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NUR 211 Krissa > Unit 2 > Flashcards

Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Symptom of a stroke, causes pt to be unable to recognize familiar objects or persons

A

agnosia

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2
Q

a symptom of a stroke characterized by loss of ability to execute or carry out skilled movements or gestures

A

apraxia

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3
Q

a symptom of a stroke that is characterized by difficulty reading

A

alexia

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4
Q

a symptom of a stroke characterized by a client being seemingly unaware of the existence of their paralyzed side.

A

neglect syndrome

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5
Q

a symptom of a stroke that is characterized by difficulty writing

A

agraphia

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6
Q

hemiplegia

A

paralysis on one side of the body

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7
Q

a symptom of a stroke that is characterized by one-sided weakness

A

hemiparesis

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8
Q

A symptom of a stroke that is charaterized by loss of visual field in one or both eyes

A

hemianopsia

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9
Q

hemianopsia

A

A symptom of a stroke that is charaterized by loss of visual field in one or both eyes

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10
Q

hemiparisis

A

a symptom of a stroke that is characterized by weakness

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11
Q

paralysis on one side of the body

A

hemiplegia

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12
Q

agraphia

A

a symptom of a stroke that is characterized by difficulty writing

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13
Q

Unilateral neglect syndrome

A

a symptom of a stroke characterized by a client being seemingly unaware of the existence of their paralyzed side.

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14
Q

alexia

A

a symptom of a stroke that is characterized by difficulty reading

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15
Q

agnosia

A

Symptom of a stroke, causes pt to be unable to recognize familiar objects or persons

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16
Q

apraxia

A

a symptom of a stroke characterized by loss of ability to execute or carry out skilled movements or gestures

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17
Q

Loss of half of the field of view on the same side in both eyes

A

homonymous hemianopsia

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18
Q

homonymous hemianopsia

A

Loss of half of the field of view on the same side in both eyes

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19
Q

Atherosclerosis
HTN
Anticoag therapy
diabetes
stress
obesity
oral contraceptives
afib
smoking
cocaine use

all of the following are risks of what?

A

stroke

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20
Q

risk factors of a stroke

A

Atherosclerosis
HTN
Anticoag therapy
diabetes
stress
obesity
oral contraceptives
afib
smoking
cocaine use

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21
Q

Diagnostic tests for a stroke

Radiology tests

A

CT Scan
MRI
Carotid Duplex Ultrasound
Echocardiogram
Lumbar puncture
Cerebral Angiography
Laboratory testing

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22
Q

Medications used to treat a stroke

A

Thrombolytics
Anticoags
NOACs
Antiplatelets
Antihypertensives/diuretics
Antiepileptics

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23
Q

Should anticoags be used in the case of a hemmoragic stroke?

A

NO

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24
Q

Time frame for thrombolytics in the case of a stroke

A

4.5 hrs of initial symptoms

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25
Q

Apixaban
dabigatran
rivaroxaban

are all examples of what type of medication?

A

NOAC

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26
Q

ASA
Clopidogrel
Dipyridamole

are all examples of what kind of medication

A

Antiplatelets

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27
Q

S/S of right sided brain damage or stroke on the right side of the brain

A

Think reckless
-impaired judement
-imparied time concepts
-impulsive, safety problems
-left sided neglect
-paralyzed left side
-rapid preformance, short attention span
-spatial-perceptual deficits
-tends to deny or minimize problems

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28
Q

-impaired judement
-imparied time concepts
-impulsive, safety problems
-left sided neglect
-paralyzed left side
-rapid preformance, short attention span
-spatial-perceptual deficits
-tends to denyor minimize problems

are all S/S of what?

A

Right sided brain damage or stroke on the right sign of the brain

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29
Q

S/S of left sided brain damage or a stroke on the left side of the brain

A

think language
-aware of deficits, depression, anxiety
-impaired comprehension related to language, math
-impaired right/left discrimination
-impaired speech/language aphasias
-paralyzed right side
-slow preformance, cautious

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30
Q

-aware of deficits, depression, anxiety
-impaired comprehension related to language, math
-impaired right/left discrimination
-impaired speech/language aphasias
-paralyzed right side
-slow preformance, cautious

are all S/S of what?

A

left sided brain damage or stroke on the left side of the brain

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31
Q

Two types of stroke

A

Hemorrhagic and ischemic

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32
Q

Visual disturbances
dizziness
slurred speech
a weak extremity

are all S/S of what?

A

TIA

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33
Q

S/S of a TIA

A

Visual disturbances
dizziness
slurred speech
a weak extremity

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34
Q

Two types of ischemic strokes

A

Embolic and thrombotic

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35
Q

This type of stroke can be embolc or thrombotic. Can be reversed with fibrinolytic therapy using alteplase AKA tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

A

ischemic

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36
Q

Time frame to treat an ischemic stroke

A

3-4.5 hrs

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37
Q

describe an ischemic stroke

A

This type of stroke can be embolic or thrombotic. Can be reversed with fibrinolytic therapy using alteplase AKA tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

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38
Q

A type of stroke caused by a ruptured artery or aneurysm.
Has a sudden onset of symptoms
Symptoms progress within minutes to hours due to ongoing bleeding

A

Hemorrhagic

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39
Q

A type of ischemic stroke that can be caused by an embolus traveling from another part of the body.
Symptoms are sudden and severe
Warning signs are less common
client remains conscious and may have a headache

A

embolic

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40
Q

This is a type of an ischemic stroke that occurs after the development of a blood clot on an atherosclerotic plaque in a cerebral artery that gradually shuts off the artery causes ischemia distal to the occlusion.
symptoms get progressivly worse as the infarction and edema increases

A

thrombotic

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41
Q

for the first 24 hours after a stroke the patient is at risk for what?

A

seizures

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42
Q

Special instructions for stroke patients

A

Elevate HOB 30 degrees
compression stockings
move
Do not feed if no gag reflex-start with liquids then progress diet as tolerated
crush meds
ask simple questions
remove dentures
seizure precautions 24 hrs
IV NS to maintain or increase BP

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43
Q

Symptom of a stroke that causes the client to be able to understand what is being said but is unable to communicate verbally. Damage occurs in the Broca’s Area of the frontal lobe

A

expressive aphasia

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44
Q

describe expressive aphasia

A

Symptom of a stroke that causes the client to be able to understand what is being said but is unable to communicate verbally. Damage occurs in the Broca’s Area of the frontal lobe

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45
Q

This is a symptom of a stroke in which the client unable to understand the spoken and often time written word. Damage occurs in the Wernicke’s Area in the Temporoparietal Lobes

A

receptive aphasia

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46
Q

describe receptive aphasia

A

client unable to understand the spoken and often time written word. Damage occurs in the Wernicke’s Area in the Temporoparietal Lobes

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47
Q

a symptom of a stroke in which dysfunction occurs in expression and reception.

A

Global Aphasia

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48
Q

Describe Homonymous Hemianopsia

A

Because there is a loss of the SAME (homo-) field of vision in both eyes the patient must turn their head from side-to-side to compensate for the loss of vision. This points to damage of the optic tract or occipital lobe from the stroke.

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49
Q

field of vision in both eyes the patient must turn their head from side-to-side to compensate for the loss of vision. This points to damage of the optic tract or occipital lobe from the stroke.

A

Homonymous Hemianopsia

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50
Q

Thrombus is a

A

blood clot

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51
Q

an Embolus is a

A

traveling blood clot

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52
Q

Neck stiffness, inability to move the neck muscles

A

Nuchal ridgity

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53
Q

describe nucal ridgity

A

Neck stiffness, inability to move the neck muscles

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54
Q

The body’s ability to sense its location, movements, and actions

A

Propriception

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55
Q

describe propriception

A

The body’s ability to sense its location, movements, and actions

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56
Q

B.E. F.A.S.T

A

Balance issues
Eyesight Changes
Facial drooping
Arm weakness
Speech difficulties
Time to call 911

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57
Q

Door-to-CT Time:

A

withing 25 mins from arrival to ED time

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58
Q

Door-to-CT results

A

within 45 mins from arrival to ED time

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59
Q

Test used to detect intracranial hemorrhage, space occupying masses, cerebral edema, infarctions, hydrocephalus, cerebral atrophy, and shifts in brain structures

A

CT Scans

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60
Q

Priority vital signs for a hemorrhagic stroke patient

A

Blood pressure

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61
Q

If a patient who has a hemorrhagic stroke begins to experience hypotension this could be an indicator of what?

A

The stroke is getting worse and there is a decrease in cerebral perfusion

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62
Q

Ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion r/t bleeding or embolism
Risk for aspiration r/t inability to protect the airway
Risk for impaired gas exchange r/t aspiration
Impaired physical mobility r/t hemiparesis or hemiplegia
Impaired verbal communication r/t decreased perfusion to speech centers
Disturbed sensory perception r/t damage to sensory input areas
Self-care deficit
Unilateral neglect
Risk for injury

all of the following are possible nursing dx for what?

A

A stroke

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63
Q

Possible nursing dx for a stroke

A

Ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion r/t bleeding or embolism
Risk for aspiration r/t inability to protect the airway
Risk for impaired gas exchange r/t aspiration
Impaired physical mobility r/t hemiparesis or hemiplegia
Impaired verbal communication r/t decreased perfusion to speech centers
Disturbed sensory perception r/t damage to sensory input areas
Self-care deficit
Unilateral neglect
Risk for injury

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64
Q

As a stroke patient deteriorates what becomes the main priority?

A

Airway patency

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65
Q

Lab tests for a stroke

blood tests

A
  • CBC
  • plt
  • Electrolytes
  • BUN/CRE
  • Cholesterol levels
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66
Q

Surgical options for a stroke

A

Carotid artery Angioplasty with stenting (CAS)
Carotid Endarterectomy
Extracranial-intracranial bypass

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67
Q

The dislocation of the shoulder from the weight of the affected arm if not supported

A

Shoulder subluxation

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68
Q

describe shoulder subluxation

A

The dislocation of the shoulder from the weight of the affected arm if not supported

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69
Q

Radiology test that can help pick up smaller strokes located in the brain stem

A

MRI

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70
Q

How would an MRI be helpful for dx testing in stroke patients

A

can help pick up smaller strokes located in the brain stem

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71
Q

Radiology test used to evaluate current cardiac status and to see if clot could have originated in the heart.

A

Echocardiogram

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72
Q

how would an echocardiogram be a helpful dx test in stroke patients

A

to evaluate current cardiac status and to see if clot could have originated in the heart.

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73
Q

Thrombolytics are what?

A

Clot busters

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74
Q

Recombinant Tissue Plaminogen activator usually ends in what?

A

-TEPLASE

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75
Q

alTEPLASE is what?

A

tPA

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75
Q

alTEPLASE (tPA) and reTEPLASE are examples of what?

A

Thrombolytics

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76
Q

Time frame for thrombolyitics to be given?

A

4.5 hrs within initial onset of symptoms

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77
Q

Thromobolytics are a high alert medication and you should always do what before administering?

A

another practitioner to independently check original order, dosage calculations, and infusion pump setting

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78
Q

antidote for thrombolytics

A

Amniocaproic Acid or amicar

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79
Q

amniocaproic acid’s other name

A

amicar

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80
Q

amicar’s other name

A

amniocaproic acid

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81
Q

What should tPA be reconstituted with?

A

Sterile water

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82
Q

What guage IV is needed to administer tPA

A

18 g

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83
Q

Contraindications for Thrombolytics in stroke patients

A

Uncontrolled HTN
Hemorrhagic stroke

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84
Q

A stroke patient has been evaluated and has been diagnosed with a hemorrhagic stroke and the doc has ordered tPA what should you do?

A

Hold med and call doc

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85
Q

A stroke patient has come in and you have not been able to get their BP under control. HCP orderes tPA what should you do?

A

Hold med and call doc

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86
Q

Labs to monitor in stroke patients taking thrombolytics

A

hgb/hct
plt
PT/PTT

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87
Q

uncontrolled HTN
A Hemorrhagic stroke

are contraindications for what?

A

tPA

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88
Q

Patients taking thrombolytics are exibiting s/s of a PE or MI what does this mean?

A

the clot has dislodged and traveled

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89
Q

If a patient taking thrombolytics what could be an indication of a clot dislodging and traveling

A

S/S of a PE or MI

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90
Q

When patients are taking thrombolytics what should you do after any arterial or venous sticks?

A

Apply prolonged pressure

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91
Q

Client teaching with patients taking thrombolytics

A

Explain purpose of medication and the need for close monitoring
Instruct client/family to report any unusual bruising or bleeding, rash, or SHOB
Avoid all unnecessary procedures such as shaving or vigorous tooth brushing.
Notify provider if you are pregnant or think you may be pregnant, or if your breastfeeding

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92
Q

Route Thrombolytics are given

A

IV push bolus followed by weight based infusion over 1-hr

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93
Q

Patients recieving tPA or any thrombolytics should have 2 what?

A

IV’s

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94
Q

Side effects of thrombolytics

A

GI Bleeding*
GU Bleeding*
Intracranial bleeding*
Allergic Rxn*
BP
Arrhythmias
Ecchymosis
Flushing
N/V
Hemoptysis
Nose/Gum bleeds

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95
Q

GI Bleeding*
GU Bleeding*
Intracranial bleeding*
Allergic Rxn*
BP
Arrhythmias
Ecchymosis
Flushing
N/V
Hemoptysis
Nose/Gum bleeds

are all side effects of what?

A

Thrombolytics or tPA

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96
Q

Severe adverse rxn to thrombolytics

A

GI Bleeding
GU Bleeding
Intracranial bleed
Allergic reaction

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97
Q

pt’s recieving Thrombolytics should be assessed how often for bleeding q what?

A

15 mins

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98
Q

pt’s recieving thrombolytics should have ______ done so they can have __________ ready

A

type and cross
blood

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99
Q

If a patient is on thrombolytic therapy they should be on what?

A

Bed rest

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100
Q

Pt’s on thrombolytic therapy should avoid what?

A

IM and SQ injections

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101
Q

You should monitor what in patients recieving thrombolytic therapy

A

VS
LOC
LABS

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102
Q

Anticoagulants end in what?

A

-PARIN/-ARIN

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103
Q

Heparin, enoxaparin, and warfarin are all examples of what?

A

anticoags

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104
Q

examples of anticoags

A

Heparin, enoxaparin and warfarin

105
Q

anticoags do what?

A

prevent clots from forming

106
Q

Short term anticoag therapy is…

A

IV or SQ and is either heparin and enoxaparin

107
Q

IV or SQ and is either heparin and enoxaparin is considered what?

A

short term anticoag therapy

108
Q

Long term anticoag therapy is…

A

PO Warfarin

109
Q

PO warfarin is an example of what?

A

Long term anticoag therapy

110
Q

Route for anticoags

A

IV Push bolus over 1 min
Followed by weight-based continuous infusion until PO therapy reaches theraputic level

111
Q

Side effects of Anticoags

A

Heparin-induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT) *
Rash
Anemia
Fever
Alopecia
Ecchymosis
Osteoporosis

112
Q

Heparin-induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT) *
Rash
Anemia
Fever
Alopecia
Ecchymosis
Osteoporosis

are all side effects of what?

113
Q

Patients on anticoag therapy should be assessed for what?

A

Bleeding
vs
labs- hyperkalemia, ^AST, ALT, LFT

114
Q

Patients on anticoag therapy’s labs should be monitored for what?

A

hyperkalemia
increased AST
increased ALT
increased LFT

115
Q

Pt’s on anticoag therapy should avoid what?

A

IM and SQ injections

115
Q

Patients on anticoags should be on what kind of rest

116
Q

Pt on anticoag therapy has just had an arterial or venous stick…What should you do?

A

apply prolonged pressure to puncture site

117
Q

Anticoags are a HIGH ALERT med so you should always do what before administration?

A

have a coworker verify the dose

118
Q

Anticoags DO NOT ______________

A

dissolve clots

119
Q

antidote for heparin

A

Protamine sulfate

120
Q

antidote for warfarin

121
Q

Protamine sulfate is the antidote for what?

122
Q

Vitamin K is the antidote for what?

123
Q

A severe adverse reaction to an anticoag

A

Heparin induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)

124
Q

Heparin induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT) is considered an adverse reaction to what?

A

an anticoag

125
Q

When heparing is given IV what is given initialy during administration?

A

a loading dose

126
Q

How is the heparin dose/rate determined

A

weight
aPTT results

127
Q

Heparin can be given in different concentrations in different mixes. To ensure no medications errors occur what should you do?

A

Read the label carefully
Have a witess
DO YOUR CHECKS

128
Q

Contraindications to anticoags

A

Bleeding disorders (thrombocytopenia)
Ulcer disease
Hemorrhagic stroke or active bleeders
Uncontrolled HTN
Pregnant/lactating clients (unless maternal benefit outweighs potential fetal risk)

129
Q

Bleeding disorders (thrombocytopenia)
Ulcer disease
Hemorrhagic stroke or active bleeders
Uncontrolled HTN
Pregnant/lactating clients (unless maternal benefit outweighs potential fetal risk)

are all contraindication for what?

130
Q

labs to monitor while on anticoags

A

aPTT – while on IV Heparin
PT/INR – while on PO warfarin
Hgb/Hct
Plt

131
Q

aPTT
PT/INR
Hgb/Hct
Plt

are all labs to monitor for what?

132
Q

activated Partial Thromboplastin Time

133
Q

aPTT

A

activated Partial Thromboplastin Time

134
Q

patient teaching for those on anticoag therapy

A

Explain purpose of medication and the need for close monitoring
Instruct client/family to report any unusual bruising or bleeding, rash, or SHOB
Do not take meds containing aspiring or NSAIDS while on heparin
Avoid vigorous tooth brushing, use soft-bristled brush
Only use electric razor
Take PO medication at same time each day
Avoid alcohol
Notify provider if you are pregnant or think you may be pregnant, or if your breastfeeding
Notify providers of medication regimen prior to treatment or surgery
Carry ID card with medication information at all times
Dietary teaching – leafy greens contains high levels of vitamin K, which makes the warfarin less effective

135
Q

Dietary teaching for patients on anticoag therapy

A

leafy greens contains high levels of vitamin K,
which makes the warfarin less effective

136
Q

What does a pt on PO anticoag therapy need to know about taking the medications

A

Take it at the same time every day

137
Q

Ace inhibitors
Beta-blockers
Calcium Channel blockers
Diuretics

are all examples of what?

A

Antihypertensives

138
Q

Ace inhibitors often end in what?

139
Q

S/E of ace inhibitors

A

Angioedema*
Cough
Increased K
Hypotension

140
Q

Severe adverse rxn to ace inhibitors

A

angioedema

141
Q

angioedema is an adverse rxn to what medication

A

ace inhibitors

142
Q

Nursing interventions for patients taking ACE inhibitors

A

Monitor for S/E
Monitor K
Monitor BP
Monitor Pulse

143
Q

Beta Blockers always end in what?

A

-lol/-olol

144
Q

S/E of Beta Blockers

A

Bradycardia
Dizziness
Hypotension
Hyperglycemia

145
Q

Patients with Asthma should avoid what BP medicaton

A

Beta blockers

146
Q

What to monitor in patients taking Beta blockers

A

Glucose
BP
Pulse

147
Q

Nursing interventions for patients taking beta blockers

A

Do not give to clients with asthma
Monitor glucose
Monitor BP
Monitor Pulse

148
Q

Calcium channel blockers typically end in what?

A

-pine
-amil
-zem

149
Q

Medications that end in:
-pine
-amil
-zem

are what?

A

Calcium channel blockers

150
Q

S/E of calcium channel blockers

A

Orthostatic hypotension
Dizziness
Bradycardia

151
Q

Nursing interventions for calcium channel blockers

A

Monitor BP
Monitor Pulse
Educate client to change position slowly

152
Q

Amlodipine
verapamil
cardiazam

are all examples of what?

A

Calcium channel blockers

153
Q

examples of calcium channel blockers

A

Amlodipine
verapamil
cardiazam

154
Q

an example of beta blockers

155
Q

atenolol is an example of what

A

a beta blocker

156
Q

enalapril is an example of what?

A

an ace inhibitor

157
Q

an example of an ace inhibitor

158
Q

medications that end in -semide or -thiazide are what?

159
Q

diuretics usually end in what?

A

-semide or -thiazide

160
Q

furosemide and HCTZ are examples of what?

161
Q

what are some examples of diuretics

A

Furosemide
HCTZ

162
Q

S/E of diuretics

A

decreased K
Decreased Na
Decreased BP

163
Q

Nursing interventions for diuretics

A

Monitor BP
Monitor Pulse
Monitor ECG
Monitor electrolytes

164
Q

Novel anticoags are alternative for what?

165
Q

alternative for warfarin

A

novel anticoags

166
Q

Apixaban (Eliquis)
Dabigatran (Pradaxa)
Rivaroxaban (Xarelto)

are all considered what?

A

Novel Anticoags and/or alternatives to warfarin

167
Q

Aspirin (Ecotrin)
Dipyridamole (Persantine)gg
Clopidogrel (Plavix)

are all examples of what kind of therapy used to treat what type of stroke?

A

antiplatelet
ischemic stroke

168
Q

examples of antiplatelet medications

A

Aspirin (Ecotrin)
Dipyridamole (Persantine)gg
Clopidogrel (Plavix)

169
Q

examples of antiepileptic medications

A

Phenytoin (Dilatin)
Gabapentin (Neurontin)

170
Q

Phenytoin (Dilatin)
Gabapentin (Neurontin)

are examples of what type of medications?

A

antiepileptic

171
Q

Nose bleeds
Bleeding gums
Bruising/petechiae
Black/Tarry stools

are all S/S of what?

172
Q

S/S of bleeding

A

Nose bleeds
Bleeding gums
Bruising/petechiae
Black/Tarry stools

173
Q

SAFE feeding nursing interventions

A

Eat in upright position and head forward (chin tucked) when swallowing
Place food in the back of the mouth on the unaffected side
Have suction equipment at bedside
Maintain distraction-free environment during meals
Collaborate with dietician to ensure appropriate calorie intake (weight loss is common following a stroke)

174
Q

What should always be at the bedside of a stroke patient?

A

suction equipment

175
Q

when feeding a stroke patient make sure they are sitting ___________ with their chin _________ when swallowing. Place food __________________________

A

upright
tucked
in the back of the mouth on the unaffected side

176
Q

ADL interventions for stroke patients

A

Dress affected side first
Sit in supportive chair that aids in balance

177
Q

To assist stroke patients with communication it is very important to do what?

A

Develop a system with the client to ensure they can understand what you are saying

178
Q

Stroke patients should be provided supplumental O2 to keep their oxygen above what?

179
Q

How often should you montior a patients vital signs post stroke?

180
Q

pt has a SBP >180 or a DBP >110 what should you do?

A

Notify HCP

181
Q

What BP would prompt a phone call to a provider in a stroke pt?

A

SBP > 180 or a DBP >110

182
Q

A stroke patient should be placed on what kind of monitor?

A

cardiac monitor

183
Q

Positioning to decrease to decrease ICP

A

elevate HOB to 30 degrees
Maintain neutral, midline positioning of the head and neck

184
Q

What kind precautions should be implemented in stroke patients for the first 24 hrs

185
Q

Stroke patients should be encouraged to do ROM how often

186
Q

Complications of strokes r/t immobility

A

pnemonia
pressure injury
DVT

187
Q

How to prevent falls in stroke patients?

A

mantain clutter free environment to prevent injury or falls

188
Q

every stroke patient should be what before they are allowed to eat or drink

A

evaluated for swallowing difficulties

189
Q

Nursing interventions for patients with dysphagia/aspiration precautions

A
  • Implement aspiration precautions
  • Assess gag reflex, if present try a sip of water
  • Order Speech consult to do swallowing studies
  • Adhere to prescribed liquid-consistency regimen
  • RN should provide initial feeding
190
Q

Education for patients with dysphagia and aspiration

A

Sit upright to eat
Head forward when swallowing to decrease risk of choking

191
Q

Patients with unilateral neglect are at high risk for what?

A

injury and self care deficit

192
Q

Nursing actions for patients with unilateral neglect

A
  • Observe affected side for injury
  • Apply arm sling if client cannot remember to care for affected arm
  • Ensure footrest is on wheelchair
  • Provide ankle brace for affected foot
193
Q

Education for patients with unilateral neglect

A

Dress affected side first
Use unaffected hand to pull affected extremity to midline for protection

194
Q

Name aspiration precautions

A
  • Supervise client while eating
  • Observe for S/S of choking
  • HOB at least 45-degrees or greater while eating
  • Reduce distractions during meals
  • Advocate for SLP evaluation
195
Q

Strokes can cause impaired awareness of __________ and ___________ which can lead to what?

A

bowel and bladder
incontinence and constipation

196
Q

Nursing actions for those with constipation or bowel incontinence

A

Assess abdomen for bloating/tenderness
Implement Bowel Training Program
Administer stool softeners (colace) as needed
Administer laxatives (biscodyl) as needed

197
Q

Education for those with constipation or bowel incontinence

A

Increase fluid intake if no swallowing deficits
Increase fiber intake
Increase movement

198
Q

Nursing actions for those with urinary incontinence

A

Palpate bladder for distention
Anticipate foley catheterization
Implement Bladder Training Program

199
Q

Education for patients who suffer from urinary incontinence

A

Teach Kegel exercises, or pelvic muscle exercises

200
Q

Who needs to be included in bowel and bladder training programs?

A

client and caregiver

201
Q

Stroke patients need to be taught to use ________ side to exercise the affected side of the body

A

unaffected

202
Q

How should stroke patients be taught to hold utensils

A

on the unaffected side

203
Q

What should be done for stroke patients who have edema in their extremities?

A

stroking towards the heart to encourage fluid movement

204
Q

If arm is affected from stroke…..

A

support the arm while in bed, the wheelchair, or during ambulation with an arm sling or strategically placed pillows

205
Q

If patient has homonymous hemianopsia is present what does the patient need to be taught

A

scanning technique when eating and ambulating

206
Q

If a patient with a hemorragic stroke complains of a sudden severe headache it can indicate what?

207
Q

An ischemic stroke is caused by what?

A

plaque build up

208
Q

Type of stroke caused by plaque build up

208
Q

If HCP is unable to determine a stroke has occured with a CT what will be done?

209
Q

Complications of a stroke

A

dysphagia/aspiration
Unilateral neglect
Constipation
Urinary incontinence

210
Q

Gait training for stroke patients should be provided with what?

A

assistive devices

211
Q

Stroke patients should be taught to use what to help with ADL’s

A

assistive devices

212
Q

Functions of frontal lobe

A

motor contol
concentration
planning
speech
problem solving
smell

213
Q

motor contol
concentration
planning
speech
problem solving
smell

are all functions of what part of the brain

A

Frontal Lobe

214
Q

Funtion of the parietal lobe

A

Touch
tase
body awareness
Language
vision

215
Q

Touch and pressure
taste
body awareness
Language
Vision

are all functions of what part of the brain?

A

parietal Lobe

216
Q

Function of occipital lobe

A

Reading
Language
Vision

217
Q

Reading
Language
Vision

are all the functions of what part of the brain?

A

Occipital Lobe

218
Q

What parts of the brain participate in language and reading?

A

Parietal
Occipital
Temporal

219
Q

What is the function of the temporal lobe?

A

Hearing
Facial Recognition
Language
Reading

220
Q

Hearing
Facial Recognition
Language
Reading

are all functions of what part of the brain?

A

Temporal lobe

221
Q

What part of the brain is in control of coordination?

A

Cerebellum

222
Q

What is the function of the Cerebellum?

A

Coordination

223
Q

Components of a neurological assessment

A
  • LOC
  • Pupillary chenges
  • Glasgow Coma Scale
  • Mental Status
  • DTR
224
Q

A TIA can mean an impending what?

225
Q

A BP of what should be maintained to ensure cerebral perfusion?

226
Q

What are NOAC’s

A

Novel oral Anticoagulants

229
Q

A radiology test used to identify vessel ruptures and hemorrhages

A

Cerebral angiography

230
Q

Describe a Cerebral angiography

A

A radiology test used to identify vessel ruptures and hemorrhages

231
Q

Pneumatic for ACE inhibitors S/E

A

A-angioedema
C-cough (dry)
E- elevated K

232
Q

The 7 B’s of beta blockers
(Side effects)

A

Bradycardia
Heart Blocks
Breathing problems
Brochure spasms
Bad for HF pts
Blood sugar masking
Blood pressure lowered

233
Q

Cranial nerve 1

234
Q

**

Olfactory Nerve controls what?

A

Sense of smell

235
Q

Sense of smell is controlled by what?

A

Cranial nerve 1
or
Olfactory

236
Q

Cranial nerve 2

237
Q

Optic nerve controls what?

238
Q

Cranial nerve 3 controls what?

A

Occulomotor

239
Q

Cranial Nerve that controls pupil size, upper eyelid elevation and most eye movement

A

Cranial Nerve 3
or Occulomotor

240
Q

Cranial Nerve 4

241
Q

Cranial nerve that controls upper and lover eye movements

A

Cranial nerve 4
or
Trochlear

242
Q

Cranial nerve 5

A

Trigeminal

243
Q

Cranial nerve that controls orneal sensation, nasal and oral mucosa, facial skin, and chewing

A

Cranial nerve 5 or Trigeminal

244
Q

Cranial nerve 6

245
Q

Cranial nerve that controls lateral eye movements

A

Cranial Nerve 6
or
Abducens

246
Q

Cranial nerve 7

247
Q

Cranial nerve that controls Face taste and movements

A

Cranial nerve 7
or
Facial

248
Q

Cranial nerve 8

249
Q

Cranial nerve that controls hearing and vestibular function

A

Cranial nerve 8
or acoustic

250
Q

Cranial nerve 9

A

Glossopharyngeal

251
Q

Cranial nerve that controls swallowing ability in the pharyngeal soft palate and tonsilar mucosa, taste, and perception

A

Cranial nerve 9
or
Glossopharyngeal

252
Q

Cranial Nerve 10

253
Q

Cranial nerve that controls swallowing; controls sensation in the thoracis and abdominal viscera

A

Cranial nerve 10
or
Vagus

254
Q

Cranial nerve 11

255
Q

Cranial nerve that controls neck and shoulder muscle strength

A

Cranial nerve 11
or
Spinal

256
Q

Cranial nerve 12

A

Hypoglossal

257
Q

Cranial nerve that controls tongue movement; involved in speech and swallowing

A

Cranial nerve 12
or
Hypoglossal

NUR 211 Krissa (16 decks)

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