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Biology 1010 > Unit 1 Cells > Flashcards

Unit 1 Cells Flashcards

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1
Q

Who is NOT involved in developing the Cell Theory?

A

Venter

The individuals who did contribute were Schleiden, Schwann, Virchow

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2
Q

T/F? Eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells are similar in that they both contain membranous compartments.

A

False

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3
Q

What would we expect to find in yeast?

A

Nucleoid, nucleus, membrane-bound organelles, linear chromosomes
and circular chromosomes

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4
Q

Which type of microscopy is most appropriate to observe endoplasmic reticulum in plant cells?

A

TEM

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5
Q

You just discovered a new species of thermoacidophile. Which characteristics would you expect to find in this organism?

A

Nucleoid, membrane-bound organelles, unusual metabolic strategy and a nucleus.

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6
Q

What type of bond secures secondary structure in a polypeptide?

A

Hydrogen bond

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7
Q

A polymer is composed of multiple monomers.

A

True

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8
Q

An amphipathic molecule has?

A

a hydrophobic and a hydrophilic region.

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9
Q

A molecule has a chemical structure of C7H14O7. This molecule is likely a:

A

carbohydrate

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10
Q

A liquid that has positive and negative charges can be described as hydrophobic.

A

False

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11
Q

What is NOT synthesized by plant cells?

A

Glycogen

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12
Q

Which is NOT an example of a polysaccharide?

A

Glucose

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13
Q

If you were to describe the width of a membrane, which units are most likely to be used?

A

Nanometers

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14
Q

T/F? A cis unsaturated fatty acid chain will have a considerable “bend” in its structure.

A

True

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15
Q

What is NOT an example of a polysaccharide?

A

Glucose

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16
Q

The amino acids in the transmembrane domain of an integral membrane protein likely have side chains that are:

A

Hydrophobic

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17
Q

Why is cell size limited?

A

As a cell grows, the plasma membrane surface area does not increase at the same rate as the cell volume.

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18
Q

What type of protein penetrates into the hydrophobic region of a phospholipid bilayer?

A

Integral and Transmembrane

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19
Q

T/F? Water will diffuse directly through the lipid bilayer.

A

False

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20
Q

T/F? Potassium ions (K+) will diffuse directly through the lipid bilayer.

A

False

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21
Q

T/F? The cytoplasmic leaflet of a lipid bilayer touches the cytoplasm.

A

True

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22
Q

What is NOT a component of membranes?

A

Triglycerides

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23
Q

T/F? A liquid that has positive and negative charges can be described as hydrophobic.

A

False

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24
Q

Where are ribosomes synthesized?

A

Nucleolus

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25
Q

Transcription

A

occurs in the nucleus & in ribosomes

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26
Q

T/F? Ribosomes that are docked on the surface of the rough ER will feed the newly made protein into the ER lumen as it is being synthesized.

A

True

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27
Q

Nuclear envelope

A

consists of a double-membrane

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28
Q

Tubulin is a protein that makes up microtubules in the cytoplasm. It is synthesized by ribosomes located:

A

on rough ER membranes.

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29
Q

The nuclear lamina

A

is composed of protein

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30
Q

Translation

A

involves linking amino acids together via hydrogen bonds, occurs in ribosomes & nucleus, and requires mRNA.

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31
Q

T/F? Phospholipids rotate and move laterally within a leaflet at a very high rate of speed.

A

True

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32
Q

Insulin is a protein hormone that is secreted from pancreatic cells. Insulin is synthesized by ribosomes located where?

A

on rough ER membranes

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33
Q

What components are apart of the endomembrane system?

A

Smooth & rough endoplasmic reticulum, golgi, mitochondria, and lysosomes

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34
Q

T/F? Vesicles containing modified proteins bud off the trans face of the Golgi.

A

True

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35
Q

T/F? There is a constant flow of proteins and lipids between organelles of the endomembrane system.

A

False

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36
Q

T/F? The cis face of the Golgi is closest to the endoplasmic reticulum.

A

True

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37
Q

T/F? Proteins move between organelles of the endomembrane system, but lipids do not.

A

False

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38
Q

Where is chromatin located?

A

Nucleus

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39
Q

T/F? Monomers are single units.

A

True

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40
Q

T/F? Membranes that are enriched in saturated fatty acids will be more fluid.

A

False

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41
Q

Microtubules grow from the ___?

A

centrosome, which is composed of centrioles.

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42
Q

Mitochondria

A

are the site of ATP synthesis

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43
Q

Males afflicted with Kartagener’s syndrome are sterile because of immotile sperm, and often suffer from lung infections. This may be due to a mutation in which protein?

A

Tubulin

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44
Q

Which of the following contains peptide bonds?

A

myosin

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45
Q

Microtubules

A

are polar structures, are the largest element of the cytoskeleton, are involved in cytokinesis, and can fall apart quickly.

grow out of centrosomes, act as railway for motor proteins

‘9-2’ structure

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46
Q

T/F? Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis (translation), forming peptide bonds between amino acids via hydrolysis reactions

A

False

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47
Q

Who developed a self-replicating synthetic cell?

A

Venter

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48
Q

Which molecules are amphipathic?

A

Phospholipids and cholesterols

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49
Q

Which of the following chemical features are found in a phospholipid?

A

Three & two fatty acid chains, R-group, amino group and a phosphate group

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50
Q

T/F? The terms “cell membrane” and “plasma membrane” both refer to the exterior membrane that surrounds the eukaryotic cell

A

True

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51
Q

Mitochondrial ribosomes are located

A

in the matrix

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52
Q

T/F? The cytoskeletal elements are membrane-bound organelles

A

False

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53
Q

What is found at the base of a flagellum?

A

Basal body

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54
Q

Name six proteins?

A

Keratin, myosin, lamin, kinesin, actin, tubulin

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55
Q

T/F? Proteins are polymers.

A

True

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56
Q

What type of bond would you find in a histone?

A

Peptide

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57
Q

The amino acids in the transmembrane domain of an integral membrane protein likely have side chains that are:

A

Hydrophobic

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58
Q

T/F? Lipids are polymers

A

False

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59
Q

T/F? Mitochondrial DNA is located in the matrix.

A

True

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60
Q

Where are ribosomes located in eukaryotic cells?

A

ER lumen, cytoplasm, plasma membrane, rough endoplasmic reticulum membrane, and lysosomes

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61
Q

Which features do intermediate filaments and microfilaments have in common?

A

They are both polar structures, smaller than microtubules and have associated proteins.

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62
Q

According to the endosymbiont theory…?

A

mitochondria evolved when an ancient eukaryote endocytysed a prokaryotic cell.

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63
Q

Which features do microtubules and microfilaments have in common?

A

They both have associated proteins, are polar structures, are very rigid and rarely fall apart and they are both smaller than intermediate filaments.

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64
Q

What does the endosymbiont theory explain about mitochondria?

A

That they have circular DNA, how Golgi-resident enzymes are shipped backwards via retrograde transport, are approximately the same size as bacteria, and have ribosomes that resemble prokaryotic ribosomes.

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65
Q

T/F? A molecule that is amphipathic has both a positive and a negative region within the same molecule.

A

False, not positive or negative it is that it has a polar or nonpolar side.

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66
Q

Which of the following is NOT a feature of phospholipids?
a) Three fatty acid tails
b) phosphate group
c) Glycerol
d) Amphipathic nature
e) Polar head group

A

a) Three fatty acid tails

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67
Q

Which combo of biological molecule and example is correct?
a) Cellulose = disaccharide
b) mRNA = nucleic acid
c) Cholesterol = lipid
d) Enzymes = protein
e) Glucose = polysaccharide

A

b) mRNA = nucleic acid
c) Cholesterol = lipid
d) Enzymes = protein

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68
Q

Arctic char live in frigid waters. It’s expected that their cell membranes would have alot of ____ fatty acid tails.
a) Saturated
b) Unsaturated

A

b) Unsaturated

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69
Q

The amino acids are found in the a-helix of transmembrane proteins are ones with:
a) Hy- side chains
b) Hydrophobic side chains (correct)

A

b) Hydrophobic side chains

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70
Q

Which association(s) are correct?
a) Eukaryotes = membrane bound circular DNA
b) Eukaryotes = 10-30 um in diameter
c) Prokaryotes = DNA located in nucleoid
d) Prokaryotes = many membrane bound organelles

A

b) Eukaryotes = 10-30 um in diameter
c) Prokaryotes = DNA located in nucleoid

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71
Q

A protein’s primary structure:
a) Refers to sequences of its nucleic acids
b) Is stabilized by peptide bonds
c) Is impacted by hydrophobic & hydrophilic side-chains
d) Two of the above

A

b) Is stabilized by peptide bonds

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72
Q

T/F? Ribosomes that are free in the cytosol are structurally identical to the ribosomes that are bound to membranes.

A

True

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73
Q

T/F? Carbohydrate chains can be attached to proteins.

A

True, sugar chains are critically important for protein trafficking

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74
Q

Which describes the lysosome?
a) Contains hydrolytic enzymes and has a low pH
b) Contains hydrolytic enzymes and a has a high pH
c) Contains dehydration enzymes and has a low pH
d) Contains dehydration enzymes and has a high pH
e) None above

A

a) Contains hydrolytic enzymes and has a low pH

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75
Q

Membrane sugars:
a) are always located on the cytoplasmic leaflet.
b) are never associated with lipids or proteins.
c) none of the above

A

c) None of the above

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76
Q

Which of the following is synthesized in a ribosome?
a) Kinesin
b) Glycogen
c) mRNA
d) Phospholipids
e) Chitin

A

a) Kinesin

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77
Q

T/F? Microtubules are considered to be polar structures because one end has a negative charge and the other end has a positive charge.

A

False

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78
Q

The inner-most compartment of mitochondria is called?

A

The matrix

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79
Q

In which of the following would you find microtubule triplets?
a) Nuclear lamina
b) Microtubules in a ‘9+2’ arrangement.
c) Centrioles
d) Cortex

A

c) Centrioles

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80
Q

Desmosomes are?

A

cell to cell attachment structures.

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81
Q

T/F? A liposome is a single layer of phospholipids that forms a sphere and can be used as an artificial cell.

A

False

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82
Q

In which of the following would you find microtubule triplets?
a)Nuclear lamina
b)Cortex
c)Centrioles

A

c) Centrioles

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83
Q

Which of the following features are found in a molecule of ADP?
a) Ribose
b) Carboxyl group
c) Three phosphates
d) Nitrogenous base
e) Fatty acid

A

a) Ribose
b) Carboxyl group
e) Fatty acid

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84
Q

Which of the following are products of the oxidation of pyruvate?
a) FADH2
b) Oxygen gas
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Water
e) NADH
f) Acetyl CoA

A

All of them are products

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85
Q

Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide becomes reduced when?

A

It gains a hydrogen atom and two electrons.

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86
Q

T/F? NAD+ can carry 2 electrons and 1 hydrogen atom.

A

True

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87
Q

Which of the following is NOT a product of the full oxidation of glucose?
a) Carbon dioxide gas
b) Heat
c) Glycogen
d) Oxygen gas
e) ATP
f) Water

A

b) Heat
e) ATP
f) Water

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88
Q

T/F? Anabolic reactions are endergonic; they release energy and have a positive delta G value.

A

False

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89
Q

T/F? Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs during glycolysis?

A

True

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90
Q

Which of the following processes do NOT occur in the mitochondrion?
a) Oxidative phosphorylation
b) Glycolysis
c) Electron transport chain
d) Citric acid cycle
e) Oxidation of pyruvate
f) Chemiosmosis

A

b) Glycolysis
c) Electron transport chain
d) Citric acid cycle
e) Oxidation of pyruvate

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91
Q

The complexes of the electron transport chain pump hydrogen atoms from the _________ to the _______ .

A

matrix | intermembrane space

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92
Q

FADH2 is formed during ________ and pyruvate is formed during ___________ .

A

citric acid cycle | glycolysis

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93
Q

Which of following bring electrons directly to the electron transport chain?
a) NADH
b) Acetyl CoA
c) FADH2
d) ATP
e) Glucose
f) Oxaloacetate
g) Pyruvate

A

all of them bring e- to transport chain

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94
Q

T/F? Three carbon dioxide molecules are generated via glycolysis. This is indicated by the fact that the starting molecule is glucose (6C) and the final organic compound is pyruvate (3C).

A

False

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95
Q

The electron transport chain causes protons to accumulate in the ____?

A

Intermembrane space

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96
Q

T/F? A reduction reaction occurs when a molecule has its number of electrons (and often hydrogen atoms) reduced.

A

False

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97
Q

Which of the following chemical features are found in a phospholipid?
a) Two fatty acid chains
b) Phosphate group
c) Polar head group
d) Amino group
e) R-group
f) Three fatty acid chains
g) Glycerol

A

b) Phosphate group
c) Polar head group
d) Amino group
e) R-group
f) Three fatty acid chains
g) Glycerol

98
Q

T/F? The MOST common unit of measure to describe cell organelles is the nanometer.

A

True

99
Q

T/F? Nucleic acids are polymers

A

True

100
Q

Cyanide is a poison that targets the electron transport chain. It works by inhibiting the final complex in the electron transport chain and prevents electron transport to oxygen. What is a likely result of this action?

A

the proton motive force will be lost.

101
Q

T/F? Phospholipase C is an effector enzyme that can generate two second messengers.

A

True

102
Q

Which of the following is a transmembrane protein?
a) G Protein
b) GPCR
c) Adenylyl cyclase
d) IP3
e) cAMP

A

b) GPCR
d) IP3

103
Q

What stimulates adenylyl cyclase?

A

G protein attached to a GTP

104
Q

Which of the following is NOT an extracellular signalling molecule?
a) Adenylyl cyclase
b) Neurotransmitter
c) Ligand

A

a) Adenylyl cyclase

105
Q

Many signal transduction pathways are initiated by a signal binding to a membrane receptor. Which statement about this type of signalling mechanism is correct?
a) Ligand binding may lead to the activation of a protein kinase.
b) A first messenger injected into the cytoplasm will activate the pathway.
c) A mutation in a single gene can disrupt an entire signalling pathway.

A

b) A first messenger injected into the cytoplasm will activate the pathway.
c) A mutation in a single gene can disrupt an entire signalling pathway.

106
Q

T/F? During Receptor Tyrosine Kinase activation, the tyrosine amino acid residues are phosphorylated through the process of oxidative phosphorylation.

A

False

107
Q

Ligands generally bind to receptors located in the plasma membrane. Which of the following ligands is the EXCEPTION to this rule?

A

Testosterone

108
Q

A molecule consisting of a nitrogenous base, a monosaccharide, and three phosphates is most likely a(n)
a) amino acid
b) ATP
c) fatty acid

A

b) ATP

109
Q

Which statements are true regarding a protein hormone that is secreted from a cell?
a) It’s translated by a cytoplasmic ribosome
b) It will not be involved in the secretory pathway
c) It primarily contains glycosidic bonds
d) Two of the above
e) None of the above

A

e) None of the above

110
Q

What is not involved in the secretory pathway for protein hormones?
a) Ribosomes
b) Lysosomes
c) Rough ER
d) Secretory vesicles

A

b) Lysosomes

111
Q

What is true of cholesterol:
a) Contain fatty acid rails, allowing it to embed into membranes
b) Four carbon rings
d) Is amphipathic
e) Does not influence membrane fluidity
f) Two of the above

A

f) Two of the above
b) Four carbon rings
d) Is amphipathic

112
Q

T/F? Passive diffusion is when a molecule diffuses directly through the lipid bilayer (between phospholipids). It requires energy from ATP to occur.

A

False, passive transport doesn’t require ATP

113
Q

Which chemical features are found in ATP molecule?
a) Nitrogenous base
b) Exactly 2 phosphates
c) Exactly 3 phosphates
d) Deoxyribose
e) Amino group
e) Ribose

A

a) Nitrogenous base
c) Exactly 3 phosphates
e) Ribose

114
Q

What are the characteristics of peripheral membrane proteins?

A

Loosely attached to surface of membrane, primary structure stabilized by peptide bonds and made in ribosomes

115
Q

Which is a protein?
a) GPCR
b) G protein
c) GTP
d) GDP
e) Two above

A

e) Two above
a) GPCR
b) G protein

116
Q

T/F? GPCRs are transmembrane proteins that are stabilized in membranes via alpha-helix domains, while G proteins are only loosely attached to the surface of a membrane.

A

True

117
Q

T/F? Golgi-resident enzymes carry out hydrolytic reactions.

A

False

118
Q

T/F? Adherens junctions attach cells to its substrate below.

A

True

119
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle do the centrosomes move to opposite poles? (G1, G2, M, S?)

A

M

120
Q

Which of the following is responsible for cleaving the attachments between sister chromatids?

A

Separase

121
Q

T/F? Chromosomes align near the center of the cell during metaphase.

A

True

122
Q

Imagine that you are in a job interview for a pharmaceutical company and are asked to suggest a good mechanism for an anti-cancer drug. Which of the following mechanisms would you suggest?
a) decreased apoptosis.
b) increased tyrosine kinase receptor pathway activity.
c) decreased binding of cyclin to cdk.

A

c) decreased binding of cyclin to cdk.

123
Q

What is Ras / What’s its function?

A

kicks off a phosphorylation cascade that ultimately leads to cell division, is involved in angiogenesis, is a carbohydrate.

124
Q

Which features do intermediate filaments and microfilaments have in common?

A

They are both smaller than microtubules, They both are very rigid and rarely fall apart.

125
Q

T/F? Paracrine signalling is a form of cell-to-cell communication in which a cell produces a signal to induce a response in a nearby cell.

A

True

126
Q

Which of the following is NOT a typical function of the Golgi?
a) Translating proteins that are destined to remain in a membrane.
b) Modifying glycoproteins by the addition or removal of carbohydrates.
c) Sorting and targeting proteins into vesicles.

A

a) Translating proteins that are destined to remain in a membrane.

127
Q

a) Pinocytosis
b) Receptor-mediated endocytosis
c) Bulk endocytosis

A

c) Bulk endocytosis

128
Q

What’s synthetic biology?

A

Engineer natural biological systems
(bacteria, yeast, fungi, plants and animals) to produce desired products.

129
Q

What are the three parts of cell theory?

A

All organisms consist of one or more cells. The cell is the basic unit of structure for all organisms. (Schleidan & Schwann)
All cells arise by division from pre-existing cells. (Virchow)

130
Q

When and who made the first microscope?

A

1660 - Robert Hooke Mircoscope

131
Q

Who’s scopes could magnify up to x300? and around what year?

A

1670s - Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

132
Q

When was 1st electron microscope (EM) was made?

A

1931

133
Q

Transmission Electron Mircoscope (TEM)

A

Penetrates through specimen
to show organelles.

134
Q

Scanning Electron Mircoscope (SEM)

A

Scans surface of specimen to
give 3D image

135
Q

Large biological molecules

A

Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, nucleic acids

136
Q

REVIEW: Macromolecules are formed via dehydrated rxns catalyses by enzymes

A
137
Q

Polysaccharides…what are they/what is their purpose?

A

hundreds or thousands of monosaccharides linked together

purpose: energy storage or structure

138
Q

Lipids

A

water hating, don’t form polymers, fats, phospholipids, steroid

139
Q

A hydrocarbon chain with a carboxy group on end is called a ?

A

fatty acid

140
Q

Triglycerides are composed of?

A

1 glycerol + 3 fatty acids

141
Q

Saturated vs unsaturated

A

Saturated has no double bonds
Unsaturated has double bonds

142
Q

T/F? Cis will form a bend, trans will not form a bend.

A

True

143
Q

Phospholipids is composed of? Is it amphipathic?

A

Glycerol backbone + 2 Fatty Acids + phosphate + a small molecule

Yes, amphipathic!
(contains both a hydrophilic AND
a hydrophobic region in the same molecule)

144
Q

Structure of a protein?

A

Polymers of amino acids linked
end-to-end in a specific sequence (amino acids, side chain R-group, carboxyl group)

145
Q

Four levels of protein structure?

A

1st: amino acid order
2nd: 3D shape
3rd: 3D shape based on interactions between R groups
4th: multiple polypeptides
(small proteins) as a unit

146
Q

Desmosomes and hemidesmosomes are what?

A

Desmosomes: cell to cell attachment structures
Hemidesmosomes: cell-substrate attachment structures

147
Q

Nitrogenous bases?

A

adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine

148
Q

Structure of ATP?

A

nucleoside triphosphate, consisting of a nitrogenous base (adenine), a ribose sugar, and three phosphate groups

149
Q

What is nucleotide composed of?

A

nitrogenous base, sugar and phosphate group

150
Q

Surface Area to Volume ratio

A

Small cells have small volume, so membranes can easily keep up with internal demands..
Large cells have a larger volume, there is not enough membrane to keep up with internal demands.

151
Q

What are leaflets?

A

cytoplasmic and exoplasmic material

152
Q

NOTE: Phospholipids move side to side rapidly, but almost never flip-flop

A
153
Q

Selective Permeability

A

Biological membranes are
barriers to solute movement

154
Q

Passive & active diffusion

A

P: no energy, molecules move “down”
their gradient only (high to low concentration)

A: requires ATP, molecules move ‘up’ gradient

155
Q

What is the structure of protein(s)?

A

polymers of amino acids
..they have an amino group and a carboxyl acid group

(see image: H-N-H middle: H-C-R, side C=O-OH)

156
Q

Cellulose

A

structural polysaccharide, provides strength

157
Q

Four main polysaccharides

A

Glycogen, starch, chitin, and cellulose

158
Q

NOTE: Dehydration rxns remove water to bond, hydration rxns add water to remove

A
159
Q

cell membranes

A

…5-10 nm thick
…Membranes are approx 50% lipid and 50% protein
…functions: storage, selectively permeable barrier (waste and products in and out), energy production (ATP) and signaling

160
Q

Flippases

A

enzymes that flips phospholipids from one membrane to another

161
Q

NOTE: Integral proteins penetrate into the hydrophobic region of the bilayer. Often called transmembrane proteins. Are α-helices and asymmetric.

A
162
Q

What is the Na+/K+ Pump?

A

Integral membrane protein (transmembrane), conformational changes to exchange Na+ for K+ across the membrane.

Function: pump Na+ out and K+ in, the pump is on the cytoplasm side

163
Q

Quick recap of the Na+/K+ Pump?

A

3 Na+ ions bind. ATP is hydrolysed and the phosphate attaches to the pump.
The binding of the phosphate causes a conformational change in the protein, and the three Na+ are released to the outside of the cell.
Two K+ are now able to bind on the exoplasmic side. The phosphate is released, causing another conformational change.
The pump is now open to the cell side again!
And the cycle repeats..! THREE Na+ are pumped across the membrane for every TWO K+

164
Q

Receptor-mediated endocytosis

A

Ligand binds to a receptor on the cell membrane

165
Q

ribsomes & protein synthesis steps

A
  1. DNA is read to make mRNA (transcription)
  2. mRNA leaves the nucleus
  3. Ribosomes read the mRNA and assemble amino acids in the correct sequence to make a protein (translation)
166
Q

Ribosomes are found where?

A

Free in cytosol, bound to membranes (ER and nucleus), in mitochondria

167
Q

Endomembrane system

A

Interconnected system of cytoplasmic membranes (including: nucleus, golgi, endoplasmic reticulum, lysosomes and vesicles)

168
Q

How do newly made proteins move through the Golgi?

A

Cisternae mature through the Golgi and then Golgi-resident enzymes are moved backwards to return them to their home compartments.

169
Q

lysosomes

A

Derived from the Golgi (and some vesicles become lysosomes)

Responsible for intracellular digestion
Phagocytosis: cell eating
Autophagy: self eating (old/damaged organelles)

170
Q

The nuclear lamina does what in mitosis?

A

falls apart

171
Q

Nucleolus make what?

A

Ribosomes

172
Q

cytoskeleton function?

A

structural support, cell motility, movement of materials, mitosis and cytokinesis

173
Q

Microtubules internal structure is called what?

A

axoneme..the “9+2 arrangement”

nine doublet microtubules and two single mircotubules

174
Q

NOTE: centrosome for the axoneme is called the basal body.

cross section through cilium (9+2 arrangement)
cross section of basal body (1 centriole : 9 triplets)

A
175
Q

microfilaments

A

are involved in cytokinesis, can fall apart quickly, are involved in cilia and flagella movement, are the smallest element of the cytoskeleton, and are polar structures

made of actin, 7nm, concentrated in cortex, contract muscles (when interacting w/ myosin), involved in cell division, change shape of cell, transport vesicles

176
Q

intermediate filaments

A

Around 8-12nm, unique to animal cells, rope-like not hollow or polar, mechanical support, composed of proteins like keratin & lamins

ex. Nuclear lamina (ridgid meshwork)

177
Q

Keratin is involved in attachment points between ____ or between or in ______.

A

cells
substrate

178
Q

Anabolic

A

synthesis of more complex compounds, its also endergonic (i.e. require an input of energy)

179
Q

Catabolic

A

disassembly of complex molecules, its also exergonic (i.e. release energy)

180
Q

Who won Nobel prize for method of genome editing in 2020?

A

Jennifer Doudna and Emmanuelle Charpentier

181
Q

Endergonic Reactions ______ energy

A

REQUIRE

182
Q

Exergonic Reactions ______ energy

A

RELEASE

183
Q

NOTE: Cellular respiration includes reduction-oxidation reactions (Redox reactions)…Transfer of electrons and hydrogen atoms from one compound to another

A
184
Q

How do autotrophs and heterotrophs get their energy?

A

Autotrophs use photosynthesis to convert light energy to chemical energy (mostly glucose)

Heterotrophs (like people) eat these organic molecules and convert the chemical energy into ATP via cellular respiration

185
Q

Oxidation is the ____ of electrons.

A

loss

186
Q

Reduction is the ____ of electrons.

A

gain

187
Q

Glycolysis

A

Occurs in the cytoplasm! Starts with a glucose (6C); Anaerobic (no O)

Products: 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP and 2 NADH

188
Q

Oxidation of pyruvate

A

Both pyruvate molecules move into the mitochondrion..The reaction is catalyzed by the enzyme Pyruvate Dehydrogenase

Pyruvate -> Acetyl CoA + NADH + CO2

189
Q

INFO:
Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+)
NAD+ = Oxidized form (no electrons attached)
NADH = Reduced form (electrons attached!)

A
190
Q

Citric Acid Cycle

A

Occurs in the matrix of the mitochondrion

From one acetyl CoA entering the Citric Acid Cycle we get: 1 ATP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 oxaloacetate, 2 CO2

…CoA group leaves! Acetyl group attaches to oxaloacetate to make citrate
…Two CO2 molecules removed!
…For each acetyl CoA that enters the cycle, 3 NADH produced!
…One FADH2 produced
…Another ATP made!
…Oxaloacetate regenerated in final reaction of cycle

191
Q

INFO: mircotubules a and b dimers, plus end, protofilament, minus end - not positively or negatively charged

A
192
Q

Oxidative Phosphorylation

A

The production of ATP using energy derived from redox reactions in the electron transport chain.

193
Q

Electron Transport Chain

A

Four complexes in the Inner membrane of the mitochondrion…Series of redox reactions

194
Q

Chemiosmosis

A

ATP Synthase: Protons (H+ ions) flowing through ATP synthase provide the energy to synthesize large amounts of ATP

195
Q

Chemiosmotic Theory

A

The H+ gradient provides the energy to phosphorylate ADP to synthesize ATP

196
Q

INFO:
Mitochondria:
- outer membrane encapsulates
- inner membrane
- folds: cristae
- space between inner and outer: inner membrane space
- space inside: matrix

A
197
Q

INFO:
Communication occurs via extracellular messenger molecules (ligands, hormones, neurotransmitters, 1st messengers, signaling molecules)

It can occur between gap junctions & cell-cell recognition

A
198
Q

Signalling can be local

A

paracrine - only cell releases signal that has effect on another cell that is very close (synaptic)

199
Q

Signalling can be long-distance (endocrine signaling)

A

Molecules (hormones) move far away from the secreting cell (endocrine cell), through the blood to receptor cells

200
Q

NOTE:
regardless of cell signalling distance, the arrival of the ligand (at a receptor - protein in cell membrane) will initiate the process of cell signaling (opening channels, or activating a gene, release hormone, cell division & death).

A
201
Q

Cell Signalling Stage 1: Reception

A

…Once inside, the ligand binds to a receptor to make a complex
…Ligand-receptor complex moves into nucleus acting as transcription factor (turns on piece of DNA, producing specific protein)
…mRNA leaves the nucleus, finding a ribosome which translates the mRNA to make another protein (cellular response)

202
Q

What are GPCRs?

A

G protein coupled receptors: peripheral membrane proteins that have 7 transmembrane domains (alpha helices), asymmetric, many are sensory receptors…named since they interact with G proteins, can bind to GTP or GDP

203
Q

How are GPCRs similar to ATP?

A

has a different nitrogenous base, but still has a ribose and three phosphates. It can be hydrolysed to release energy.

204
Q

NOTE:
If bound to GTP = inactive whereas if bound to GDP = active

A
205
Q

How do GPCRs work?

A

G protein is inactive and bound to GTP, ligand binds to GPCR

the receptor changes shape so that a new GTP replaces the GDP

G protein is activated, let go of receptor and binds it to another enzyme, (activated)

The G protein will slowly hydrolyze its bound GTP, becoming GDP, and now the G protein is inactive and the cycle can start again.

206
Q

Cell Signalling Stage 2: Signal transduction

A

Steps leading to a particular response

Phosphorylation Cascades > Second messengers relay signal to the cell’s interior > Tyrosine Kinase Receptors

207
Q

What happens when there’s a problem with RAS (small G-protien)?

A

It allows cells to replicate uncontrollably. So all cancers have some sort of RAS system defect.

208
Q

Tyrosine Kinase Receptors

A

Two identical receptors in the membrane, as monomers they are inactive. When ligand binds to receptor, they form a dimer. Receptor will attach P to all of the tyrosines. Once dimerized & (auto)phosphorylated the receptor becomes active so other proteins can come to it and become activated.

(overall involved in growth)

209
Q

Second messengers

A

(not proteins!) that relay the signal to the cell’s interior

Ex. Cyclic Adenosine Monophosphate (cAMP) - flight/fight response
Many pathways are regulated by cAMP
…However, if the cell decides not necessary, phosphodiesterase shuts it off.

210
Q

Phosphorylation Cascades

A

The activity of many proteins can be controlled by either adding or removing a phosphate group

211
Q

Kinase

A

protein adds PO4 to another protein

212
Q

Phosphatases

A

protein that removes the PO4 from another protein

213
Q

Cell Cycle is broken into?

A

interphase: G1 (gap), S (synthesis), G2 (gap)

And M phase: mitosis (division of genetic material) & cytokinesis (division of cytoplasm)

214
Q

S phase

A

Chromosomes will duplicate
Then two sister chromatids are separated during mitosis

215
Q

what happens before Mitosis?

A

Interphase (G2) - DNA is thin and centrosomes have duplicated.

216
Q

Prophase

A

Chromatin starts to condense and centrosomes move to opposite poles. Nuclear lamina breaks down and envelope fragments.

217
Q

Prometaphase

A

Mitotic spindle starts to form, kinetochore microtubules capture chromosomes (attach at a protein structure called the kinetochore). Centrosomes at opposite poles, chromosomes condensed.

218
Q

Mitotic spindle

A

microtubules radiate from each centrosome

219
Q

Metaphase

A

Chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate, the cell will confirm there is a microtubule attached to every sister chromatid.

220
Q

Anaphase

A

separase enzyme cleaves proteins that hold sister chromatids together. Sister chromatids are pulled to either side of the cell.

221
Q

NOTE:
Anaphase A: Kinetochore microtubules get shorter, they use motor proteins. (How it can collapse and pull)

Anaphase B: Polar microtubules get longer, spindle elongates (uses kinesins). Kinesins walk and push microtubules apart.

A
222
Q

Telophase

A

DNA unwinding, and new nuclear envelope forming. Spindle microtubules depolymerize.

223
Q

Contractile Ring Theory

A

Myosin pulls a ring of actin in the cortex to “contract” the cell in a ring.

224
Q

Cell Cycle Control

A

Checkpoints will halt the cell if needed

225
Q

M checkpoint & G2 checkpoint

A

M checkpoint: cell ensures every sister chromatid is attached to a kinetochore molecule before anaphase occurs

G2 checkpoint: entry into mitosis depends on cyclins and Cdks

226
Q

How does cell cycle control and the checkpoints relate to signalling? (Hint: Ras-MAP pathway)

A

Ras-MAP Pathway: if this pathway is unregulated, cells will constantly produce cyclins (when they shouldn’t) and MPF will start mitosis.

227
Q

What is apoptosis? give examples of its functions.

A

programmed cell death

clears out cells (old or damaged)

228
Q

NOTE:
Adheren Junctions..
…Cadherin proteins ‘zip’ cells together

Cancer cells have less of these proteins than normal cells leading to the spread and growth of cancer in differing areas

A
229
Q

Examples of second messengers?

A

cAMP, oxygen gas

230
Q

Membranes are fluid, this is critical to membrane function. Why?

A

Transports of solutes across the membrane, and cell to cell communication.

231
Q

T/F? Catabolic reactions are exergonic; they require an input of energy and have a negative delta G value.

A

False

232
Q

T/F? Secretion of a neurotransmitter that stimulates a neighboring neuron is an example of autocrine signalling

A

False

233
Q

T/F? Paracrine signalling is a form of cell-to-cell communication in which a cell produces a signal to induce a response in a nearby cell.

A

True

234
Q

T/F? Phosphorylation cascades only occur during signal transduction that is initiated by GPCR activation.

A

False

235
Q

The integral membrane protein rhodopsin, which is used in light perception, is a protein that spans the membrane seven times. Which assumption about rhodopsin is likely correct?
a) It is likely a G protein.
b) It is composed of only hydrophobic amino acids.
c) It contains both hydrophobic and hydrophilic domains.

A

c) It contains both hydrophobic and hydrophilic domains.

236
Q

During GPCR activation, receptor dimerize and tyrosine amino acid residues are phosphorylated.

A

False

237
Q

T/F? Eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells are similar in that they both contain linear chromosomes.

A

False

238
Q

You have discovered an unidentified cell that is approximately 5 microns in size. This is most likely a..?

A

Bacterial Cell

239
Q

T/F? Metabolism refers to all rxns in a cell

A
240
Q

NOTE:
ATP molecule splits off one of its three phosphates, becoming ADP (Adenosine di-phosphate)

Full oxidation of glucose also produces ATP

A

Biology 1010 (6 decks)

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