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IPA flash cards > Unit 2 > Flashcards

Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Where do most head and neck cancers begin

A

Moist tissues that line the mouth, nose, and throat

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2
Q

What joint do we palpate on the head and face, looking for tenderness?

A

TMJ

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3
Q

Which glands do you palpate on the head and face

A

Parotid glands and submandibular glands

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4
Q

What is it called when the pupils are less than 2mm

A

Miosis (Constricted)

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5
Q

What is it called when pupils are >6mm?

A

Mydriasis (dialated)

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6
Q

What is the eye motion going internally and upwards?

A

Intorsion

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7
Q

What is the eye motion going externally and upwards?

A

Extorsion

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8
Q

What structures connect to the tear sac?

A

Puncta–>canaliculi–>tear sac–> nasolacrimal duct

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9
Q

When a light is shined in one eye, both pupils constrict. What is this reflex called?

A

Pupilary light reflex

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10
Q

What is the pathway of light through the eye

A

Cornea–>anterior chamber –> pupil –> lens –> vitreous humor –> retina –> optic nerve

Cats Always Play Loudly, Very Rarely Outside

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11
Q

What is the middle layer of the eye that is vascular and provides nourishment to the eye?

A

Choroid

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12
Q

What structure senses light through rods and cones

A

retina

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13
Q

What is the head of the optic nerve, where optic nerve fibers exit the eye?

A

Optic disc

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14
Q

What is the center of the optic disc and how much space does it take up?

A

Physiologic cup, 30% of the diamater of the disc

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15
Q

What structure is temporal and inferior to the disc, containing fovea in the center?

A

The macula (contains only cones)

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16
Q

What photoreceptors detect motion and night vision

A

rods

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17
Q

Images on the retina are what direction?

A

Upside down and reversed L to R

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18
Q

What does OD mean vs OS vs OU

A

Right eye vs Left eye vs both eyes

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19
Q

What is an absense of refractive error known as

A

emmetropia
Good vision- no nearsided/farsighted

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20
Q

When light is focused posterior to the retina, what is this called?

A

Hyperopia
difficulty seeing close

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21
Q

When light is focused anterior to the retina, what is this called?

A

Myopia
nearsidedness
cant see far

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22
Q

When light is not uniformly focused in all directions because a cornea is not perfectly spherical, what is this?

A

Astigmatism

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23
Q

What is it called when near vision decreases progressively as a result of decrease in the eye’s ability to accomodate?

A

Presbyopia

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24
Q

Which nerve tests visual fields (i.e. peripheral vision)

A

CN 2 (optic)

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25
Q

What does CN 2 (optic) nerve test?

A

Peripheral

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26
Q

What is an area of depressed vision?

A

Scotoma

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27
Q

What is the blind spot known as/ what broader category does it fall into?

A

A scotoma (an area of depressed vision)

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28
Q

What is loss of peripheral vision with retention of central vision called?

A

tunnel vision

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29
Q

What disorder causes symptoms of a loss of peripheral vision with retention of central vision

A

Glaucoma

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30
Q

Which cranial nerves innervate the extra ocular muscles to create eye movement

A

CN 3, 4, 6

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31
Q

What is the vision condition where the eyes make repetitive, uncontrolled movements?

A

Nystagmus

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32
Q

When you shine a light onto both eyes and check a reflection, what is this called? (reflex)

A

Corneal-light reflex

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33
Q

Which reflex can you use to check for eye alignment or disconjugate gaze

A

Corneal light reflex

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34
Q

What is another term for eye alignment

A

esotropia

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35
Q

what is another term for a disconjugate gaze

A

exotropia

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36
Q

Which muscle and nerve move the eye laterally?

A

The Lateral rectus, innervated by CN 6 (abducens)

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37
Q

Which eye muscle and nerve move the eye down when looking towards the nose?

A

Superior oblique muscle, innervated by the trochlear nerve ( CN 4)

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38
Q

Which nerve innervates the inferior oblique and medial rectus?

A

CN 3, occulomotor

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39
Q

Which nerve raises the eye lid and mediates pupillary constriction

A

CN 3 (oculomotor)

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40
Q

When there is nonalignment of the eye, where the object being observed is not projected simultaneously on the fovea, what is this called?

A

Strabismus (tropia)

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41
Q

When the eye is deviated nasally (cross eyed) what is this called?

A

Esotropia

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42
Q

When the eye is deviated temporally (wall-eyed) what is this called?

A

Exotropia

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43
Q

What is a deviation of the eye upwards called?

A

Hypertropia

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44
Q

What is a deviation of the eye downwards called?

A

Hypotropia

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45
Q

What is dislopia?

A

a visual disturbance that causes a person to see two images of the same object instead of one

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46
Q

What is a visual disturbance that causes a person to see two images of the same object instead of one?

A

Dislopia

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47
Q

What is the loss of visual acuity secondary to suppression?

A

Ambylopia (lazy eye)

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48
Q

What is the removal of the entire globe of the eye?

A

Enucleation

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49
Q

What is the drooping of the eyelid known as?

A

Blepharoptosis (or ptosis)

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50
Q

Paralysis of eye muscles is also known as what?

A

ophthalmoplegia

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51
Q

Which syndrome is known as progressive external ophthalmoplegia

A

Kearns-Sayre syndrome

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52
Q

Patients who have kearns-sayre syndrome frequently have what other symptoms?

A

Deafness, short in stature, arch of brows ( secondary to the ptosis and ophthalmoplegia ( paralysis of eye muscles))

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53
Q

What is the condition where there is an inability to close the eyelids completely?

A

Lagophthalmos

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54
Q

What is a turning inwards of the eyelid margin called?

A

Entropion

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55
Q

What is a turning outwards of the eyelid called?

A

Ectropion

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56
Q

What type of a fracture causes raccoon eyes?

A

Basilar scull fracture

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57
Q

What is a buildup of yellow plaques of fat around the eyes called?

A

Xanthelasma
underlying cause is hypolipidemia

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58
Q

A granulomatous reaction to thickened secretions of the meibomian glands in the eyelid causes what?

A

Chalazion

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59
Q

A chalazoin is caused by a dysfunction in which glands

A

the meibomian glands

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60
Q

What is another term for a stye

A

Acute external hordeolum

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61
Q

Chronic inflamation of the eyelid margins is known as what

A

Blepharitis

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62
Q

What is tearing known as

A

epiphora

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63
Q

What eye symptom accompanies hyperthyroidism

A

proptosis and lacrimal gland enlargement

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64
Q

What eye disorder is seen in patients who have graves disease

A

exophthalmos

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65
Q

Exophthalmos is associated with which disease

A

grave’s disease

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66
Q

Inflammation of the lower lacrimal passages is known as what

A

dacryocystitis (most of the time comes from a lacrimal duct problem)

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67
Q

What is the most common eye disease in the western hemisphere

A

conjunctavitis

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68
Q

Where is a blue sclera seen

A

in osteogenesis imperfecta

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69
Q

Which cranial nerve does the corneal reflex test

A

CN 5 for sensory, CN 7 for motor

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70
Q

What does PERRLA stand for

A

Pupils equal round reactive to light and accomodation

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71
Q

What is the constriction that occurs when eyes follow the finger towards the nose looking cross eyed?

A

Accomodation

72
Q

What is the medical name for pupils being different sizes

A

Anisocoria

73
Q

Light impulses travel away from the pupil via afferent signals because of which cranial nerve

A

CN 2

74
Q

What is pupilary enlarement called

A

mydriasis

75
Q

What is pupilary constriction called

A

miosis

76
Q

A pupil that is constricted to 1 to 2 mm that reacts to accommodation but is nonreactive to light is called

A

argyll robertson pupil

77
Q

What type of a pupil occurs in neurosyphilis

A

Argyll robertson pupil

78
Q

The inability to perspire normally in the pupil is known as what?

A

Anhidrosis

79
Q

A pupil dilated 3 to 6 mm that constricts little in response to light and accommodation is known as what

A

adies tonic pupil

80
Q

What is inflammation of the iris known as

A

iritis or iridocyclitis (iris and cilliary body inflammed)

81
Q

What is the transient loss of vision in one or both eyes due to lack of blood flow in the retina?

A

Amaurosis fugax

82
Q

What is the leading cause of blindness in americans aged 20 to 75?

A

Diabetic retinopathy

83
Q

A retinal examination that reveals pallor and increasing size of the optic cup is consistant with which disease?

A

Open-angle glaucoma

84
Q

Which intraocular pressure is associated with open angle glaucoma?

A

> 21mm

85
Q

An obstruction to the drainage of the aqueous humor at the canal of schlemm is what?

A

narrow-angle glaucoma

86
Q

Swelling of the optic disc is what?

A

Papilledema

87
Q

What part of the ear do you pull on for the tug test?

A

The lobule

88
Q

Which 2 bones can you normally see in a normal ear exam?

A

malleus and incus

89
Q

If the tympanic membrane is diffusely red and the light reflex is lost, what disorder is occurring?

A

Otitis media (middle ear infection)

90
Q

Which test do you use to test for acute otitis media

A

pneumatic otoscopy

91
Q

When you rub your fingers together next to the patient’s ears, what test is this?

A

Whisper or finger rub test

92
Q

Which cranial nerve detects for a sensorineural hearing loss?

A

CN 8

93
Q

What type of hearing loss does weber’s test for

A

Conductive hearing loss

94
Q

What is the main cause of conductive hearing loss in individuals 15-50?

A

Otosclerosis

95
Q

Which mineral is missing to cause otosclerosis

A

flouride

96
Q

Which disease is typically caused by the insertion of ventelation tubes and has calcification in the tympanic membrane?

A

tympanosclerosis

97
Q

What is another name for wax in the ears

A

cerumen (wax)

98
Q

Which bacteria causes acute otitis externa

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

99
Q

What is severe ear pain called

A

otalgia

100
Q

Swimmer’s ear is a form of what

A

otitis externa

101
Q

A localized form of external otitis, associated with acute viral upper resperatory infection is what

A

bullous myringitis

102
Q

What is a benign or slow growing cyst that develops in the middle ear or mastoid bone called?

A

Cholesteatoma

103
Q

What occurs with the sensation of “plugged ears” commonly

A

Serous otitis media

104
Q

Pain behind the ear that accompanies a fever is known as what

A

mastoiditis

105
Q

There are 3 what in the nose (inferior, middle, and superior)

A

turbinates or conchae

106
Q

Inferior to each turbinate is an opening known as the paranasal sinus; what is each opening known as?

A

meatus

107
Q

What duct empties into the inferior meatus

A

nasolacrimal duct

108
Q

The middle meatus below the middle turbinate contains the openings of which sinuses

A

the frontal, maxillary, and anterior ethmoid

109
Q

What sinus drains into the superior meatus

A

posterior ethmoid sinus

110
Q

Which region is located between the nasal septum and superior turbinate

A

olfactory region

111
Q

The nerve supply to the internal area of the nose is from the branches of which nerve

A

Trigeminal ( 5)

112
Q

The olfactory epithelium is supported by which nerve

A

1 (olfactory)

113
Q

The nerve fibers from the olfactory nerve pierce which structure to the brain

A

cribiform plate to olfactory bulb to brain

114
Q

The blood supply in the nose comes from which arteries

A

internal and external carotid

115
Q

The blood vessils of the anterior nasal septum meet at the mmucocutaneous junction, known as what

A

little’s area

116
Q

Little’s area is also known as what

A

The Mucocutaneous junction

117
Q

Which area is commonly responsible for epistaxis?

A

Little’s area (mucocutaneous junction)

118
Q

What is a nosebleed known as

A

epistaxis

119
Q

Which turbinates can you see upon inspection of the nose?

A

Middle and inferior

120
Q

What is loss of smell

A

anosmia

121
Q

Which nerve is used for smell

A

olfactory (1)

122
Q

Which paranasal sinus is not visible frontally

A

sphenoid sinus

123
Q

A common condition where there is prominent hypertrophy of the sebaceous glands of the nose is known as what

A

rhinophyma

124
Q

What is dry mouth known as

A

xerostomia

125
Q

What is bad breath known as

A

halitosis

126
Q

What covers the tooth and is most highly calcified tissue in the body

A

enamel

127
Q

What is the bulk of the tooth made up of

A

dentin

128
Q

The pulp of teeth contain branches of which nerve

A

Trigeminal nerve

129
Q

What covers the root of the tooth and attaches it to bone

A

cementum

130
Q

What is the largest salivary gland and what innervates it?

A

Parotid gland, Facial nerve (7) through it

131
Q

What is the gland that sits below and infront of the angle of the mandible

A

Submandibular gland

132
Q

What is the smallest salivary gland, on the floor of the mouth beneath the tongue?

A

Sublingual salivary gland

133
Q

What is above the soft palate, posterior to the nasal cavity?

A

Nasopharynx

134
Q

The posterolateral wall of the nasopharynx is the opening of what

A

eustacian tube

135
Q

What is below the soft palate, behind the mouth, superior to the hyoid bone?

A

oropharynx

136
Q

What is below the oropharynx, ending at the level of the cricoid cartilage?

A

hypopharynx or laropharynx

137
Q

What protects the airway during swallowing, attached above the larynx?

A

Epiglottis

138
Q

What type of cartilage is the area for attachment of the vocal cords

A

arytenoid cartylage

139
Q

What type of cartilage makes the adam’s apple

A

Thyroid cartilage

140
Q

What is the name for hoarseness

A

dysphonia

141
Q

Your tongue moves to the side and down because of which nerve dysfunction?

A

Facial nerve

142
Q

What bacteria is the most common cause of strep pharyngitis

A

Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus

143
Q

What disease causes multiple telangiectatic lesions on the tongue

A

osler-weber-rendu syndrome

144
Q

What does osler-weber-rendu syndrome cause

A

telangiecatic lesions

145
Q

Harmartomatous gastrointestinal polyps are caused from which syndrome

A

peutz-jeghers syndrome

146
Q

What does the linchen planus buccal mucosa appear as (pattern)

A

reticulated or lacelike

147
Q

What are precancerous white plaques on cheeks, gingevia, and tongue called?

A

leukoplakia

148
Q

What is thick and white and looks like thresh but can’t be scraped from the tongue?

A

leukoplakia

149
Q

What condition typically emerges in patients taking phenytoin

A

Gingival hypertorphy

150
Q

Gingival hypertrophy occurs in patients taking which drugs

A

phenytoin (anti-seizure)

151
Q

A geographic tongue has what kind of a pattern

A

a maplike apperance

151
Q

What is a large mucous retention cyst on the floor of the mouth in association with the submandibular and sublingual glands?

A

Ranula

152
Q

What is commonly seen in association
with infective endocarditis,
leukemia, oral sex, and viral
infections such as infectious
mononucleosis

A

Palatal petechiae

153
Q

What is an overgrowth of the palatine bone called

A

torus palatinus

154
Q

a superficial inflammatory condition of the angles of the mouth often with fissuring that is caused especially by infection or avitaminosis.

A

Angular chelitis or perlèche

155
Q

What makes up the anterior triangle of the neck

A

sternocleidomastoid, mandible, midline of neck

156
Q

What makes up the posterior triangle of the neck

A

Sternocleidomastoid, trapezius, anterior scalane

157
Q

Which lymph nodes drain the ear, scalp, and skin?

A

anterior auricular (pre-auricular)

158
Q

Which lymph nodes drain the throat, tonsils, oropharynx, and thyroid and tongue?

A

Anterior cervical

159
Q

What lymph nodes drain the back of the scull, scalp, and neck

A

posterior cervical

160
Q

What lymph nodes drain the floor of the mouth

A

the submandibular

161
Q

What lymph nodes drain the teeth

A

submental

162
Q

What lymph nodes drain the thorax

A

supraclavicular

163
Q

What lymph nodes drain the tonsils and posterior pharynx

A

Tonsillar

164
Q

What is the most common endocrine cancer

A

thyroid cancer

165
Q

A soft thyroid enlargement is associate with which disease

A

Graves (may have bruit)

166
Q

A firm thyroid enlargement is associated with which disease

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, malignancy

167
Q

What disease is associated with tachychardia, increased systolic and decreased diastolic pressure, warm and smooth skin, and tremor in muscle weakness

A

hyperthyroidism

168
Q

What condition is associated with dry skin, hypothermia, bradychardia, decreased systolic and increased diastolic pressure

A

hypothyroidism

169
Q

Which vein does JVP measure

A

Internal jugular vein

170
Q

The Internal jugular is in direct contact with which part of the heart

A

the right atrium

171
Q

The internal jugular functions as what type of a measure

A

manometer (measure pressure of central venous pressure)

172
Q

The angle of louis is known as what

A

sternal-manubrium junction

173
Q

Farsidedness (short eye) is known as

A

hyperopia

174
Q

Nearsidedness ( long eye) is known as

A

myopia

IPA flash cards (4 decks)

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