Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Bio125 ALHK > Unit 1 quizzes 3-7 > Flashcards

Unit 1 quizzes 3-7 Flashcards

1
Q

Positive feedback is when the response is corrective and restores the variable to its set point.

Answer Options:
True

False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Scientists were studying the effects of vitamins on pregnant women. Who would be best for the control group?

Answer Options:

Pregnant women

Non-pregnant women

Men

Pre-teen girls

A

Non-pregnant women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If you were studying the effects of biotin (vitamin B7) on hair growth, the dependent variable would be the amount of biotin each test group received.

Answer Options:
True

False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Match the controlled experiment component with its description:

Components:

Control

Sample size

Variable

Descriptions:
Number of individuals in a study group

A factor that can change

The group that does not receive a treatment; used as a baseline

A

Number of individuals in a study group
Correct Matches:
Control: The group that does not receive a treatment; used as baseline
Sample size: Number of individuals in a study group
Variable: A factor that can change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cellular communication occurs in the flow of information between cells, but sometimes that information signals the same cell that released the information. This information (substance) is called _______.

Answer Options:
Neurotransmitter

Paracrine

Autocrine

Hormone

A

Autocrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following are CORRECT matches between homeostatic feedback loop component and description? (Mark all that apply)

Options:
Control center: where the body variable is found to change (e.g., increase or decrease)

Response: action performed by an effector

Stimulus: organ under control of integrator

Receptor: sensory cells/tissues that detect changes outside set point or normal range

A

Control center: where the body variable is found to change (e.g., increase or decrease)

Response: action performed by an effector

Receptor: sensory cells/tissues that detect changes outside set point or normal range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following is NOT a major physiological theme?

Homeostasis maintains internal variation

Bodies are highly organized

Bodies rely on a flow of information

Living organisms need energy

A

Homeostasis maintains internal variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In response to a decrease in blood glucose, alpha cells in the pancreatic islets of the pancreas secrete the peptide hormone glucagon. Glucagon causes the liver to convert stores of glycogen into glucose, thus increasing blood glucose levels. The effector in this homeostatic system is the _______.

Answer Options:
Glucagon

Liver

Pancreas

Glucose

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In response to a decrease in blood glucose, alpha cells in the pancreatic islets of the pancreas secrete the peptide hormone glucagon. Glucagon causes the liver to convert stores of glycogen into glucose, thus increasing blood glucose levels. The sensor in this homeostatic system is the _______.

Answer Options:
Glucagon

Blood

Alpha cells

Liver

A

Alpha cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Interstitial fluid is the fluid inside your body that is outside of your cells.
True

False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Unsaturated fatty acids have no double bonds in the carbon chain and are solids at room temperature, while saturated fatty acids have double bonds and are liquid at room temperature.

True
False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following are INCORRECT matches between term and definition? (Mark all that apply)

1) monomer - subunit that can have different versions, as in nucleotides, that make up polymers

2) functional group - a specific combination of atoms that react in the same way regardless of the carbon skeleton they are bonded to

3) polymer - molecule constructed of different types of subunits called compounds, such as glycerol and fatty acids that make up fat

4) hydrocarbon - organic molecules made up of only C and O, which makes them polar

5) carbon skeleton - the carbon chain in an organic molecule, which accounts for the shape of the molecule

A

3) polymer - molecule constructed of different types of subunits called compounds, such as glycerol and fatty acids that make up fat

4) hydrocarbon - organic molecules made up of only C and O, which makes them polar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ATP is a modified RNA nucleotide and is a high energy molecule that can easily break bonds between phosphates.

True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

RNA is a polymer of nucleotides that aids in transcribing and translating DNA into a protein.

True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Fats and oils provide long-term energy storage and are made up of two subunits: glycerol and fatty acids.

True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Lipids are insoluble in water, energy rich, not made up of monomers, and include all of the following EXCEPT

1) steroids and waxes
2) fats and oils
3) phospholipids
4) cellulose and peptidoglycan
5) glucose
6) nucleotides and amino acids

A

4) cellulose and peptidoglycan
5) glucose
6) nucleotides and amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides, include DNA and RNA and have 3 parts; phosphate, sugar, nitrogen-containing base.

True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about DNA?

1) stores information for its own replication
2) aids in transcribing and translating RNA into a protein
3) genetic material
codes for the order of amino acids in 4) a protein

A

2) aids in transcribing and translating RNA into a protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about steroids?

1) includes cholesterol, which is found in animal cell membranes and is the starting material for other lipids, such as the sex hormones
2) includes Vitamin A
3) made up of four fused rings
4) includes cortisol

A

includes Vitamin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Carbohydrates include:

  1. _________ - the simple sugars that are single sugar molecules made up of a 5 or 6 carbon ring
  2. _________ - made up of two simple sugars
  3. _________ - polymers of many simple sugars, also called complex carbohydrates

a) disaccharide; polysaccharide; monosaccharide
b) monosaccharide; disaccharide; polysaccharide
c) polysaccharide; monosaccharide; disaccharide
d) monosaccharide; polysaccharide; disaccharide

A

b) monosaccharide; disaccharide; polysaccharide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following are CORRECT matches between term and definition? (Mark all that apply)

1) organelles - structures that carry out various metabolic activities
2) cytoplasm - the liquid portion of the cell
3) cytosol - liquid portion of cell containing water, ions, nutrients, etc.
4) inclusions - permanent structures that are the site of protein synthesis

A

1) organelles - structures that carry out various metabolic activities
3) cytosol - liquid portion of cell containing water, ions, nutrients, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is INCORRECT about phospholipids in the plasma membrane?

prevent cell from dissolving in aqueous solutions

nonpolar phosphate heads are hydrophilic

nonpolar lipid tails are hydrophobic
found as a bilayer

A

nonpolar phosphate heads are hydrophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The ______ endoplasmic reticulum has fixed ribosomes and modifies protein shape, while the ______ has no ribosomes, synthesizes lipids, and detoxifies drugs and poisons.

rough; glossy

bumpy; smooth

smooth; rough

rough; smooth

A

rough; smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following is a selectively permeable barrier that is found in all cells?

ribosomes

nucleus

cytoplasm

plasma membrane

A

plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Mitochondria produce most ATP made by the cell and have a single membrane with no DNA.
True
False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about ribosomes?

can be fixed on the rough

endoplasmic reticulum

large, with a membrane

site of protein synthesis

can be free in the cytoplasm

A

large, with a membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following is a specialized vesicle containing enzymes that is important in intracellular digestion?

ribosomes

lysosomes

golgi apparatus

peroxisomes

A

lysosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cells spend their time in one of two states: interphase and cell division (aka: mitotic division).

True
False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The cytoskeleton is made up of all of the following EXCEPT

intermediate filaments

megafilaments

microtubules

microfilaments

A

megafilaments

30
Q

Ribosomal RNA, which makes up ribosomes, is made in the ______.

plasma membrane

nucleolus

lysosomes

nuclear envelope

A

nucleolus

31
Q

Which of the following are CORRECT matches between term and description/definition?
Mark all that apply.

a) Reduction: when a molecule loses an electron (and hydrogen)
b) Endergonic reaction: requires energy and is not spontaneous
c) Oxidation: when a molecule gains an electron (and hydrogen)
d) Exergonic reaction: releases energy and is spontaneous

A

b) Endergonic reaction: requires energy and is not spontaneous
d) Exergonic reaction: releases energy and is spontaneous

32
Q

H is the final electron acceptor following the electron transport chain.

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

33
Q

Which of the following are reactants in the Cellular Respiration equation?
Mark all that apply.

a) O₂
b) C₆H₁₂O₆ (glucose)
c) CO₂
d) H₂O
e) ATP

A

a) O₂
b) C₆H₁₂O₆ (glucose)

34
Q

Fermentation is the aerobic breakdown of glucose that yields 2 ATP per glucose.

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

35
Q

Which of the following are NOT correct matches between process and net number of ATP produced for the cell?
Mark all that apply.

a) Glycolysis = 4
b) Citric acid cycle (Kreb’s cycle) = 2
c) Prep reaction = 2
d) Electron transport chain = 34

A

a) Glycolysis = 4
c) Prep reaction = 2

36
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about the Citric Acid cycle (Kreb’s cycle)?

a) Requires oxygen
b) Results in production of ATP, NADH, and pyruvate
c) Occurs in the matrix of the mitochondria
d) Releases CO₂
e) Oxidizes pyruvate

A

b) Results in production of ATP, NADH, and pyruvate

37
Q

The 2nd law of thermodynamics states that energy conversion results in some usable energy degrading into heat, which is a less usable form of energy, and is also known as the law of entropy.

a) True
b) False

A

a) True

38
Q

Riding a bicycle is an example of _______ energy, a pint of ice cream is a form of _______ energy, and food energy is measured in terms of _______, which is the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1g of water by 1°C.

a) Kinetic; calories; potential
b) Potential; calories; kinetic
c) Potential; kinetic; calories
d) Kinetic; potential; calories

A

d) Kinetic; potential; calories

39
Q

Entropy is the measure of order and specificity that increases with every energy transformation.

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

40
Q

The 1st law of thermodynamics states that energy cannot be created or destroyed and is also known as the law of entropy.

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

41
Q

Which of the following is a selectively permeable barrier that is found in all cells?

a) Ribosomes
b) Plasma membrane
c) Cytoplasm
d) Nucleus

A

b) Plasma membrane

42
Q

Movement of water, from an area of high to an area of low concentration, across a differentially permeable membrane.

a) Facilitated diffusion
b) Osmosis
c) Active transport
d) Simple diffusion

A

b) Osmosis

43
Q

When molecules move down their concentration gradient (from high to low) until equilibrium is achieved and do not require a membrane.

a) Active transport
b) Simple diffusion
c) Facilitated diffusion
d) Osmosis

A

b) Simple diffusion

44
Q

Match the type of endocytosis with its description.

a) Receptor-mediated endocytosis: brings specific molecules into the cell and is selective and much more efficient
b) Pinocytosis: brings droplets of extracellular fluid into the cell
c) Phagocytosis: brings food particles into the cell

A

a) Receptor-mediated endocytosis: brings specific molecules into the cell and is selective and much more efficient
b) Pinocytosis: brings droplets of extracellular fluid into the cell
c) Phagocytosis: brings food particles into the cell

45
Q

Passive transport is spontaneous, while active transport is not spontaneous.

a) True
b) False

A

a) True

46
Q

Match the term with the description.

a) Cation: an atom or molecule with a positive charge
b) Ion: a charged atom or molecule
c) Anion: an atom or molecule with a negative charge

A

a) Cation: an atom or molecule with a positive charge
b) Ion: a charged atom or molecule
c) Anion: an atom or molecule with a negative charge

47
Q

When molecules or ions move against their concentration gradient and require a transport protein.

a) Facilitated diffusion
b) Osmosis
c) Active transport
d) Simple diffusion

A

c) Active transport

48
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about the effect of osmosis on cell size and shape?

a) If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, the cell will swell because there is a lower solute concentration in the solution than inside the cell
b) If a cell is placed in an isotonic solution, there will be no net change in cell size and shape because there is a similar solute concentration in the solution and inside the cell
c) If a cell is placed in an isotonic solution, it will shrink because the solution has less solute than inside the cell
d) If a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, the cell will shrink because there is a higher solute concentration in the solution than inside the cell

A

c) If a cell is placed in an isotonic solution, it will shrink because the solution has less solute than inside the cell

49
Q

When membrane proteins assist movement of molecules across a membrane.

a) Simple diffusion
b) Osmosis
c) Active transport
d) Facilitated diffusion

A

d) Facilitated diffusion

50
Q

Which of the following types of transport are passive and do not require energy?
Mark all that apply.

a) Diffusion
b) Endocytosis
c) Exocytosis
d) Osmosis

A

a) Diffusion
d) Osmosis

51
Q

In passive transport, movement of solute or water goes down a concentration gradient from low to high.

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

52
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about DNA structure?

a) Have a nitrogen-phosphate backbone
b) Is a double helix
c) Have a sugar-phosphate backbone
d) Have hydrogen bonding between nitrogenous bases

A

a) Have a nitrogen-phosphate backbone

53
Q

DNA replication is __________ because each new molecule has a parent strand and a new strand.

a) Semidispersive
b) Semiconservative
c) Conservative
d) Dispersive

A

b) Semiconservative

54
Q

A __________ mutation is when a mutation of a single DNA nucleotide has been substituted with another nucleotide.

a) Chromosome rearrangement
b) Point
c) Frame shift
d) Insertion inactivation

A

b) Point

55
Q

Transposons are DNA sequences that can move within and between chromosomes, but do not affect gene function.

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

56
Q

Germ-line mutations are mutations that are inherited, while somatic mutations occur after birth and can lead to cancer.

a) True
b) False

A

a) True

57
Q

_________ is needed to seal the breaks in the backbone of the new strands.

a) DNA ligase
b) DNA helicase
c) DNA polymerase
d) RNA polymerase

A

a) DNA ligase

58
Q

A mutation is any change in a cell’s DNA sequence and is rare.

a) True
b) False

A

a) True

59
Q

A __________ mutation is when the triplet sequence of DNA is altered because a base pair has been inserted or deleted.

a) Chromosome rearrangement
b) Point
c) Insertion inactivation
d) Frame shift

A

d) Frame shift

60
Q

_________ is needed to oversee complementary base pairing and joining of the nucleotides.

a) DNA ligase
b) DNA polymerase
c) RNA polymerase
d) DNA helicase

A

b) DNA polymerase

61
Q

In DNA replication, the lagging strand adds nucleotides continuously along the way, while the leading strand must build new strands in segments.

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

62
Q

Translation phase that occurs when 2 rRNA subunits, mRNA, and tRNA carrying the start codon methionine come together to start translation.

a) Invitation
b) Initiation
c) Elongation
d) Termination

A

b) Initiation

63
Q

Produced in the nucleus and carries amino acids to the site of protein synthesis.

a) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
b) Messenger RNA (mRNA)
c) Copy RNA (cRNA)
d) Transfer RNA (tRNA)

A

d) Transfer RNA (tRNA)

64
Q

Produced in the nucleolus of the nucleus, forms ribosomes that are the site of protein synthesis.

a) Transfer RNA (tRNA)
b) Copy RNA (cRNA)
c) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
d) Messenger RNA (mRNA)

A

c) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

65
Q

Translation phase that occurs when one of three “stop” codons is reached.

a) Invitation
b) Initiation
c) Elongation
d) Termination

A

d) Termination

66
Q

This eukaryotic protein synthesis regulation type allows multiple proteins to be made from the same primary mRNA because not all exons have to be present in the mature mRNA.

a) mRNA Processing
b) Transcription Factors
c) DNA Availability
d) mRNA Exit
e) mRNA Degradation
f) Chromatin Structure
g) Protein Processing

A

a) mRNA Processing

67
Q

Transcription is when mRNA directs the sequence of amino acids that make up a protein and occurs in the cytoplasm, while translation is the synthesis of mRNA from the DNA and occurs in the nucleus.

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

68
Q

A codon is a triplet of nucleotides that code for an amino acid and also the stop codons that signal the end of the amino acid sequence of a protein.

a) True
b) False

A

a) True

69
Q

Produced in the nucleus via transcription and carries the genetic information from the DNA to the cytoplasm.

a) Messenger RNA (mRNA)
b) Copy RNA (cRNA)
c) Transfer RNA (tRNA)
d) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

A

a) Messenger RNA (mRNA)

70
Q

Introns are noncoding regions in the mRNA that must be removed during mRNA processing, while exons are the coding regions that may be spliced together to form a mature mRNA molecule.

a) True
b) False

A

a) True

71
Q

Translation phase where the peptide has an amino acid added one at a time.

a) Initiation
b) Elongation
c) Invitation
d) Termination

A

b) Elongation

Bio125 ALHK (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions