Unit 12 & 13- Disorders Flashcards

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1
Q

Define Psychopathology

A

Any pattern of emotions, behaviors, or thoughts inappropriate to the situation and leading to personal distress or the inability to achieve important goals. Other terms having essentially the same meaning include mental illness, mental disorder, and psychological disorder.

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2
Q

What symptoms of severe psychopathology do clinicians look for?

A

Hallucinations-Delusions-Extreme Affective Disturbances (HDE)

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3
Q

Define Hallucinations

A

False sensory experiences that may suggest mental disorder. Hallucinations can have other causes, such as drugs or sensory isolation.

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4
Q

Define Delusions

A

Extreme disorders of thinking, involving persistent false beliefs. Delusions are the hallmark of paranoid disorders.

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5
Q

Define Affect

A

a term referring to emotion or mood.

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6
Q

The medical model takes a “_____” view, while psychology sees psychological disorders as an interaction of _____, _____, _____, and _____ factors.

A

Disease-Biological-Mental-Social-Behavioral

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7
Q

Hippocrates taught his disciples to interpret the symptoms of psychopathology as an imbalance among four body fluids called “_____”

A

Humors; Blood-Phlegm-Black Bile- Yellow Bile BPBY

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8
Q

Define Medical Model

A

The view that mental disorders are diseases that, like ordinary physical diseases, have objective physical causes and require specific treatments.

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9
Q

Modern psychologists think that the medical model has its own weaknesses. They point out that the assumption of “disease” leads to a _____ approach in which the therapist takes all the responsibility for diagnosing the illness and prescribing treatment.

A

Doctor-knows-best

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10
Q

Define Social-Cognitive-Behavioral Approach

A

a psychological alternative to the medical model that views psychological disorder through a combination of the social, cognitive, and behavioral perspectives.

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11
Q

Clinicians look for the following more subtle signs that may also indicate psychological disturbances, ranging from mild to severe:

A

Distress-Maladaptiveness-Irrationality-Unpredictability-Unconventionality and undesirable behavior. DMI3U

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12
Q

Define DSM-IV

A

The fourth edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, published by the American Psychiatric Association; the classification system most widely accepted psychiatric in the United States.

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13
Q

The DSM-IV, the most widely used system, classifies disorders by their _____.

A

Mental and Behavioral symptoms

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14
Q

Define Neurosis

A

Before the DSM-IV, this term was used as a label for subjective distress or self-defeating behavior that did not show signs of brain abnormalities or grossly irrational thinking.

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15
Q

Define Psychosis

A

a disorder involving profound disturbances in perception, rational thinking, or affect. PRA

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16
Q

Define Mood Disorders

A

Abnormal disturbances in emotion or mood, including bipolar disorder and unipolar disorder. Mood disorders are also called affective disorders.

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17
Q

Define Major Depression

A

A form of depression that does not alternate with mania.

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18
Q

Define Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)

A

Technically seasonal pattern specifier, this DSM-IV course specifier for mood disorders is believed to be a form of depression caused by deprivation of sunlight. The term “course specifier” is used to describe how a disorder progresses.

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19
Q

Define Bipolar Disorder

A

A mental abnormality involving swings of mood from mania to depression.

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20
Q

Define Anxiety Disorders

A

Mental problems characterized mainly by anxiety. Anxiety disorders include panic disorder, specific phobias, and obsessive-compulsive disorder. PPO

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21
Q

Define Generalized Anxiety Disorder

A

A psychological problem characterized by persistent and pervasive feelings of anxiety, without any external cause.

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22
Q

Define Panic Disorder

A

A disturbance marked by panic attacks that have no obvious connection with events in the person’s present experience. Unlike generalized anxiety disorder, the victim is usually free of anxiety between panic attacks.

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23
Q

Define Agoraphobia

A

A fear of public places and open spaces, commonly accompanying panic disorder.

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24
Q

Define Phobias

A

A group of anxiety disorders involving a pathological fear of a specific object or situation.

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25
Q

Define Preparedness Hypothesis

A

The notion that we have an innate tendency, acquired through natural selection, to respond quickly and automatically to stimuli that posed a survival threat to our ancestors.

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26
Q

Define Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

A

A condition characterized by patterns of persistent, unwanted thoughts and behaviors.

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27
Q

Define Somatoform Disorders

A

Psychological problems appearing in the form of bodily symptoms or physical complaints, such as weakness or excessive worry about disease. The somatoform disorders include conversion disorder and hypochondriasis. CH

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28
Q

Define Conversion Disorder

A

A type of somatoform disorder, marked by paralysis, weakness, or loss of sensation but with no discernible physical cause. PWL

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29
Q

Define Hypochondriasis

A

A somatoform disorder involving excessive concern about health and disease; also called hypochondria.

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30
Q

Define Dissociative Disorders

A

A group of pathologies involving “fragmentation” of the personality, in which some parts of the personality have become detached, or dissociated, from other parts.

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31
Q

Define Dissociative Amnesia

A

A psychologically induced loss of memory for personal information, such as one’s identity or residence.

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32
Q

Define Dissociative Fugue

A

Essentially the same as dissociative amnesia, but with the addition of “flight” from one’s home, family, and job.

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33
Q

Define Depersonalization Disorder

A

An abnormality involving the sensation that mind and body have separated, as in an “out-of-body” experience.

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34
Q

Define Dissociative Identity Disorder

A

A condition in which an individual displays multiple identities, or personalities; formerly called “multiple personality disorder”.

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35
Q

Define Anorexia Nervosa

A

An eating disorder that involves persistent loss of appetite that endangers an individual’s health and stems from emotional or psychological reasons rather than from organic causes.

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36
Q

Define Bulimia Nervosa

A

An eating disorder characterized by eating binges followed by “purges” induced by vomiting or laxatives; typically initiated as a weight-control measure.

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37
Q

Define Schizophrenia

A

A psychotic disorder involving distortions in thoughts, perceptions, and/or emotions.

38
Q

Many investigators consider schizophrenia a constellation of separate disorders. Here are the five most common:

A

Disorganized Type- Catatonic Type- Paranoid Type- Undifferentiated Type- Residual Type DCPUR

39
Q

Define Diathesis-Stress Hypothesis

A

In reference to schizophrenia, the proposal that says that genetic factors place the individual at risk while environmental stress factors transform this potential into an actual schizophrenic disorder.

40
Q

Define Personality Disorders

A

Conditions involving a chronic, pervasive, inflexible, and maladaptive pattern of thinking, emotion, social relationships, or impulse control.

41
Q

Three personality disorders include the

A

Narcissistic, antisocial, and borderline personality disorder. NAB

42
Q

Define Narcissistic Personality Disorder

A

Characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance, a preoccupation with fantasies of success or power, and a need for constant attention and admiration.

43
Q

Define Antisocial Personality Disorder

A

Characterized by a long-standing pattern of irresponsible behavior indicating a lack of conscience and a diminished sense of responsibility to others.

44
Q

Define Borderline Personality Disorder

A

An unstable personality given to impulsive behavior.

45
Q

Define Autism

A

A developmental disorder marked by disabilities in language, social interaction, and the ability to understand another person’s state of mind.

46
Q

Define Dyslexia

A

A reading disability, thought by some experts to involve a brain disorder.

47
Q

Define Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)

A

A developmental disability involving short attention span, distractibility, and extreme difficulty in remaining inactive for any period.

48
Q

Ideally, accurate diagnoses lead to proper treatments, but diagnoses may also become _____ that depersonalize individuals and ignore the social and cultural contexts in which their problems arise.

A

Labels

49
Q

Define Insanity

A

A legal term, not a psychological or psychiatric one, referring to a person who is unable, because of a mental disorder or defect, to conform his or her behavior to the law.

50
Q

Define Therapy

A

A general term for any treatment process; in psychology and psychiatry, therapy refers to a variety of psychological and biomedical techniques aimed at dealing with mental disorders or coping with problems of living.

51
Q

Therapy for psychological disorders takes a variety of forms, but all involve some relationship focused on improving a person’s mental, behavioral, or social _____.

A

Functioning

52
Q

Define Psychological Therapies

A

Therapies based on psychological principles (rather than on the biomedical approach); often called “psychotherapy”.

53
Q

Psychological Therapies come in 2 main forms:

A

Insight Therapy-Behavior Therapy

54
Q

Define Biomedical Therapies

A

Treatments that focus on altering the brain, especially with drugs, psychosurgery, or electroconvulsive therapy.

55
Q

Define Insight Therapies

A

Psychotherapies in which the therapist helps patients/clients understand (gain insight into) their problems.

56
Q

Define Talk Therapies

A

Psychotherapies that focus on communicating and verbalizing emotions and motives to understand their problems.

57
Q

Define Psychoanalysis

A

The form of psychodynamic therapy developed by Sigmund Freud. The goal of psychoanalysis is to release conflicts and memories from the unconscious.

58
Q

Define Analysis of Transference

A

The Freudian technique of analyzing and interpreting the patient’s relationship with the therapist, based on the assumption that this relationship mirrors unresolved conflicts in the patient’s past.

59
Q

Define Neo-Freudian Psychodynamic Therapies

A

Therapies for mental disorders that were developed by psychodynamic theorists who embraced some of Freud’s ideas but disagreed with others.

60
Q

Define Humanistic Therapies

A

Treatment techniques based on the assumption that people have a tendency for positive growth and self-actualization, which may be blocked by an unhealthy environment that can include negative self-evaluation and criticism from others.

61
Q

Define Client-Centered Therapy

A

A humanistic approach to treatment developed by Carl Rogers, emphasizing an individual’s tendency for healthy psychological growth through self-actualization.

62
Q

Define Reflection of Feeling

A

Carl Rogers’s technique of paraphrasing the clients’ words, attempting to capture the emotional tone expressed.

63
Q

Define Cognitive Therapy

A

Emphasized rational thinking (as opposed to subjective emotion, motivation, or repressed conflicts) as the key to treating mental disorders.

64
Q

Define Group Therapy

A

Any form of psychotherapy done with more than one client/patient at a time. Group therapy is often done from a humanistic perspective.

65
Q

Define Self-Help Support Groups

A

Groups, such as Alcoholics Anonymous, that provide social support and an opportunity for sharing ideas about dealing with common problems. Such groups are typically organized and run by laypersons, rather than professional therapists.

66
Q

Define Behavior Modification

A

Another term for behavior therapy.

67
Q

Define Behavior Therapy

A

Any form of psychotherapy based on the principles of behavioral learning, especially operant conditioning and classical conditioning.

68
Q

Define Systematic Desensitization

A

A behavioral therapy technique in which anxiety is extinguished by exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking stimulus.

69
Q

Define Exposure Therapy

A

A form of desensitization therapy in which the patient directly confronts the anxiety-provoking stimulus (as opposed to imagining the stimulus).

70
Q

Define Aversion Therapy

A

As a classical conditioning procedure, aversive counterconditioning involves presenting individuals with an attractive stimulus paired with unpleasant (aversive) stimulation in order to condition revulsion.

71
Q

Define Contingency Management

A

An operant conditioning approach to changing behavior by altering the consequences, especially rewards and punishments, of behavior.

72
Q

Define Token Economy

A

An operant technique applied to groups, such as classrooms or mental hospital wards, involving the distribution of “tokens” or other indicators of reinforcement contingent on desired behaviors. The tokens can later be exchanged for privileges, food, or other reinforcers.

73
Q

Define Participant Modeling

A

A social learning technique in which a therapist demonstrates and encourages a client to imitate a desired behavior.

74
Q

Define Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy

A

A newer form of psychotherapy that combines the techniques of cognitive therapy with those of behavior therapy.

75
Q

Define Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy

A

Albert Ellis’s brand of cognitive therapy, based on the idea that irrational thoughts and behaviors are the cause of mental disorders.

76
Q

Define Active Listener

A

A person who gives the speaker feedback in such forms as nodding, paraphrasing, maintaining an expression that shows interest, and asking questions for clarification.

77
Q

Biomedical therapies seek to treat psychological disorders by changing the brain’s chemistry with _____, its circuitry with surgery, or its patterns of activity with pulses of electricity or powerful magnetic fields.

A

Drugs

78
Q

Define Antipsychotic Drugs

A

Medicines that diminish psychotic symptoms, usually by their effect on the dopamine pathways in the brain.

79
Q

_____ and _____, for example, are known to block dopamine receptors in the synapse between nerve cells. _____ both decreases dopamine activity and increases the activity of another neurotransmitter, serotonin, which inhibits the dopamine system.

A

Chlorpromazine-Haloperidol-Clozapine

80
Q

Define Tardive Dyskinesia

A

An incurable disorder of motor control, especially involving muscles of the face and head, resulting from long-term use of antipsychotic drugs.

81
Q

Define Antidepressant Drugs

A

Medicines that affect depression, usually by their effect on the serotonin and/or norepinephrine pathways in the brain.

82
Q

Define Lithium Carbonate

A

A simple chemical compound that is highly effective in dampening the extreme mood swings of bipolar disorder.

83
Q

Define Antianxiety Drugs

A

A category of drugs that includes the barbiturates and benzodiazepines, drugs that diminish feelings of anxiety.

84
Q

Define Stimulants

A

Drugs that normally increase the activity level by encouraging communication among neurons in the brain. Stimulants, however, have been found to suppress activity level in persons with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.

85
Q

Define Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder

A

A common problem in children who have difficulty controlling their behavior and focusing their attention.

86
Q

Define Psychosurgery

A

The general term for surgical intervention in the brain to treat psychological disorders.

87
Q

Define Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)

A

a treatment used primarily for depression and involving the application of an electric current to the head, producing a generalized seizure. Sometimes called “shock treatment”.

88
Q

Define Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TMS)

A

A treatment that involves magnetic stimulation of specific regions of the brain. Unlike ECT, TMS does not produce a seizure.

89
Q

Define Therapeutic Community

A

Jones’s term for a program of treating mental disorders by making the institutional environment supportive and humane for patients.

90
Q

Define Deinstitutionalization

A

The policy of removing patients, whenever possible, from mental hospitals.

91
Q

Define Community Mental Health Movement

A

An effort to deinstitutionalize mental patients and to provide therapy from outpatient clinics. Proponents of community mental health envisioned that recovering patients could live with their families, in foster homes, or in group homes.