molecules can replace phosphate ion in hydroxyapatite to make it stronger since hydroxyapatite is so brittle?

A

carbonates (increases solubility), fluoride (decreases solubility), chlorides

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140
Q

What does TNAP (tissue nonspecific alkaline phosphatase) or ALP (alkaline phosphatase) do?

A

It is an enzyme that cleaves pyrophosphate to create orthophosphate.

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141
Q

How do osteoblasts build bone?

A

through matrix vessicles i.e. build up of hydroxyapatite in matrix vessicle until it erupts and precipitates onto a scaffold (collagen) so it can grow

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142
Q

What two processes build bone?

A

endochondral and intermembranous

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143
Q

What is endochondral bone?

A

bone build from a cartilaginous model

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144
Q

What is intermembranous bone?

A

bone developed from mesenchymal membrane

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145
Q

Is cartilage vascularized?

A

no

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146
Q

Is bone vascularized?

A

yes

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147
Q

Where does endochondral formation of bone take place?

A

long bones, vertebrae, ribs, and portions of the skull

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148
Q

What is the progression of endochondral bone?

A
  1. condensation of mesenchyme
  2. cartilage cells differentiate from mesenchymal cells
  3. perichondrium forms giving rise to the cartilage model
  4. rapid growth of cartilaginous tissue in the core of structure (interstitial growth)
  5. Appositional growth occurs through cell proliferation and matrix formation
  6. Continues to develop toward the metaphysis in long bones resulting in longitudinal columns of cells
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149
Q

How is the epiphyseal plate formed?

A

A secondary ossification center is formed in a bone, sandwiching the cartilaginous area between the two ossification centers

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150
Q

When to interstitial growth cease?

A

When cartilage cells stop proliferating and the growth plate becomes ossified

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151
Q

How is intermembranous bone formed?

A

Mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts in areas that are concurrently being heavily vascularized.
laying down woven bone that will be replaced by lamellar bone which results in primary osteons.

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152
Q

Where does intermembranous bone formation occur?

A

cranial vault, maxilla, portions of the long bones, and portions of the mandible

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153
Q

Are collagen fibers in woven bone spread out or tightly compact?

A

spread out with a lot of space in between each collagen fiber

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154
Q

Are collagen fibers in lamellar bone spread out or tightly compact?

A

tightly compact

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155
Q

Within the sutures of the skull, what layer do the bone cells reside?

A

cambium layer - this is where bone formation occurs

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156
Q

Initial laying down of bone is…?

A

bone modeling

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157
Q

replacing old by with new bone is termed…?

A

bone remodeling

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158
Q

How is bone turnover controlled?

A

through homeostasis

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159
Q

What are the steps in bone turnover?

A

Activation, Resorption, Reversal, Formation, Resting

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160
Q

During formation in bone turnover, what are the osteoblasts producing to stop osteoclasts from continuing bone resorption?

A

osteoprotegrin

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161
Q

If osteoblasts needed to signal the osteoclasts to continue bone resporption, what would be produced?

A

RANKL

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162
Q

What occurs during osteoporosis?

A

bone resorption exceeds bone formation

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163
Q

How does a fracture effect bone healing?

A

It depends on the extent of the fracture. If the periosteum is effected, that makes bone healing more difficult because that is where bone is laid down. Also depends if the pt has disorders, vascularization, etc.

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164
Q

What factors affect bone healing?

A

vascularization, periosteum, soft tissue damage, movement of limb (some movement can help, excessive movement can hurt)

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165
Q

What is a non-union during bone healing?

A

Where fibrous tissues forms where you want bony tissue

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166
Q

What is direct fracture healing?

A

Not needing a cartilaginous precursor (similar to intermembranous bone formation)

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167
Q

When does direct fracture healing occur?

A

when the bone is in “absolute” stability

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168
Q

What is a cutting cone?

A

When osteoclasts are breaking down bone they form a cutting cone in the bone

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169
Q

What is a closing cone?

A

When osteoblasts follow the cutting cone, closing it by laying down new bone

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170
Q

What is being remodeled during direct healing?

A

the osteons

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171
Q

What is indirect fracture healing?

A

when you don’t have direct osteonal contact so you need a cartilaginous precursor to lay new bone - likely the type of healing when you have movement

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172
Q

Motion drives callus (cartilage) formation - True or Falso?

A

True

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173
Q

What are the phases of indirect bone healing?

A

inflammation, soft callus, hard callus, remodeling

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174
Q

What tools are used to restrict movement for bone healing

A

casts, splints, reductions, surgery, traction

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175
Q

When does inflammation occur after a fracture?

A

1-7 days

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176
Q

What cells are released during inflammation to “clean up” the fracture site?

A

M1 macrophages - they are pro inflammatory

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177
Q

What cells signal distant mesenchymal cells to come heal the bone after a fracture?

A

M2 macrophages -pro healing

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178
Q

What happens during inflammation?

A

a hematoma forms and coagulation begins

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179
Q

When does a soft callus form during indirect healing?

A

2-3 weeks post injury

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180
Q

What is the formation process of a soft callus?

A

blood vessels invade the hematoma, periosteal fibroblasts invade the hematoma and produce collagen (granular tissue), collagen fibers can propagate growth bone fragments (if still around), cells in granular tissue will give rise to fibrocartilage which will give rise to bone

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181
Q

When does a hard callus form?

A

3-12 weeks post injury

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182
Q

How does a hard callus form?

A

endochondral ossification converts the soft tissue to woven bone (starting at the periphery and moves toward center)

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183
Q

When is bone completely remodeled after a fracture?

A

months to years

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184
Q

Is woven bone present more in direct or indirect healing?

A

indirect

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185
Q

What is the special term for cytoplasm within a muscle cell?

A

sarcoplasm

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186
Q

What is the special term for smooth ER in a muscle cell?

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

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187
Q

What is the special term for the plasma membrane is a muscle cell?

A

sarcolemma

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188
Q

What is another term for muscle cell?

A

muscle fiber or myofiber

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189
Q

What are the special characteristics of muscle tissue?

A

excitability - ability to respond to a stimuli producing electrical signals
-contractibility - ability to generate force when a stimulus occurs
extensibility - ability to extend/stretch
-elasticity - ability to return to original length after being stretched/contracted

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190
Q

What are some functions of muscle tissue?

A 
producing movement
maintaining posture
stabilizing joints
generating heat (thermogenesis)
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191
Q

What does a skeletal muscle cell look like?

A

very large, long, multinucleated, striated, cylindrical

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192
Q

Why is skeletal muscle considered a structural syncytium?

A

because the cells were formed from a grouping/fusion of many mesenchymal cells called myoblasts

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193
Q

What are the 3 types of skeletal muscle fibers?

A

Type I - Slow, Red Oxidative fibers
Type IIa - Fast, Intermediate Oxidative Glycolytic Fibers
Type IIb - Fast, White Glycolytic Fibers

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194
Q

What are the characteristics of a Slow, Red Oxidative fiber?

A

smallest in diameter,
have many mitochondria and myoglobin
adapted for slow, continuous contractions

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195
Q

Where do type I skeletal fibers get their energy?

A

from aerobic oxidative phosphorylation of fatty acids

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196
Q

Where are type I skeletal fibers found in the body?

A

postural muscles of the back

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197
Q

What are some characteristics of Fast, Intermediate Oxidative Glycolytic Fibers?

A

intermediate in size
have many mitochondria, myoglobin, and glycogen
adapted for rapid contractions and short bursts of energy (walking and sprinting)

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198
Q

How do type IIa skeletal fibers get their energy?

A

oxidative metabolism and anaerobic glycolysis

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199
Q

What are the characteristics of Fast, White Glycolytic fibers?

A

largest fiber
fewer mitochondria and myoglobin
lots of glycogen (pale color)
adapted for rapid contraction, but fatigue easily (weight lifting)

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200
Q

How do type IIb skeletal fibers get their energy?

A

anaerobic glycolysis

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201
Q

What makes up a skeletal muscle organ?

A

skeletal muscle tissue
nerve tissue
connective tissue
vasculature

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202
Q

What connective tissue layer surrounds the entire muscle?

A

epimysium - dense connective tissue

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203
Q

What connective tissue layer surrounds a muscle fascicle?

A

perimysium

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204
Q

What connective tissue layer surrounds the individual muscle fiber/cell?

A

endomysium

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205
Q

What are two types of muscle contraction?

A

isotonic

isometric

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206
Q

What are the two subtypes of isotonic muscle contraction?

A

concentric isotonic

eccentric isotonic

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207
Q

Define concentric isotonic contraction.

A

when the tension generated by the contracting muscle is large enough to overcome the resistance of an object

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208
Q

Define eccentric isotonic contraction.

A

when the muscle generates tension while it is lengthened

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209
Q

Does a muscle shorten or lengthen with concentric isotonic contraction?

A

shorten

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210
Q

Define isometric contraction.

A

when the contracting muscle does not generate enough tension to overcome the resistance of an object.

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211
Q

Does a muscle shorten or lengthen during a isometric contraction?

A

neither - it does not change shape

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212
Q

What does a cardiac muscle cell/fiber look like?

A

uninucleated - centrally located
branched
striated
intercalated discs

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213
Q

How are cardiac muscle cells held together at the intercalated discs?

A 
desmosomes (connects intermediate filaments)
gap junctions (connects cytoplasm)
fascia adherens (connects thin filaments)
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214
Q

What does a smooth muscle cell look like?

A 
uninucleated - centrally located
fusiform shape (tapers at both ends)
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215
Q

What forms the striations in skeletal muscle cells?

A

lining up of sarcomeres from z-disc to z-disc

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216
Q

What is the functional unit of a myofibril?

A

sarcomere

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217
Q

What is a myofibril?

A

bundle of contractile regulatory proteins arranged in a regular manner within a skeletal muscle cell (many myofibrils make up a muscle cell)

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218
Q

What is the range of one sarcomere?

A

from Z-disc to Z-disc

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219
Q

What myofilaments make up a myofibril?

A

actin (thin) and myosin (thick)

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220
Q

What myofilament is only found within the I band?

A

actin

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221
Q

What myofilament is only found within the H zone?

A

myosin

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222
Q

Describe sliding filament hypothesis.

A

myosin filaments sliding past actin filaments (the myosin heads are grabbing the actin filaments and pulling them closer to the M-line)

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223
Q

True or False? The H-zone and I-band disappear during muscle contraction.

A

True - actin and myosin filaments are sliding past one another towards the M-line so the H-zone and I band disappears

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224
Q

How many actin filaments surround a myosin filament?

A

6

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225
Q

What makes up a myosin filament?

A

myosin proteins

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226
Q

What do myosin proteins look like?

A

they have 2 polypeptide chains interwoven and attached to two globular heads (which have actin and ATP binding sites)

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227
Q

What makes up actin filaments?

A

globular subunits called G-actin (which polymerizes into F-actin)

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228
Q

What regulatory proteins are associated with actin?

A

trypomyosin and tryoponin

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229
Q

What does trypomyosin do?

A

blocks the myosin binding sites on the actin

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230
Q

What is are the 3 subunits of tryponin

A

TnT- keeps tryponin bound to trypomyosin
TnC- binds CA+2 ions which are the final trigger for contraction
TnI- inhibits the actin myosin interaction (not discussing)

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231
Q

What is the role of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

takes up, stores, and releases calcium ions

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232
Q

What is a t-tubule?

A

it is an extension of the plasma membrane that comes in at the A-band/I-band junction

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233
Q

What is the terminal cisterna?

A

Thickened sarcoplasmic reticulum adjacent to the t-tubule

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234
Q

What makes up a triad?

A

1 t-tubule and 2 terminal cisterna

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235
Q

What happens during an action potential when the t-tubule undergoes a conformational change (depolarization)?

A

It causes the adjacent terminal cisterna to release calcium ions (which is the final trigger for contraction)

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236
Q

What happens to the calcium ions released by the terminal cisterna if another action potential does not occur?

A

The terminal cisterna can uptake the calcium ions they just released

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237
Q

What is a neuromuscular junction?

A

a chemical synapse between a motor (efferent) neuron and a skeletal muscle cell

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238
Q

What is a motor unit?

A

a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates

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239
Q

True or False. The larger the motor unit, the finer the motion of movement.

A

False - Smaller motor unit means less muscle cells being controlled from motor neuron. Thus, the movement will be a finer motion

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240
Q

What occurs from start to finish when an action potential comes down the motor neuron?

A

When the action potential reaches the axon terminal: Voltage gated Calcium terminals open
Calcium floods into axon terminal
Synaptic vesicles full of ACH (acetylcholine) release ACH via exocytosis
diffusion of ACH across synaptic cleft
ACH binds to acetylcholine receptors on the muscle cell
Na and K diffuse (Na in and K out)
more sodium comes in than potassium goes out - causing depolarization of muscle cell at motor end plate
voltage gated channels along side of motor end plate open due to increased sodium and that begins action potential in muscle cell
follows the sarcolemma and down the t-tubules
from the t-tubules the terminal cisterna are affected and release calcium ions
calcium binds to tryponin causing a conformational change
trypomyosin moves out of the way and myosin binding sites are now available

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241
Q

What is the working stroke?

A

the myosin head pivots and bends moving the actin towards the M-line

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242
Q

What allows for the myosin head to release from tryponin?

A

ATP

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243
Q

What is happening during rigor mortis?

A

myosin head is bound to the trypomyosin and cannont release because ATP is not available

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244
Q

How many t-tubules are within a sarcomere of a cardiac muscle cell?

A

one

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245
Q

Does cardiac muscle have triad?

A

no, it has a diad - one t-tubule and one terminal cisterna

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246
Q

Why is smooth muscle not striated?

A

actin and myosin cross the cell in an oblique manner

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247
Q

What do actin filaments connect (insert into) with in a smooth muscle cell?

A

dense body

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248
Q

Where is a dense body found within a smooth muscle cell?

A

at the surface or deep within the cell

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249
Q

What shape does the nucleus take as smooth muscle cell contracts?

A

corkscrew

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250
Q

What is the extracellular matrix of blood?

A

plasma

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251
Q

What is the total blood volume of a human?

A

5-6 L (8% of body weight)

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252
Q

What are the functions of blood?

A

-deliver O2 and nutrients
-transport waste and CO2
-transport hormones
-homeostasis maintenance buffer, coagulation, blood volume, thermoregulation
-protect via transportation of immune cells
(transport, distribution, regulatory, protection)

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253
Q

What makes up blood?

A

formed elements and plasma

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254
Q

What do formed elements arise from embryologically?

A

hematopoietic stem cells

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255
Q

What are formed elements?

A

cells (EXcept RBC), cell fragments,

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256
Q

Define hematocrit.

A

volume of packed RBC in a sample of blood

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257
Q

By volume, what makes up most of the blood?

A

plasma (55%)

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258
Q

By volume, what is the second most abundant composition of blood?

A

red blood cells (45%)

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259
Q

By volume, what is the least abundant composition of blood in blood?

A

buffy coat (1%) - buffy coat is WBC and platelets

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260
Q

What makes up plasma?

A

water, plasma proteins, other solutes (electrolytes and salts)

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261
Q

What is the function of plasma?

A

it is our solvent
important in maintaining blood volume
regulation of osmotic pressure

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262
Q

What plasma proteins are found within plasma?

A

albumin
globulins
fibrinogen

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263
Q

Where are plasma proteins made in the body?

A

liver

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264
Q

What is the function of albumin?

A 
regulate osmotic pressure
carrier protein (hormones, metabolites, drugs)
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265
Q

What are 2 types of globulins?

A

immunoglobulins

nonimmune globulin

266
Q

What do immunoglobulins do?

A

They are antibodies (gamma globulins) secreted by plasma proteins

267
Q

What do nonimmune globulins do?

A

help maintain osmotic pressure and serve as a carrier protein (alpha and beta globulins)

268
Q

What is the purpose of fibrinogen?

A

aids in coagulation when it is transformed into fibrin

269
Q

What is a plasma cell?

A

an activated B-lymphocyte

270
Q

What percentage of plasma is water?

A

about 90%

271
Q

What percentage of plasma is proteins?

A

about 7%

272
Q

What is a blood smear?

A

a drop of blood on a slide spread thinly

273
Q

What staining is used in a blood smear?

A

Wrights’ stain

274
Q

Do erythrocytes have a nucleus?

A

not at maturity

275
Q

Describe the structure of an erythrocyte.

A

biconcaved disc
6-8 microns wide
histological ruler

276
Q

Where are erythrocytes produced?

A

red bone marrow via erythropoiesis

277
Q

What is the life span of an erythrocyte?

A

120 days

278
Q

What is the rate of release for a red blood cell?

A

2 million/sec

279
Q

What is hemoglobin?

A

a protein involved in binding, transporting, and releasing O2 and CO2

280
Q

Describe the structure of hemoglobin.

A

4 polypeptide chain

4 Fe containing heme groups

281
Q

How many O2 molecules can hemoglobin carry?

A

4

282
Q

What is the most efficient structure of hemoglobin?

A

2 alpha and 2 beta chains

283
Q

What are the two subunits of leukocytes?

A

polymorphonuclear granulocytes

mononuclear agranulocytes

284
Q

What are examples of polymorphonuclear granulocytes?

A

basophils
neutrophils
eosinophils

285
Q

What are characteristics of polymorphonuclear granulocytes?

A

multilobed nucleus
special granules
azurophilic granules

286
Q

What are examples of mononuclear agranulocytes?

A

lymphocytes

monocytes

287
Q

What are the different kinds of lymphocytes?

A

B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Natural killer cells

288
Q

What are some characteristics of mononuclear agranulocytes?

A

rounded nucleus
no specific granules
some azurophilic granules

289
Q

What is the most numerous white blood cell in circulation?

A

neutrophil

290
Q

What granules are found in neutrophils?

A

lysozymes (specific) and peroxidases

291
Q

What is the function of a neutrophil?

A
  • first responder to infection
  • acute inflammation
  • phagocytose bacteria within tissues/accumulate pus
292
Q

What granules are found in eosinophils?

A

peroxidase, histaminase, arylsulfatase

293
Q

Describe the nucleus of an eosinophil?

A

bilobed

294
Q

What is the function of an eosinophil?

A
  • defense to parasitic infections
  • chronic inflammation
  • associated with allergies
295
Q

What granules are found in basophils?

A

histamine
serotonin
heparin sulfate

296
Q

Describe the nucleus of a basophil.

A

bilobed

297
Q

What is the function of a basophil?

A

regulate immunoresponse to parasites

release histamine

298
Q

Describe the nucleus of a lymphocyte.

A

takes up most of the cell

299
Q

What is the function of T lymphocytes?

A

cell mediated immunity

adaptive

300
Q

What is the function of B lymphocytes?

A

humoral immunity
production of antibodies
(adaptive)

301
Q

What is the function of the natural killer cells?

A

kill virally infected and malignant cells (innate)

302
Q

What is the function of a monocyte?

A

differentiate into macrophages within the body tissues
as macrophages they serve as phagocytic cells involved in antigen presentation
precursor for other cell types
(osteoclasts, microglia)

303
Q

What does the nucleus of a monocyte look like?

A

horseshoe/indented

304
Q

What is the order from most to least abundant of leukocytes in the blood?

A

neurtophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils

“never let monkeys eat bananas”

305
Q

What is another word for platelet?

A

thrombocyte

306
Q

What cells do thrombocytes derive from?

A

megakaryocytes

307
Q

What is the function of platelets?

A

blood clot formation

& repair blood vessel walls

308
Q

During early embryonic development, when does the yolk sac phase of hematopoiesis occur?

A

first trimester

309
Q

When does the hepatic phase of hematopoiesis take place3?

A

second trimester

310
Q

When does the bone marrow phase of hematopoiesis occur?

A

third trimester/after birth

311
Q

What is a mast cell?

A

an activated basophil

312
Q

What stem cell do all hematopoietic stem cells derive?

A

mesenchymal stem cell

313
Q

Define monophyletic theory.

A

all blood cells derive from a common pluripotential stem cell (hematopoietic stem cell)

314
Q

What is pluripotent?

A

can differentiate into anything except embryologic cells

315
Q

In bone marrow, what two multipotent progenitor cells do hematopoietic stem cells differentiate into?

A

common myeloid progenitor and common lymphoid progenitor

316
Q

What blood cells derive from the common lymphoid progenitor?

A

lymphocytes

317
Q

What blood cells derive from the common myeloid progenitor?

A

erythrocytes, megakaryocytes, mast cells, myeloblasts, basophils, neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes, macrophate

318
Q

What do progenitor cells develop into?

A

precursor cells and blasts?

319
Q

What phase of cells have the highest mitotic rate?

A

pluripotent or multipotent cells

320
Q

What is erythropoiesis?

A

red blood cell formation

321
Q

What cells produce an erythrocyte?

A 
hematopoietic stem cell
common myeloid progenitor
megakaryocyte/erythrocyte progenitor
erythrocyte progenitor
proerythroblast
basophilic erythroblast
polychromatophilic erythroblast
orthochromatic erythroblast
polychromatophilic erythocyte
322
Q

What is the sequence in forming a granulocyte/monocyte?

A 
hematopoietic stem cell
common myeloid progenitor cell
granulocyte/monocyte progenitor
myeloblast
promyelocyte
myelocyte
metamyelocyte 
(band cell only in neutrophils)
mature cell
323
Q

What is the sequence of forming a thrombocyte?

A 
hematopoietic stem cell
common myeloid progenitor
megakaryocyte/erythrocyte progenitor
megakaryocyte progenitor
megakaryoblast
megakaryocyte
platelet
324
Q

Describe the nucleus in a megakaryoblast.

A

nonlobed

325
Q

Describe what a megakaryocyte looks like.

A

multilobed
azurophilic granules
polyploidy

326
Q

Where can you find a megakaryocygte?

A

Within the sinusoids of bone marrow

327
Q

What part of the megakaryocyte becomes a platelet?

A

cytoplasmic extensions

328
Q

What is the normal process of blood coagulation?

A

vessel injury
vessel spasm
platelets adhere to injury site and aggregate to form plug
formation of insoluble fibrin strands and coagulation

329
Q

Where is bone marrow located?

A

medullary cavity/spaces in spongy bone

330
Q

What does bone marrow consist of?

A

sinusoids (open capillaries) and hematopoietic cords

331
Q

What is a hematopoietic cord?

A

clusters of developing blood cells, megakaryocytes, macrophages, mast cells, adipocytes near the sinusoids for easy access to systemic circulation

332
Q

What is an adventitial cell?

A

a cell that forms a support structure for the hematopoietic cord

333
Q

What is bone marrow cellularity?

A

ratio of hematopoietic cells to adipocytes

100 - age +- 10% (decreases with age)

334
Q

Why are adipocytes around for the bone marrow cellularity?

A

to provide energy

335
Q

What are the components of the urinary system?

A

kidneys
bladder
urethera

336
Q

How many stages are there in embryologic kidney formation?

A

3

337
Q

What is the first stage of embryologic kidney formation?

A 
pronephros stage
(rudimentary/nonfunctional)
338
Q

Where and when does the pronephros arise?

A

10 cell groups in the cervical region

around 4 weeks development

339
Q

What is the second stage of embryologic kidney formation?

A

mesonephros

340
Q

Where is the mesonephros found?

A

upper thoracic to upper lumbar region of the embryo

341
Q

What germ layer does the mesonephros form from?

A

intermediate mesoderm

342
Q

What does the mesonephros consist of?

A

glomeruli

mesenpheric tubules draining into the cloaca

343
Q

What is the third stage of embryologic kidney development?

A

metanephros

344
Q

What forms from the metanephros mesoderm?

A

excretory units and later, the kidney

345
Q

What do collecting ducts of the primitive kidney system form from?

A

ureteric bud, a component of the mesonephric duct

346
Q

What does the renal pelvis form from?

A

ureteric bud dilation

347
Q

What is formed when the renal pelvis splits into cranial and caudal portions?

A

major calyces

348
Q

How are minor calyces formed?

A

further division of the major calyces

349
Q

What forms the renal pyramid?

A

collecting tubules converging on the minor calyces

350
Q

How are renal vesicles of the excretory system formed?

A

cells in the metanephric cap form the vesicles

351
Q

How are glomeruli formed?

A

capillaries grow into the small tubules the renal vesicles form

352
Q

What is the functional unit of the kidney?

A

nephron

353
Q

What is the structure at the proximal end of the nephron?

A

Bowman’s capsule

354
Q

What is at the distal end of the nephron?

A

collecting tubules

355
Q

What are 3 parts of the collecting tubules?

A

proximal convoluted tubule
loop of Henle
Distal convoluted tubule

356
Q

When do nephrons stop forming?

A

at birth

357
Q

What causes the ascent of the kidneys from the pelvic region to the abdominal region?

A

reduction of body curvature and growth of the lumbar and saccral regions

358
Q

How does blood supply change during the ascent of the kidneys?

A

blood supply moves from a branch off the common iliac arteries to a branch from the abdominal aorta

359
Q

When does the kidney become functional?

A

12 weeks

360
Q

What two structures form when the cloaca membrane divides?

A

urogenital sinus and anal canal

361
Q

What structure keeps the urogenital sinus and anal canal separated?

A

urorectal septum

362
Q

What are the three portions of the urogenital sinus?

A

urinary sinus
pelvic part
phallic part

363
Q

What does the urachas do?

A

connects the apex of the bladder to the umbilicus

364
Q

What does the pelvic part of the urogenital sinus become?

A

prostratic (male) and membranous (female) part of the urethra

365
Q

What does the phallic part of the urogenital sinus become?

A

genital tubercle

366
Q

What initial morphological changes occur to the mesonephric ducts?

A

The ducts are absorbed into the urinary bladder wall and ureters enter bladder separately

367
Q

What divides the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity?

A

pelvic inlet

368
Q

What are the 9 regions of the abdominal cavity?

A 
right hypochondrium
right flank
right groin
epigastric
umbilical
pubic
left hypochondrium
left flank
left groin
369
Q

What are the 4 quadrants of the abdominal cavity?

A

right upper
right lower
left lower
left upper

370
Q

What are the layers of the anterolateral wall from exterior to interior?

A 
skin
camper fascia
scarpa fascia
eternal abdominal oblique
internal abdominal oblique
transversus abdominis
transversalis fascia
extraperitoneal fat
parietal peritoneum
371
Q

What spinal nerves innervates the umbilical dermatome?

A

T10

372
Q

Between what layers do nerves innervate the anterior abdominal muscles?

A

between the interior abdominal oblique and the transversus abdominus

373
Q

What is the rectus sheeth?

A

an aponeurotic tendinous sheath

374
Q

Where can you find the arcuate line?

A

midway between the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis

375
Q

What vertebral level controls the ilioinguinal nerve?

A

L1

376
Q

What are the abdominal wall layers when you are superior to the arcuate line beginning with most anterior layer?

A 
external abdominal oblique
internal abdominal oblique
rectus abdominis
internal abdominal oblique
transversus abdominis
transversalis fascia
parietal peritoneum
377
Q

What are the abdominal wall layers when you are inferior to the arcuate line beginning with the most anterior layer?

A 
external abdominal oblique
internal abdominal oblique
transversus abdominis
rectus abdominis
transversalis fascia
parietal peritoneum
378
Q

What embryological structure did the median umbilical fold derive from?

A

urachus

379
Q

What embryological structures did the medial umbilical folds derive from?

A

umbilical arteries

380
Q

What do the lateral umbilical folds cover?

A

inferior epigastric vessels

381
Q

What areas does the superficial epigastric artery supply with blood?

A

anterior abdominal wall inferior to the umbilicus

382
Q

What do the deep circumflex arteries supply with blood?

A

inferior lateral abdominal muscles

383
Q

What does the inferior epigastric artery supply?

A

lower portion of the rectus abdominal muscle

384
Q

What does the superior epigastric artery supply?

A

upper portion of the rectus abdominis muscle

385
Q

What does the superior epigastric artery branch from?

A

internal thoracic artery

386
Q

What does the inferior epigastric artery branch from?

A

external iliac artery

387
Q

What does the musculophrenic artery supply?

A

upper abdomen and diaphragm

388
Q

What does the musculophrenic artery branch from?

A

internal thoracic (runs down the costal cartilage)

389
Q

What does the superficial epigastric artery branch from?

A

femoral artery

390
Q

Where does the deep circumflex artery branch from?

A

external iliac artery

391
Q

What does the superficial circumflex artery supply with blood?

A

the inguinal ligament and surrounding area

392
Q

What does the superficial circumflex artery branch from?

A

femoral artery

393
Q

What ventral rami of the spinal nerves supply innervation above the umbilical region?

A

T7, T8, T9

394
Q

What ventral ramus of the spinal nerves innervate the umbilical region?

A

T10

395
Q

What ventral rami of the spinal nerves innervates below the umbilical region?

A

T11, T12, L1

396
Q

Damage done to what 3 nerves will weaken the inguinal region?

A

T11, T12, L1

397
Q

What is a person predisposed to if the inguinal region of the body is weak?

A

direct inguinal hernias

398
Q

Where can you find the inguinal region?

A

between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle

399
Q

What structures can be found in the inguinal region?

A

superficial and deep inguinal rings, inguinal ligament, inguinal canal, walls of canal

400
Q

What is contained within the male inguinal canal?

A

spermatic cord (vas deferens, testicular nerves and vessels, cremasteric muscle, fascia), ilioinguinal nerve,

401
Q

What makes up the inguinal ligament?

A

The folded inferior boarder of the external abdominal oblique aponeurosis

402
Q

Where does the inguinal ligament extend from and to?

A

extends from the anterior superior iliac spin and goes to the pubic tubercle (it is the floor of the inguinal canal)

403
Q

What is contained within the female inguinal canal?

A

round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve

404
Q

Embryologically, what was the round ligament of the uterus?

A

gubernaculum

405
Q

What is the purpose of the round ligament of the uterus?

A

support the uterus and terminates in the labia majorum

406
Q

If connective tissue is associated with an opening, what is the term used?

A

crura (medial, lateral crus)

407
Q

What makes up the anterior wall of the inguinal canal?

A

external abdominal oblique aponeurosis

408
Q

What makes up the posterior wall of the inguinal canal?

A

transversalis fascia and conjoint tendon

409
Q

What is the conjoint tendon?

A

fusion of internal abdominal oblique and transversus abdominis aponeurosis

410
Q

What makes up the roof of the inguinal canal?

A

internal abdominal oblique

transversus abdominis

411
Q

What makes up the floor of the inguinal canal?

A

inguinal ligament

412
Q

What 3 layers makes up an abdominal hernia?

A

parietal peritoneum, extraperitoneal fat, tranversalis fascia

413
Q

What region of the body do most abdominal hernias occur?

A

inguinal region

414
Q

What is the most common type of hernia?

A

indirect inguinal hernia (more common in males than females)

415
Q

Where can you find an indirect inguinal hernia?

A

lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels, running through the inguinal canal and terminating at the scrotum or labia majora

416
Q

Where in the body do you find a direct inguinal hernia?

A

through the inguinal triangle

417
Q

Where is the inguinal triangle?

A

medial to inferior epigastric artery, lateral to rectus abdominis m., superior to inguinal ligament

418
Q

Which type of hernia is associated with a weakened abdominal wall?

A

direct inguinal hernia

419
Q

Does a direct inguinal hernia enter the scrotum or labia majora?

A

not usually

420
Q

What are other types of hernias?

A

femoral hernias, umbilical hernias, epigastric hernia

421
Q

Where do you find epigastric hernias?

A

through the linea alba

422
Q

What are the embryologic divisions of the GI tract?

A

foregut, midgut, hindgut

423
Q

As a result of folding what two structures reside outside the embryo?

A

yolk sac and allantois

424
Q

What branch of the aorta supplies the foregut?

A

celiac trunk

425
Q

What branch of the aorta supplies the midgut?

A

superior mesenteric artery

426
Q

What branch of the aorta supplies the hindgut?

A

inferior mesenteric artery

427
Q

What makes up the foregut in an embryo?

A

oropharyngeal opening all the way to the liver bud

428
Q

What makes up the midgut in an embryo?

A

caudal end of the liver to the right 2/3 of transverse colon

429
Q

What makes up the hindgut in an embryo?

A

left 1/3 of transverse colon to the cloacal membrane

430
Q

What germ layer gives rise to the endothelial lining of the GI tract and its accessory organs?

A

endoderm

431
Q

What germ layer gives rise to the muscles, connective tissue, and peritoneum of the GI tract and its accessory organs?

A

mesoderm

432
Q

What structures are retroperitoneal?

A

kidneys, duodenum, portions of the ascending and descending colon, tail of pancreas

433
Q

Define a mesentery.

A

double layer of peritoneum that supplies vessels and nerves to and from organs within the abdomen

434
Q

What are the three dorsal mesenteries within an embryo?

A

dorsal mesogastrium, dorsal mesoduodenum, dorsal mesocolon

435
Q

Which embryologic dorsal mesentery goes on to form the greater omentum?

A

dorsal mesogastrium

436
Q

What derives from the ventral mesenteries in the embryo due to liver growth?

A

lesser omentum

falciform ligament

437
Q

Where is the ventral mesentery derived from?

A

septum transversum

438
Q

What are the components of the foregut?

A

esophagus, stomach, duodenum, liver, gallbladder, pancreas

439
Q

When does the esophagus begin to develop and where?

A

4 weeks and from the separation of the respiratory diverticulum

440
Q

What divides the respiratory diverticulum into ventral and dorsal structures?

A

transesophageal septum

441
Q

What does the muscular coating of the esophagus derive from?

A

splanchnic mesenchyme

442
Q

What nerve innervates the upper 2/3 of the striated muscule of the esophagus?

A

vagus nerve

443
Q

What nerve innervates the lower 1/3 of the smooth muscle of the esophagus?

A

splanchnic plexus

444
Q

What do you have a greater and lesser curvature of the stomach?

A

during embryologic development, the posterior portion develops at a greater rate than the lesser curvature

445
Q

Why does the stomach look the way it does?

A

due to rotation during development
the left side will be more anterior
right side will be more posterior

446
Q

Where do the cephalic and caudal ends of the stomach end up after development?

A

the caudal end is more to the right side of the body and upward
the cephalic end is more to the left side of the body and downward
all do to rotation during development
(they both originally start at midline)

447
Q

In the embryo, what attaches the stomach to the posterior body wall?

A

dorsal mesogastrium

448
Q

How does the spleen connect to the stomach?

A

gastrolineal ligament

449
Q

How does the spleen connect to the left kidney?

A

lienorenal ligament

450
Q

True or False? The tail region of the pancreas and the spleen are intraperitoneal.

A

False - the tail region of the pancreas is retroperitoneal

all other portions of the pancreas are intraperitoneal

451
Q

What posterior sac is formed due to rotation of the stomach?

A

lesser peritoneal sac

aka - omental bursa

452
Q

What attaches the stomach to the anterior body wall?

A

ventral mesogastrium

453
Q

What structure does the liver divide as it grows?

A

ventral mesogastrium to form the peritoneam of the liver and the falciform ligament

454
Q

What is the falciform ligament derived from embryologically?

A

ventral mesentery

455
Q

What is the round ligament of the liver derived from embryologically?

A

umbilical veins

456
Q

What structure connects the duodenum to the liver?

A

hepatoduodenal ligament

457
Q

What connects the liver to the stomach?

A

hepatogastral ligament

458
Q

What is found within the hepatoduodenal ligament?

A

portal triad

459
Q

What 3 structures make up the portal triad?

A

common bile duct
portal vein
hepatic artery

460
Q

Where does the bile duct run from and to?

A

runs from the liver/gallbladder to the duodenum

461
Q

What percentage of blood does the liver get from the hepatic portal vein?

A

75%

462
Q

What percentage of blood does the liver get from the hepatic artery?

A

25%

463
Q

Where does the blood supply for the duodenum come from?

A

cephalic trunk and superior mesenteric artery because it is a transitional point from the foregut to the midgut

464
Q

Why is the duodenum C-shaped?

A

stomach rotation and expansion of the pancreas

465
Q

Is the duodenum retroperitoneal?

A

all of it except the pyloric region

466
Q

What does the liver derive from and when?

A

endodermal epithelium, 3rd week

467
Q

What forms the falciform ligament within the liver?

A

septum transversum

468
Q

What forms the bile duct?

A

narrowing connection between the hepatic diverticulum and the foregut

469
Q

What structures are formed from outgrowths of the bile duct?

A

gallbladder and cystic duct

470
Q

Where does the early liver bud get its blood supply and how?

A

hepatic sinusoids

epithelial liver cords intermingle with the umbilical veins and the vitelline

471
Q

Note*

A

The liver bud proliferates rapidly
due to rapid growth the lesser omentum is formed
the falciform ligament is formed

472
Q

How is the visceral peritoneum on the liver formed?

A

due to rapid growth of the liver, mesoderm on the surface of the liver becomes the visceral peritoneum except the bare area and the central tendon of the diaphragm

473
Q

What makes up the common bile duct?

A

the hepatic duct and the cystic duct off the gallbladder

474
Q

Where does the common bile duct go and what does it do?

A

it drains bile to the duodenum to aid in digestion

475
Q

True or False. The pancreas develops from two buds.

A

True - dorsal and ventral pancreatic buds

476
Q

Where does the ventral pancreatic bud end up due to rotation?

A

inferior and posterior to the dorsal bud

477
Q

What structures does the ventral pancreatic bud contain?

A

uncinate process

main pancreatic duct

478
Q

What structures does the dorsal pancreatic bud contain?

A

uncinate process
main pancreatic duct
accessory pancreatic duct

479
Q

What is the exocrine function of the pancreas?

A

Makes enzymes for digestion that are carried to the duodenum

480
Q

What is the endocrine function of the pancreas?

A

Controls the secretion of insulin and glucose

481
Q

Where do the main pancreatic duct and the bile duct enter the duodenum?

A

at the major papilla

482
Q

Where does the accessory duct of the pancreas enter the duodenum?

A

at the minor papilla

483
Q

What is the end point of the foregut?

A

major papilla of the duodenum

484
Q

When does a fetus begin to make insulin?

A

month 5

485
Q

Where in the pancreas to most of the endocrine functions take place?

A

the tail of the pancreas

486
Q

Which portion of the stomach has connection with the yolk sac during development?

A

midgut

487
Q

What suspends the midgut from the dorsal wall?

A

short mesentery

488
Q

What forms from the cephalic portion of the midgut?

A

distal portion of the duodenum, jejunum, proximal part of the ileum

489
Q

What forms from the caudal portion of the midgut?

A

distal part of the ileum, ascending colon, and proximal 2/3 of the transverse colon

490
Q

What causes the midgut to herniate into the extraembryonic space?

A

growth and rotation (90 degrees)

491
Q

How many times does the midgut rotate?

A

twice 90 and then 180 after it returns to the embryo

492
Q

What is the total rotation in degrees of the midgut?

A

270 degrees

493
Q

What is the final portion of the midgut to re-enter the embryo?

A

cecal bud

494
Q

What buds off of the cecum during formation?

A

appendix

495
Q

What portions of the midgut remain in mesentery after development?

A

appendix and cecum (parts of it)

496
Q

What encloses the superior mesenteric artery?

A

dorsal mesentery

497
Q

What makes up the hindgut?

A

distal 1/3 of the transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, and upper anal canal

498
Q

What gives rise to the bladder and urethra?

A

endoderm of the hindgut

499
Q

What forms the urogenital sinus?

A

allantois entering the anterior portion of the cloaca and the rupture of the cloacal membrane

500
Q

What does the urorectal septum separate?

A

the allantois from the hindgut

501
Q

What lies between the anus and urogenital sinus?

A

perineum

502
Q

What is the upper 2/3 of the rectum derived from?

A

endoderm

503
Q

What is the lower 1/3 of the rectum derived from?

A

ectoderm

504
Q

What supplies blood to the inferior portion of the rectum?

A

inferior rectal arteries and internal pudendal artery

505
Q

What allows the upper and lower portion of the anal canal to communicate?

A

an invagination of the ectoderm that creates an anal pit and causes the cloacal membrane to rupture

506
Q

What are the functions of the digestive tube?

A

ingestion, secretion, mixing and propulsion, digestion, absorption, defecation, barrier, immunologic

507
Q

What is the vestibule within the oral cavity?

A

space between the teeth and lips and teeth and cheeks

508
Q

What muscle makes up the musculocutaneous junction of the lips?

A

orbicularis oris muscle (skeletal muscle)

509
Q

What nerve innervates the orbicularis oris muscle?

A

cranial nerve #7

510
Q

What are the three surfaces of the lips?

A

cutaneous
vermilion boarder
oral mucosa

511
Q

What is the structure of the cutaneous surface of the lips?

A

epidermis, dermis, hair follicles, glands

512
Q

What type of epithelium makes up the lips?

A

stratified squamous epithelium

513
Q

What type of epithelium makes up the cheek?

A

nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium

514
Q

What structures in the oral cavity are lightly keratinized?

A

palate and gingiva

515
Q

Describe the lamina propria within the cheek and gingiva?

A

vascularized, short papilla, elastin fibers

anchor periosteum to the gingiva

516
Q

Describe the lamina propria within the lip?

A

vascularized, loose connective tissue

517
Q

What separates the anterior portion of the tongue from the posterior portion?

A

sulcus terminalis

518
Q

What is the anterior part of the tongue derived from?

A

ectoderm

519
Q

What is the posterior part of the tongue derived from?

A

endoderm

520
Q

What type of epithelium is found on the tongue?

A

nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium

521
Q

Where can you find the circumvillate papilla?

A

just anterior to the sulcus terminalis

522
Q

What are the characteristics of the circumvillate papilla?

A

largest of the papilla
nonkeratinized
are taste buds

523
Q

What are characteristics of the fungiform papilla?

A 
mushroom shaped
poorly keratinized
scattered between the filiform
well vascularized
are taste buds
524
Q

What are characteristics of the filiform papilla?

A 
cone shaped
most numerous
manipulate food and increase friction
keratinized
not taste buds
525
Q

What bones make up the hard palate?

A

premaxilla, maxilla, palatine process

526
Q

What type of epithelium covers the hard palate?

A

keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

527
Q

Descripe the lamina propria of the hard palate.

A

blood supply and lymphocytes

528
Q

What type of glands can be found in the hard palate?

A

mucus secreting glands

529
Q

describe the soft palate.

A

highly vascularized
nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium (oral side)
ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium (nasopharyngeal side)
mucus and seromucous glands
skeletal muscle

530
Q

What are the different types of salivary glands?

A

parotid
submandibular
sublingual

531
Q

Where does the parotid salivary gland empty into the oral cavity?

A

maxillary second molar

532
Q

What is the largest of the salivary glands?

A

parotid (30% of saliva)

533
Q

What type of gland is the parotid?

A

serous gland

534
Q

What type of gland is the submandibular?

A

serous and mucos

535
Q

What duct does the parotid empty through?

A

Stenson’s duct

536
Q

What duct does the submandibular empty through and where?

A

Wharton’s duct into floor of mouth (60% of saliva)

537
Q

What is the smallest of the salivary glands?

A

sublingual (10% of saliva)

538
Q

What type of gland is the sublingual?

A

mucous (multiple ducts)

539
Q

What is the morphological structure of a parotid gland?

A

branched tubuloacinar

540
Q

What type of cells make up a striated duct within the parotid gland?

A

columnar

541
Q

Which salivary gland contains adipocytes?

A

sublingual

542
Q

What is the function of a striated duct?

A

active transport for sodium and calcium ions

543
Q

What is the structure of a striated duct?

A

round nuclei close to lamina propria

many mitochondria

544
Q

What is the muscular composition of the upper 1/3 of the esophagus?

A

skeletal muscle

545
Q

What is the muscular composition of the middle 1/3 of the esophagus?

A

skeletal and smooth muscle

546
Q

What is the muscular composition of the lower 1/3 of the esophagus?

A

smooth muscle

547
Q

What type of epithelium makes up the esophagus?

A

nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium

548
Q

What are the characteristics of the basal layer of the esophagus epithelium?

A

cuboidal cells
melanocytes
merkel cells

549
Q

What are the characteristics of the intermediate layer of the esophageal epithelium?

A

flatter cells accumulate glycogen
langerhan’s cells
t-lymphocytes

550
Q

Describe the superficial layer of the esophageal epithelium?

A

few keratohyalin granules

551
Q

What separates the esophagus from the stomach and how do you distinguish this transition?

A

Z-line; nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium of the esophagus changes to simple columnar of the stomach

552
Q

What is the unique nerve supply to the digestive system?

A

enteric nervous system

553
Q

What makes up the enteric nervous system?

A

myenteric plexus

and meissner plexus

554
Q

What does the myenteric plexus do?

A

regulate peristalsis

555
Q

what does the meissner plexus do?

A

regulate glandular secretion, blood flow, electrolyte and water transport

556
Q

What type of gland structure is an eccrine gland?

A

simple coiled tubular gland

557
Q

What type of secretion comes from eccrine and apocrine glands?

A

merocrine secretion

558
Q

What type of gland structure is an apocrine gland?

A

coiled tubular glands (w/ wide lumens)

559
Q

When does an apocrine sweat gland become functional?

A

during puberty

560
Q

What type of gland structure is a sebaceous gland?

A

branched acinar

561
Q

What type of secretion occurs with a sebaceous gland?

A

holocrine

562
Q

What are the four layers of the alimentary canal/tube?

A

mucosa
submucosa
muscularis externa
adventia

563
Q

Where do you find the two types of mucous glands in the esophagus?

A

superficial layer of the mucosa and the submucosa

564
Q

What makes up the muscularis externa of the GI tract?

A

inner circular and outer longitudinal muscle

565
Q

What is the function of the adventia in the esophagus?

A

loose conn. tissue to anchor it to the mediastinum

566
Q

What vertebrae level does the esophagus pass through the diaphragm?

A

T10

567
Q

What layers of the alimentary canal are you more likely to fine portions of the enteric nervous system?

A

submucosa and muscularis externa

568
Q

Where do you fine myenteric plexus?

A

between the muscle layers of the muscularis externa

569
Q

Where are you likely to find the Meissner plexus of the enteric nervous system?

A

submucosa

570
Q

What nervous system regulates the enteric nervous system?

A

autonomic nervous system

571
Q

What is found within the mucosa layer of the stomach?

A

rugae, simple columnar epithelium (not nonkeratinized stratified squamous), gastric pits and glands

572
Q

What are the 3 glands of the stomach?

A

cardiac (10%), gastric(75%), pyloric(15%)

573
Q

What is the function of mucous cells in the stomach?

A

forms a viscous layer alkaline mucus that protects the stomach

574
Q

What is the function of mucous neck cells in the stomach?

A

forms a viscous acidic/neutral layer of mucus

575
Q

What is the function of the parietal cells?

A

secrete HCL

576
Q

What is the serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity?

A

peritoneum

577
Q

What are the two layers of the peritoneum?

A

visceral and parietal

578
Q

What type of cells line the peritoneum that face the cavity?

A

mesothelial cells

579
Q

What is so special about the mesothelial cells in the peritoneum?

A

they have microvili that secrete serous fluid

580
Q

What are the characteristics of the layers of the muscularis externa of the stomach?

A

the outer layer = longitudinal
the middle layer = circular
the inner layer = oblique

581
Q

At the gastroduodenal junction, describe the pyloric sphincter.

A

the muscularis externa thickens and the mucosa and submucosa form the gastric wall because they also thicken

582
Q

What structures can you find on the duodenal side of the gastroduodenal junction?

A

goblet cells, enterocytes, mucus secreting submucosal glands

583
Q

What structures can you find on the gastric side of the gastroduodenal junction?

A

surface mucous cells, branched tubuloaveolar mucus secreting gastric glands

584
Q

How do you know you have reached the gastroduodenal junction?

A

the duodenal side will have vili

585
Q

What are the layers of the alimentary canal once you reach the small intestine?

A

mucosa
submucosa
muscularis externa
serosa

586
Q

What are the special folds called in the mucosa of the small intestine?

A

plicae - have villi and microvili

587
Q

What structures can be found on the mucosa of the small intestine?

A

villi and intestinal crypts

588
Q

Where are Paneth cells found?

A

ileum

589
Q

Which part of the small intestine has larger plicae, larger vili, and more vasculature?

A

jejunum

590
Q

How do the vili in the ileum look?

A

Stubby and club shaped

591
Q

What part of the intestinal tract has Peyer’s patches?

A

Ileum… They play a role in immune response and production of plasma cells

592
Q

Where can you find the most Paneth cells?

A

Ileum, at the base of the crypts

593
Q

True or False. As you go diatally into the small intestine, goblet cell numbers increase and enterocyte numbers decrease.

A

True

594
Q

What is an enterocyte?

A

A cell in the small intestine that breaks down amd transports nutrients to the capillaries. It also synthesizes enzymes.

595
Q

What is the function of the large intestine?

A

Absorb water, electrolytes, bile acids, and vitamins

596
Q

What creates haustra?

A

Partial contraction of the large intestine

597
Q

Term for longitudinal muscle layer in large intestine.

A

Taenia coli

598
Q

Does the colon have microvilli?

A

No

599
Q

Where can you find Paneth cells in the colon?

A

Cecum and appendix

600
Q

What mesentery covers the appendix?

A

Mesoappendix

601
Q

What type of cells do you find at the anorectal junction?

A

Goblet cells

602
Q

What type of folds are found in the anorectal junction?

A

transverse semilunar mucosal folds

603
Q

Define peritoneal cavity.

A

potential space within a sac

604
Q

What do you find within the peritoneal cavity?

A

serous fluid

605
Q

How many layers of peritoneum is the greater omentum?

A

4

606
Q

What is the function of the greater omentum?

A

It connects the greater curvature of the stomach to the transverse colon and can wall off infection and inflammation

607
Q

What could inhibit the mobility of the greater omentum?

A

adhesions

608
Q

What connects the liver to the stomach?

A

hepatogastric ligament

609
Q

What connects the liver to the duodenum and also contains the hepatic triad?

A

hepatoduodenal ligament

610
Q

What is found deep to the lesser omentum?

A

omental bursa

611
Q

What structure anchors the small intestines to the posterior abdominal wall?

A

mesentery proper

612
Q

What structure anchors the duodenum to the posterior wall of the abdomen?

A

suspensory ligament of Treitz

613
Q

Where can you find the suspensory ligament of Treitz and what is its purpose?

A

descending from the right crus of the diaphragm to the distal portion of the duodenum. It keeps the duodenojejunal junction from sagging

614
Q

What attaches the transverse colon to the posterior abdominal wall?

A

transverse mesocolon

615
Q

Do the ascending and descending portions of the colon have mesocolon?

A

no, they attach directly to the posterior abdominal wall

616
Q

The transverse mesocolon divides the abdomen into two compartments. What are they and what do they contain?

A

supracolic compartment - liver, spleen, stomach

infracolic compartment - small intestine, ascending and descending colon

617
Q

What attaches the liver to the inferior surface of the diaphragm?

A

coronary ligament of the liver

618
Q

Where can you find indirect inguinal hernias?

A

medial inguinal fossae - area between the medial and lateral umbilical folds

619
Q

Where can you find direct inguinal hernias?

A

lateral inguinal fossae - lateral to the lateral umbilical folds

620
Q

What is the most inferior pocket in the male when vertical?

A

rectovesicle pouch

621
Q

What is the most inferior pocket in the female when vertical?

A

rectouterine pouch

622
Q

What is the pouch between the bladder and the uterus?

A

vesicouterine pouch

623
Q

What is the lowest part of the peritoneal cavity when recumbent?

A

hepatorenal pouch

624
Q

Where does the portal triad enter the liver?

A

porta hepatis

625
Q

What is the function of the gallbladder?

A

store and release bile to emulsify fats during digestion

626
Q

How does the gallbladder receive bile from the liver?

A

right and left hepatic ducts which form the common hepatic duct (different from the common bile duct)

627
Q

What duct does bile travel through when it leaves the gallbladder?

A

cystic duct

628
Q

What forms the common bile duct?

A

cystic duct and common hepatic duct

629
Q

Where does the common bile duct drain into the GI tract?

A

major papilla of the duodenum (after it joins with main pancreatic duct)

630
Q

What are the parts of the gallbladder?

A

fundus, body, neck

631
Q

What are the parts of the pancreas?

A

uncinate process, head, neck, body, tail

632
Q

Where does the accessory duct of the pancreas drain?

A

minor papilla of the duodenum

633
Q

What is the function of the pancreas?

A

create digestive enzymes

634
Q

What is the function of the spleen?

A

store red blood cells and monocytes

filter and remove old RBC

635
Q

What connects the spleen to the stomach?

A

gastrosplenic ligament

636
Q

What structures are found within the gastrosplenic ligament?

A

short gastric and gastro-omental vessels

637
Q

What connects the spleen to the left kidney?

A

splenorenal ligament, which contains splenic vessels

638
Q

What is the first major branch off the aorta?

A

celiac trunk

639
Q

What branches from the celiac trunk?

A

common hepatic, left gastric, splenic a.

640
Q

What are acini cells in the pancreas?

A

cells that store and secrete enzymes in the pancreas

641
Q

Note*

A

islet cells stain lighter than acini cells in the pancreas

642
Q

What type of cells line the main duct of the pancreas?

A

pseudostratified and stratified columnar

643
Q

What is the course of enzymes through the ducts of the pancreas?

A

intercalated, intralobular, interlobular, main pancreatic duct

644
Q

What enzyme converts trypsinogen to trypsin in the duodenum?

A

entereokinase

645
Q

What controls the secretions from acini cells in the pancreas
?

A

hormones secreted from the enterendocrine cells

646
Q

What innervation controls the secretion from acinar cells?

A

vagus nerve

647
Q

What is the term for the serous covering of the liver?

A

glisson’s capsule

648
Q

Describe the functional unit of the liver.

A

each lobe of the liver has lobules, which have branches from the portal triad

649
Q

What cells make up the liver?

A

hepatocytes

650
Q

What is the flow of blood through the liver?

A

Portal vein to sinusoids to central vein to sublobular vein to two hepatic veins to IVC

651
Q

How many portal spaces per lobule?

A

3-6

652
Q

What is within a portal space?

A

Portal venule, hepatic arteriole, bile duct, lymphatic vessel

653
Q

What cells produce bile?

A

Hepatocytes

654
Q

Describe the structure of hepatocytes.

A

Arranged in cords, interconnected, have sinusoids where portal blood flows

655
Q

Where does a plasma cell filter in the liver?

A

Through the sinusoid wall into the space of Disse

656
Q

What allows communication between the space of disse and bile canaliculi and the hepatocytes

A

Microvilli

657
Q

What is the role of rough ER in the hepatocytes?

A

Plasma protein synthesis

658
Q

What is the role of SER in hepatocytes?

A

Detoxification and forms conjugated bilirubin

659
Q

What macromolecules are stored in hepatocytes?

A

Carbs and lipids

660
Q

Do hepatocytes need secretary granules?

A

No, they are associated with sinusoids

661
Q

Where is vitamin A stored?

A

Ito’s cells within the liver

Anatomy (8 decks)

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