Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Unit 1 > Unit 1 SIGS > Flashcards

Unit 1 SIGS Flashcards

1
Q

What are the CFTR gene mutation classes?

A

Class I - no protein - channel not made at all
Class II - no transport - channel not transported to cell membrane
Class III - no function - channel on cell membrane but doesn’t work
Class IV - less function - channels work but poor/decreased function
Class V - less protein - not enough channels made
Class VI - not stable - channels work but aren’t stable, need frequent replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the Class I CFTR gene mutation pathophysiology

A

The result of a nonsense, frameshift or splice-site mutation leads to premature termination of the mRNA sequence –> no protein made –> absence of Cl- channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the Class II CFTR gene mutation pathophysiology

A

Abnormal post-translational processing of the CFTR protein –> channel unable to move to proper location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the Class III CFTR gene mutation pathophysiology

A

Diminished protein activity in response to intracellular signaling –> fully formed channel but non-functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the Class IV CFTR gene mutation pathophysiology

A

CFTR protein has been produced and correctly localized to the cell surface, but rate of chloride ion flow and duration of channel activation after stimulation is decreased from normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the Class V CFTR gene mutation pathophysiology

A

Decreased concentration of CFTR channels in the cell membrane as a result of rapid degradation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the Class VI CFTR gene mutation pathophysiology

A

Channel instability leads to rapid turnover and decreased net function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the pathway of glycogenesis

A

Glucose –> (Glucokinase) –> G6P –> Glucose-1-Phosphate –> UDP-Glucose –> linear glycogen –> (branching enzyme) –> branched glycogen –> (Glycogen phosphorylase) –> Limit Dextrin –> (4-a-D-glucanotransferase) –> Modified Limit Dextrin –> (a-1,6-glucosidase) –> Glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Discuss the function of Glucose-6-Phosphatase

A

Converts Glucose-6-Phosphate into glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of glycogen storage disease?

A

Autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the importance of dietary therapy in the management of von Gierke disease

A

Foods rich in fructose or galactose need to be avoided - they need to be converted to G6P before they can be utilized

Cornstarch helps prevent hypoglycemic events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Outline the pathophys and clinical presentation of Type I GSD

A

Von Gierke Disease - mutation on G6PC gene for G6Pase - diminished G6Pase can’t convert Glucose-6-Phospohate into glucose

Clinical presentation:
Hepatomegaly, renomegaly from increased glycogen and lipids
Hypoglycemic tremor, confusion, seizures
Gout
“Doll-like” faces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Outline the pathophys and clinical presentation of Type II GSD

A

Pompe disease - impaired glycogenolysis - defective Lysosomal acid a-1,4 glucosidase –> decrease of branch hydrolysis –> increase glycogen in cardiac muscle - affects tissue

Clinical presentation
Progressive
Failure to thrive, proximal myopathy, exercise intolerance
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Respiratory failure
Early death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Outline the pathophys and clinical presentation of Type III GSD

A

Cori’s disease - impaired glycogenolysis, functional gluconeogenesis

Defective AGL gene –> decrease in debranching enzymes –> increase limit dextrin

Clinical presentation:
Failure to thrive, muscle weakness, cramps
Hepatomegaly, possible cirrhosis or cardiomyopathy

Needs high protein diet with cornstarch supplementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Outline the pathophys and clinical presentation of Type IV GSD

A

Anderson disease - impaired glycogenesis - defective GBE1 gene –> branching enzyme depletion –> decreased branched glycogen - affects tissue and liver

Clinical presentation:
Failure to thrive
Hepatosplenomegaly
Hypotonia, cardiomyopathy
Peripheral neuropath
Early death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Outline the pathophys and clinical presentation of Type V GSD

A

McArdle disease - impaired glycogenolysis - defective PYGM gene –> decreased muscle phosphorylase

Clinical presentation
Older child/adolescent
Muscle weakness, cramps, exercise intolerance
Rhabdomyolysis, myoglobinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Outline the pathophys and clinical presentation of Type VI GSD

A

Hers disease - Impaired glycogenolysis - defective PYGL gene - decreased hepatic phosphorylase –> no debranching of glycogen

Presentation:
Hepatomegaly, hepatic fibrosis
Poor metabolic control –> short stature, delayed puberty, osteopenia, osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does Type I GSD affect serum levels of glucose, lactate, uric acid, and lipids?

A

Decreased plasma glucose levels
Elevated lactic acid levels
Elevated triglyceride levels
Elevated uric acid levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Clinical presentation of Barrett’s Esophagus

A

Retrosternal burning
Regurgitation with water brash
Worse when supine and after eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does smoking increase the risk of Barrett’s Esophagus?

A

Nicotine relaces smooth muscle –> relaxing the lower esophageal sphincter allows gastric juices to get through
Reduced amount of HCO3 in saliva –> decreased acid neutralizing compound
Induces inflammation –> decrease peristalsis –> disrupts clearance of stomach acid from esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When does GERD turn into Barret Esophagus?

A

When there is metaplasia of the distal esophageal –> change from squamous to columnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Explain the pathophysiology of treatment options for Barret esophagus

A

Antacids - increase pH of stomach acid (neutralize)
Histamine blockers - prevents increase of gastric acid after meals
Proton pump inhibitors - decrease amount of H+ ions pumped into stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Inheritance pattern of Sickle Cell Disease

A

autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of Sickle Cell Disease

A

Sickle cell disease - ɑɑSS (homozygous)
Hemoglobin SC disease - ɑɑSC (double mutation)
Sickle cell trait - ɑɑβS (heterozygous)

Globin S chain –> B missense mutation on C11 (Glu(-) –> Val(0))
Globin C chain –> B missense mutation on C11 (Glu(-) –> Lys(+))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the Sickle Cell Disease pathophysiology

A

In the deoxygenated form of HbS, the valine becomes buried in a hydrophobic pocket on an adjacent beta-globin chain. This joines the molecules together to form insoluble polymers. When enough of these form, it gives rise to the classic sickled shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Outline the clinical presentation of Sickle Cell disease

A

General anemia features
Vaso-occlusive events - hallmark
Asplenia
Hematuria
Recurring infections (due to loss of splenic function)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Most distinguishing clinical feature of Sickle Cell Disease

A

Acute vaso-occlusion pain

Sickle cells lack elasticity –> adhere to endothelium –> causes vasoocclusion –> stroke, acute chest syndrome (pulmonary hypertension), splenic sequestration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How does Sickle Cell Disease affect vital signs?

A

Lower blood pressure than normal reference ranges

Higher blood pressures are at risk for stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Diagnostic tests of Sickle Cell Anemia

A

Hemoglobin electrophoresis - checking for fetal hgb
PBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Justify the use of hydroxyurea therapy for Sickle Cell Disease

A

Hydroxyurea therapy uses an antineoplastic drug to inhibit ribonucleotide reductase
This inhibits DNA replication and causes cell cycle arrest in S phase
Increased nitric oxide levels and cGMP signaling lead to an increase in HgbF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of hereditary spherocytosis?

A

** Autosomal dominant **

32
Q

List the laboratory values of HS, and what unique lab finding will you find in a patient with HS?

A

normal MCV
Increased reticulocytes
Decreased haptoglobin (binding to free-floating hemoglobin)
Increased indirect bilirubin

Increased MCHC

33
Q

Describe the pathogenesis and pathophysiology of HS

A

Deficiency in one or more proteins - spectrin, ankyrin, band 3, or and/or band 4.2 - within the RBC membrane/cytoskeleton lead to misshapen and fragile RBC.

Lack of adherence between the cytoskeleton and the cell membrane –> RBC loses biconcave shape –> decrease surface area –> anemia

Howell-Jolly bodies –> extravascular hemolysis

Lack of plasticity –> splenic trapping

34
Q

Outline the clinical features of HS

A

Mild: asymptomatic
Moderate: General anemia features, Jaundice, Splenomegaly, Cholelithiasis
Severe: hydrops fetalis, skeletal deformities, delayed puberty

35
Q

Explain the role of parvo B19 in HS

A

Parvo B19 infects the bone marrow and uses erythroid progenitor cells to replicate, thus taking them from producing RBC –> causes aplastic crisis in patients with hemolytic anemias who need RBCs to replicate rapidly to replace the damaged RBCs

36
Q

How does HS effect energy levels

A

RBC hemolysis –> less O2 carrying capacity and distribution throughout the blood –> less O2 available for aerobic metabolism –> decreased ATP production

37
Q

Define the clinical utility and significance of osmotic fragility testing and eosin-5-maleimide (EMA) studies in the diagnosis of HS.

A

Eosin-5-maleimide binding test - test of choice –> looking for decreased binding between E5M dye and RBC membranes –> binding is quantified using flow cytometry

Osmotic fragility test - measures ability of RBCs to resist hemolysis when exposed to different degrees of salt dilution –> HS more vulnerable to osmotic stress –> will explode in hypotonic solution

38
Q

How do spherocytes differ from normal RBC on PBS

A

Spherocytes don’t have the biconcave shape so they don’t have the central pallor seen in RBC
Spherocytes may have Howell-Jolly bodies

39
Q

Signs and symptoms of acetaminophen overdose

A

Nausea, vomiting, pallor, lethargy
Progressive liver impairment
Jaundice

40
Q

Outline pathophysiology of acetaminophen overdose

A

Majority of acetaminophen metabolized to bile –> rest (normally small amount) processed via CP450 into NAPQI –> glutathione inactivates NAPQI –> too much acetaminophen depletes glutathione stores –> NAPQI build up –> oxidative stress –> hepatocyte injury/liver necrosis

41
Q

How does treatment prevent acetaminophen overdose

A

N-acetylcysteine provides sulfur to aid in glutathione synthesis

Activated charcoal absorbs newly ingested acetaminophen to prevent absorption into blood stream

42
Q

Why does acute alcohol intake delay acetaminophen metabolism/overdose?

How does chronic alcohol intake accelerate acetaminophen metabolism?

A

Alcohol is a competitive inhibitor to acetaminophen of the CP450 enzyme.

Chronic alcohol use induces hepatic microsomal enzymes that result in the accelerated metabolism of acetaminophen.

43
Q

What is the virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus

A

Protein A - binds to macrophage-binding section of IgG antibody which prevents the macrophage from binding and destroying the pathogen

44
Q

Pt presents with a poorly defined lesion with cutaneous lymphatic edema. The area is warm, tender, and red around the lesion. Pt states it started as an itchy bug-bite but has turned into this over the last 2 or 3 days.

Labs show increased neutrophils with decreased monocytes, and a negative Catalase test. What is the DDx and what is the treatment?

A

Cellulitis treated with broad spectrum ABX

45
Q

What cancers are most common in children with Down Syndrome and why?

A

Under 5yo - Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)

Older than 5yo - Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

46
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of Cystic Fibrosis

A

Infants: meconium ileus, failure to thrive, malabsorption

Adults: distal intestinal blockages, pulmonary emphysema - dilation of air spaces, male infertility (vas deferens doesn’t form), finger/toe clubbing, poor growth

47
Q

Identify and describe the tests used for diagnosis of CF

A

X-ray of abdomen with contrast - Neuhauser sign (soap bubble appearance)

Chest X-ray - pulmonary emphysema (dilation of alveoli)

Sweat chloride test - defective ATP-gated Cl- channels can’t reabsorb Cl- from sweat glands, causes excess Cl-, Na+ and water –> 60mmol/L or greater of NaCl

CF screening panel

48
Q

Why might a newborn with CF show a false negative on neonatal CF screening?

A

Screening checks for increased IRT, which may also be increased if babies are premature, a carrier of the mutation, or had a stressful delivery.

49
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of CF

A

Mutation of the CFTR gene on Chromosome 7 causes mutation of the ATP-gated Cl- channel proteins on the surface of epithelial cells.

Leads to decreased secretion of Cl- and increased resorption of Na+ into cellular space. Sodium reabsorption –> increased water resorption –> thicker mucus secretions

Pathway: Ga(s) –> +Adenylyl cyclase –> cAMP –> PKA –> CFTR

50
Q

Explain the different karyotypic findings associated with Turner Syndrome

A

45XO, 45X/46XX, 45X/46XY, 45X/47XXX

51
Q

Discuss the process of male and female gametogenesis and fertilization

A

Spermatogenesis : spermatogonium (2n) –> primary spermatocyte (2n) –> secondary spermatocyte (1n) –> spermatid (1n) –> sperm (spermatids with tails)

Oogenesis : Oogonium (2n) –> primary oocyte (2n) –> secondary oocyte (1n) + polar body –> ootid (1n) + polar body (first polar body –> 2 polar bodies) –> ovum (1n) + 3 polar bodies

52
Q

Describe anaphase lag and how it contributes to chromosomal abnormalities

A

Anaphase lag is the failure of a spindle fiber to pull a chromatid apart from the midline –> chromatid stays separated from the rest of the chromosomes while nuclear envelope forms –> lagged chromatid stuck outside nuclear envelope –> chromosome destroyed = monosomy

53
Q

Explain the components and values of the Quad test seen in Down Syndrome

A

Decreased AFP (alpha fetal protein)
Decreased Unconjugated estriol
Increased Inhibin A
Increased hCG (DS is the only disorder with increase in hCG)

54
Q

Describe the major medical complications of Down Syndrome

A

Congenital heart defects - AVSD most common
Hirschsprung’s disease - ENS missing from end of bowel
Hypogonadism, decreased fertility
Cancer
Early onset Alzheimer’s - amyloid production gene upregulated on extra chromosome

55
Q

Pathogenesis of TTP

A

95% of cases acquired by IgG autoantibodies of ADAMTS13

5% - gene mutation –> depletion of ADAMTS13 antigen –> Upshaw-Shulman disease –> found in families with consanguinity

56
Q

Pathophysiology of TTP

A

ADAMTS13 function is to cleave vWF to regulate clotting

Mutation of ADAMTS13 causes buildup of vWF factor –> vWF accumulates on endothelial cells –> increased platelet adhesion –> microthrombi –> mechanically shearing of RBC and blockage of small vessels –> schistocytes, end organ ischemia

57
Q

Clinical features of TTP and common complications

A

Thrombocytopenia
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
Petechiae
Jaundice
Neurological defects

Complications: stroke, seizures, hemorrhagic colitis, bowel necrosis, ischemia, renal failure

58
Q

Lab findings of TTP

A

↓ platelets (thrombocytopenia)
↓ hemoglobin (hemolysis - free floating hemoglobin)
↓ haptoglobin (hemolysis)
↑ reticulocytes (replenishing RBC)
↑ LDH (hemolysis - RBC use lactic acid pathway to make ATP)
↑ bilirubin (hemolysis - heme metabolism)
↑ D-dimer

Coag: ↑ Bleeding time, Normal PT, normal or slightly ↑ PTT
PBS: schistocytes, low platelets

59
Q

Lab findings of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

A

↓ platelets
↓ Fibrinogen
↑ D-dimer
↑ LDH

Coag: ↑ Bleeding time, ↑ PT, ↑ PTT
PBS: Schistocytes

60
Q

Lab findings of Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome

A

↓ platelets (thrombocytopenia)
↓ hemoglobin (hemolysis - free floating hemoglobin)
↓ haptoglobin (hemolysis)
↑ reticulocytes (replenishing RBC)
↑ LDH (hemolysis - RBC use lactic acid pathway to make ATP)
↑ bilirubin (hemolysis - heme metabolism)
Normal D-dimer
↑ WBC

Coag: ↑ Bleeding time, Normal PT, normal or slightly ↑ PTT
PBS: schistocytes, low platelets

61
Q

Pathogenesis of HUS

A

Infection of E. Coli Shiga Toxin cause mucosal inflammation –> facilitates bacterial toxins entering circulation –> toxins cause endothelial cell damage, especially in renal structures –> damages endothelial cells secrete cytokines –> vasoconstriction and platelet microthrombus formation (intravascular coagulopathy) –> thrombocytopenia –> RBCs mechanically destroyed by microthrombi –> hemolysis and end organ ischemia

62
Q

Justify the use of plasmapheresis rather than a plasma transfusion for aTTP

A

Plasma transfusions would be less effective for acquired TTP because plasma transfusion would only provide ADAMTS13 enzymes to the blood stream, but would not prevent the destruction of the new enzymes by the antibodies.

Plasmapheresis would replace the entirety of the plasma, including the ADAMTS13 antibodies, which would allow the enzyme to function.

63
Q

Outline the etiology and pathophysiology of Factor V Leiden

A

Autosomal recessive inheritance

DNA point mutation (Arg –> Gln) Arg506Gln near the polypeptide cleavage site of Factor V
Gln506 is resistant to the cleavage of Activated Protein C –> TF V remains active in common coagulation cascade –> continues to activate prothrombin (TF II) –> increases thrombotic events (hypercoagulation)

64
Q

Pathogenesis of DVT

A

Hypercoagulability, Endothelial damage, and/or venous stasis can cause DVT

65
Q

Identify the significance of D-dimer levels in thrombotic disorders

A

D-dimers are fibrin degradation products released when plasmin cleaves cross-linked fibrin

Elevated D-dimers indicate elevated clotting

66
Q

Justify the use of long-term anticoagulation therapy in patients with Factor V Leiden and explain the MOA

A

Warfarin is a long term anticoagulant

Because Warfarin inhibits Vitamin K, the zymogens produced by the liver are inactivated, including protein C. Protein C is used to promote anticoagulation. So because Warfarin takes a few days to work, it should be paired with a bridging anticoagulant such as Heparin, as it works on the coagulation cascade immediately. Otherwise it can cause hypercoagulability.

67
Q

Outline the Ottawa Ankle Rules

A
  1. Inability to bear weight for more than 4 steps
  2. Bone tenderness on posterior lateral malleolus
  3. Bony tenderness on posterior medial malleolus
  4. Tenderness at base of 5th metatarsal
  5. Pain at navicular bone
68
Q

Outline the pathway that causes NSAIDs to delay wound healing

A

NSAIDS inhibit enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX)

COX converts arachidonic acid –> thromboxanes (TXA), prostaglandins, and prostacyclins

Inhibited COX –> decreased platelet aggregation

69
Q

Identify the role of neutrophils in bacterial infections

A

Production of ROS
Chemotaxis of other inflammatory cells

70
Q

How does infection cause a fever?

A

Exogenous pyrogens (bacteria) initiate fever by interacting with macrophages or monocytes –> induces cytokine induction –> cytokines (IL-1 mostly) act on hypothalamus –> synthesis of prostaglandins –> increase of core temperature

71
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

Structure, epidemiology, virulence factor and mode of transmission

A

Structure: Cocci - round, found in clusters, Gram (+), catalase +

Epidemiology: anywhere dirty (gym, hospitals, skin)

Virulence factor: Protein A - binds to Fc section of IgG antibody to inhibit phagocytosis

Opportunistic MOT - ingestion, direct, transdermal

72
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

Structure, epidemiology, physiology and mode of transmission

A

Structure: Cocci - round, found in chains, Gram (+), catalase -

Epidemiology: anywhere dirty (gym, hospitals, skin)

Virulence factor: Toxins (exotoxins result in release of IL-1, IFN-y, TNF-a), enzymes (DNase - destroys neutrophils), protein M (prevents opsonization)

Opportunistic MOT - ingestion, direct, transdermal

73
Q

What test differentiates Staph from Strep

A

Catalase - staphylococcus has the ability to produce catalase

74
Q

Pathogenesis of Ewing Sarcoma family of tumors

A

Translocation of EWSR1 gene on C22

t(11;22)(q24;q12) leads to full expression of fusion protein EWS-FLI1 –> increased cell proliferation

75
Q

Describe how the Ewing Sarcoma family of tumors is a systemic disease process

A

There are four different tumor types affecting different aspects of the body

Ewings Sarcoma - bone
Extraosseous ES - soft tissue
Primitive neuroectodermal tumor - brain
Askin’s tumor - chest wall

76
Q

Explain the significance of LDH levels in Ewing Sarcoma

A

Ewing sarcoma has rapidly dividing tumor cells, which use aerobic glycolysis of lactate in the presence of oxygen

Increased LDH is indicative of significantly increased cell proliferation

Unit 1 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions