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CEP > Unit 1 > Flashcards

Unit 1 Flashcards

1
Q

agonist

A

muscle or muscle group that is the prime mover for a joint action

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2
Q

anatomical position

A

the universally accepted reference position to describe regions and spatial relationships of the human body and to make reference to body positions

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3
Q

antagonist

A

muscle or muscle group that opposes the action of the prime movers

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4
Q

appendicular skeleton

A

all of the bones that are found in the limbs of the body

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5
Q

atrioventricular valves (AV)

A

separate the atria from the ventricles. the right AV has 3 leaflets called tricuspid valve. the left AV has 2 leaflets called the bicuspid valve.

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6
Q

auscultation

A

the act of listening to sounds of the body

a practitioner can use a stethoscope to assess blood pressure, heart rate and heart and lung sounds

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7
Q

contractile proteins

A

specialized proteins found within muscle cells that interact with one another to cause muscle force production

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8
Q

joints

A

the articulations between bones, typically classified according to structure as being fibrous, cartilaginous, or synovial.

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9
Q

motor unit

A

a single somatic motor neuron and the group of muscle fibers innervated by it

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10
Q

muscle fiber architecture

A

the orientation of the muscle fibers to the longitudinal axis of the muscle.

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11
Q

planes of motion

A

orthogonal planes the divide the human body and can be used to describe various body movements

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12
Q

regulatory proteins

A

specialized proteins found within muscle cells that block the binding of the contractile proteins to one another and thus keep the muscle in a relaxed state

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13
Q

respiratory membrane

A

the membrane formed by the walls of the alveoli and capillaries as the come in contact with one another in the lungs.

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14
Q

synergist

A

muscle or muscle group that assists the agonist in performing a joint action

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15
Q

ventilation

A

the act of breathing in (inhalation) and out (exhalation) so that air can enter the alveoli to allow oxygen and carbon dioxide to exchange

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16
Q

major regulatory proteins

A

troponin

tropomyosin

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17
Q

where does diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide occur in the lungs

A

respiratory membrane

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18
Q

inhalation

A

breathing in

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19
Q

exhalation

A

breathing out

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20
Q

sagittal

A

right and left

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21
Q

frontal

A

anterior and posterior

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22
Q

transverse

A

superior and inferior

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23
Q

anterior

A

front of body

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24
Q

deep

A

below the surface and not relatively close to surface

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25
Q

distal

A

farthest point in distance from reference point

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26
Q

inferior

A

away from the head

lower

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27
Q

lateral

A

away from the midline

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28
Q

medial

A

toward the midline

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29
Q

posterior

A

the back of the body

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30
Q

proximal

A

closest point in distance to reference point

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31
Q

superficial

A

located close to or on body surface

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32
Q

superior

A

toward the head

higher

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33
Q

7 functions of cardiovascular system

A

1 transports oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
2 distributes nutrients to cells
3 removes metabolic wastes
4 regulates pH
5 transports hormones and enzymes
6 maintains fluid volume to prevent hydration
7 maintains body temp by absorbing and redistributing heat

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34
Q

primary function of cardiovascular system

A

transport of nutrients and removal of waste products

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35
Q

heart positon

A

obliquely within thoracic cavity

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36
Q

mediastinum

A

cavity where heart is postioned

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37
Q

4 chambers of the heart

A

right atria
left atria
right ventricle
left ventricle

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38
Q

pericardium

A

double walled loose fitting membranous sac that covers the heart

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39
Q

myocardium

A

thickest layer of tissue in the heart

cardiac muscle

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40
Q

cardiac skeleton

A

network of criss crossing dense connective tissue fiber within myocardium

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41
Q

3 function of cardiac skeleton

A

insertion points for fibers of of the cardiac musculature, support for the valves of the heart,
and some separation between atria and ventricles

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42
Q

why is the LV walls and internventricular septum thicker

A

to allow left side of heart to pump blood against the greater resistance offered by the large vascular tree

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43
Q

4 valves of the heart

A

atrioventricular valves AV

semilunar valves

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44
Q

RCA

A

right coronary artery

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45
Q

LCA

A

left coronary artery

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46
Q

function of heart valves

A

maintain unidirectional blood flow

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47
Q

AV

A

separate atria from ventricles

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48
Q

tricuspid valve

A

controls blood flow from RA to RV

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49
Q

mitral valve

A

controls blood flow from LA to LV

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50
Q

semilunar valve

A

has 3 cusps

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51
Q

pulmonary valve

A

between RV and pulmonary artery

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52
Q

aortic valve

A

between LV and aorta

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53
Q

what do the cusps of semilunar valve prevent

A

backflow of blood from the arteries to ventricles

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54
Q

where does the blood flow begin

A

return of systematic blood to RA

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55
Q

Blood flow 1-7

A

1 venous blood flows into RA
2 RA free wall contracts and additional blood moves to RV
3 RV free wall contracts, pulmonary valve opens and blood flows to pulmonary artery
4 blood reaches alveolar caplillaries, gas exchanged
5 blood flows back to LA
6 LA free wall contracts and blood flows to LV
7 LV free wall contracts and blood flows through the system

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56
Q

where does the functional blood supply for the heart come from

A

LCA and RCA

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57
Q

what does the LAD supply blood to

A

interverntricular septum and anterior myocardium

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58
Q

what does the CxA supply blood to

A

laterodorsal walls of the LA and LV

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59
Q

arteries

A

carry blood away from heart

large are near heart

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60
Q

veins

A

carry blood toward the heart

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61
Q

carotid pulse

A

anterior neck groove

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62
Q

radial pulse

A

lateral aspect of forearm near distal head of radius

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63
Q

where is blood pressure typically taken

A

brachial artery

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64
Q

controls breathing

A

respiratory center
peripheral chemoceptors
afferent and efferent nerves

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65
Q

distribution of ventilation

A

upper respiratory tract
conducting airways
repiratory broncioles

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66
Q

ventilatory pump

A

chest walls, respiratory muscles, pleura

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67
Q

distribution of blood flow

A

pulmonary arteries, caplillaries, veins

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68
Q

bronchial clearance

A

muccociliary escalator

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69
Q

lung clearance and defense

A

alveolar macrophages

lymphatic drainage

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70
Q

gas exchange

A

passive diffusion across the respiratory membrane

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71
Q

4 primary functions of musculoskeletal anatomy

A

support soft tissue,
protect internal organs,
provide nutrients and blood constituents,
serve as rigid levers for movement

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72
Q

axial skeleton

A

skull, vertebral column, sternum, ribs

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73
Q

appendicular skeleton

A

all other bones of upper and lower limbs

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74
Q

fibrous joint

A

bones are united by dense fibrous connective tissue

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75
Q

cartilaginous joint

A

bones are united by cartilage

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76
Q

synovial joint

A

fibrous articular capsule and an inner synovial membrane enclose a joint cavity filled up with synovial fluid

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77
Q

major joint motions and planes of motion

A

20

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78
Q

major movements of the upper extremities

A

22

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79
Q

major movements of the lower extremities

A

23

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80
Q

most common type of joint

A

synovial

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81
Q

AROM

A

voluntary degree of movement at a joint

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82
Q

PROM

A

degree of movement at a joint achieved by external means

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83
Q

three types of muscle

A

skeletal
cardiac
smooth

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84
Q

4 characteristics of all muscle tissue

A

irritability
contractility
extensibility
elasticity

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85
Q

irritability

A

ability to respond to stimuli

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86
Q

contractility

A

ability to develop tension

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87
Q

extensibility

A

ability to stretch or increase in length

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88
Q

elasticity

A

ability to return to its original length

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89
Q

twitch

A

single, brief muscle contraction caused by a single action potential traveling down a motor neuron

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90
Q

summation

A

addition of individual twitch contractions to increase the intensity of the overall muscle force

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91
Q

tetanus

A

maximal amount of force the motor unit can develop

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92
Q

type I slow twitch

A

low force production, fatigue resistant

aerobic metabolism

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93
Q

type IIa fast twitch

A

high force production, moderately fatigable both

ana and aerobic

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94
Q

type IIx fast twitch

A

high force production, quickly fatigable, anaerobic

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95
Q

muscle actions

A

isometric
concentric
eccentric

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96
Q

muscle roles

A

agonists
antagonists
synergists

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97
Q

isometric

A

muscle generates force without joint movement

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98
Q

concentric

A

muscle generates force and shortens

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99
Q

eccentric

A

muscle generates force and lengthens

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100
Q

biomechanics

A

the study of the motion and causes of motion of living things and the application of mechanical principles

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101
Q

impulse

A

the effect of force acting over time

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102
Q

kimematics

A

the branch of mechanics that describes motion

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103
Q

kinetics

A

the branch of mechanics that explains the causes of motion

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104
Q

force

A

linear effect that can be defined by push, pull or tendency to distort

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105
Q

3 types of motion

A

translation or linear
rotation or angular
general

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106
Q

translation or linear motion

A

force acting through the center of mass

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107
Q

rotation or angular motion

A

force with a line of action not acting through the object’s center of mass

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108
Q

general motion

A

combo of linear and angular motion

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109
Q

most common measurement of force

A

newtons

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110
Q

moment of force

A

torque

rotary effect of force

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111
Q

newton’s 1st law

A

law of intertia

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112
Q

newton’s 2nd law

A

law of acceleration

F=ma

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113
Q

newton’s 3rd law

A

law of action

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114
Q

3 fluid forces

A

buoyancy
lift
drag

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115
Q

buoyancy

A

supporting or flotation force of fluid

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116
Q

lift

A

acts at right angle to the relative flow

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117
Q

drag

A

acts in the same direction as the fluid flow and the opposite direction of the subject moving through the fluid

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118
Q

1st class lever

A

axis is situated between applied force and the resistance to the movement

seesaw,

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119
Q

2nd class lever

A

the applied force and resistance are on the same side of the axis with the resistance situated closer to the axis

wheelbarrow

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120
Q

3rd class lever

A

applied force and resistance are on the same side of the axis with the resistance being farther from the axis

shovel

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121
Q

acute mountain sickness

A

a sickness characterized by headaches, nausea, fatigue that is related to acute exposure to altitude

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122
Q

central fatigue

A

the progressive reduction in voluntary drive to motor neurons during exercise

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123
Q

cold stress

A

the loss in heat either from the core or locally that is brought on by environment, metabolism, and clothing

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124
Q

concentric

A

when muscle length decreases during muscle action

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125
Q

eccentric

A

when muscle length increases during muscle action

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126
Q

energy metabolism

A

the net effect of chemical reaction in the body resulting in ATP production

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127
Q

glycolysis

A

a series of chemical reactions for the conversion of glucose to pyruvate and the anaerobic production of ATP

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128
Q

heat stress

A

an increase in core temp collectively brought about by the environment, metabolism, and clothing

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129
Q

hemodynamics

A

the mechanics of blood flow

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130
Q

hypoxic ventilatory response

A

the increase in ventitlation seen with acute altitude exposure as a result of reduced barometric pressure and lowered arterial oxygen pressure

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131
Q

krebs cycle

A

a series of chemical reaction in the mitochondria in which citric acid is oxidized

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132
Q

maximal oxygen comsumption

A

the maximal volume of oxygen consumed per unit time VOmax is generally established in an incremental exercise test using a large amount of muscle mass in which in which a plateau of VO2 is attained or signs of maximal effort are attained

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133
Q

motor unit

A

a motor neuron an dthe muscle fibers it innervates

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134
Q

muscle fatigue

A

the loss of force or power output in response to voluntary effort leading to reduced performance

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135
Q

peak oxygen consumption

A

the greatest rate of oxygen consumption attained in a given test when indications of maximal effort were not or when the amount of muscle mass used was insufficient to reach a similar VO2, as attained during treadmill exercise

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136
Q

peripheral fatigue

A

the loss of force and power that is independent of neural drive

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137
Q

primary pollutant

A

a direct source of pollution

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138
Q

secondary pollutant

A

a pollutant formed when the interaction of a primary pollutant with an environment factor

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139
Q

size principle

A

the recruitment of motor units in order from smallest to largest according to recruitment thresholds and firing areas, resulting in a countdown of voluntary force

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140
Q

anaerobic phosphocreatine

A

phosphocreatine
no oxygen required
extremely limited ATP yeild

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141
Q

glycolysis

A

glycogen
no oxygen required
extremely limited ATP yeild

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142
Q

aerobic

krebs cycle and electron transport system

A

glycogen, fats, protein
yes oxygen required
large yield of ATP

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143
Q

shorter more intense

A

anaerobic

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144
Q

longer and less intesne

A

aerobic

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145
Q

glycolysis glucose substrate

A

2 ATP

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146
Q

glycolysis glycogen substrate

A

3 ATP

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147
Q

ATP

A

ATP (myosin ATPaseP to ADP+ Pi+ energy

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148
Q

CP

A

ADP+ CP(creatine kinase) to ATP + C

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149
Q

Glycolysis anaerobic

A

rapid, yeilds 2-3 ATP

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150
Q

glycolysis aerobic

A

slower, yeilds 38-39 ATP

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151
Q

oxidative phosphorylation

A

can use carbs, fats, and protein to produce large amounts of ATP

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152
Q

metabolic response to exercise

A

oxygen deficit

oxygen debt or EPOC

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153
Q

2 exceptions to steady state VO2

A

1 prolonged exercise in a hot and humid environment results in a steady drift upward of VO2 during the course of exercise
2 continuous exercise at a high relative workload results in a slow rise in VO2 across time similar to that observed during exercise in a hot environment

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154
Q

during prolonged low and moderate intensity exercise there is a gradual shift from

A

carbohydrate metabolism to use of fat as a substrate

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155
Q

EPOC

A

elevated postexercise oxygen consumption

156
Q

what does heart rate do linearly with work and O2 uptake rates

A

increase

157
Q

peak hr

A

220 - age +/- 10

158
Q

stroke volume

A

EDV-ESV

159
Q

cardiac output

A

HR*SV

160
Q

EDV

A

end dystolic volume

161
Q

ESV

A

end systolic volume

162
Q

blood flow at rest

A

15-20% of CO delivered to skeletal muscles

163
Q

blood flow during exercise

A

85-90% of CO delivered to skeletal muscle

164
Q

how does blood pressure react to exercise

A

increases linerally

165
Q

CO

A

cardiac output

166
Q

ventilation

volume of air exchanged per minute

A

6 L * min^-1

167
Q

avO2 at rest

A

5mL* dL^-1

168
Q

avO2 peak exercise

A

15 mL*dL^-1

169
Q

cardiovascular drift

A

progressive increase in HR with decrease in SV and MAP during steady state exercise

170
Q

where do neuromuscular stimulus for contraction orginate

A

premotor and motor cortexes

171
Q

DOMS

A

delayed onset muscle soreness

172
Q

when does DOMS occur

A

24-48 hrs after intense resistance training and may last up to 10 days

173
Q

what is DOMS

A

local muscular stiffness, tenderness, local edema, limited ROM caused by edema, pain

174
Q

where is DOMS most pronounced

A

novice lifters

175
Q

mechanism of DOMS

A

speculative, but Z disk damage is suspected

176
Q

functional unit of neuromuscular system

A

motor unit

177
Q

motor unit

A

motor neuron and muscle fibers it innervates

178
Q

what does HR and BP do with dynamic training

A

increase

179
Q

SV due to dynamic training

A

linear during concentric, increases during eccentric phase

180
Q

CO due to dynamic training

A

may increase during both lift phases during higher intensity and larger muscle group movements

181
Q

mechanisms of muscular fatigue during endurance exercise

A

glycogen depletion
Ca^2+ uptake by the SR vesicles
brain serotonin

182
Q

glycogen depletion

A

higher intensity tends to burn greater percentage of glycogen than lower intensity

183
Q

heat balance

A

heat generated=heat dissipated

184
Q

sweat evaporative cooling

A

major cooling mechanism where vaporization of water from skin dissipates heat

185
Q

how many liters of sweat to evaporate 350 W of excess heat

A

.5L

186
Q

acclimation

A

physiological adjustment that occurs naturally in conjunction with repeated exposures to exercise in heat

187
Q

what happens when you acclimate to heat

A

increased sweat rate, onset time and decreased sodium loss

reduced cardiovascular strain and lower core temp, occurs over 10-14j days

188
Q

exertional heat cramps

A

painful muscle cramps, especially in abdominal or fatigued muscles

189
Q

heat syncope

A

blurred vision

fainting

190
Q

dehydration

A

fatigue, weakness, dru mouth, no early symptoms

191
Q

exertional heat exhaustion

A

fatigue, weakness, blurred vision, dizziness, headache

192
Q

exertional heat stroke

A

chills, restlessness, irritability

193
Q

sole source of heat in cold conditions

A

metabolism

194
Q

heat loss occurs primarily by

A

conduction and convection

195
Q

hypothermia

A

chills, fatigue or drowsiness, pain in the extremities

196
Q

frostbite

A

burning sensation at first coldness, numbness, tingling

197
Q

frostnip, trench foot

A

possible itching or pain, severe pain, tingling, itching

198
Q

hypoxic ventilary response

A

increased pulmonary ventilation
occurs above 1200m altitude
blood CO2 decreases

199
Q

acute mountain sickness occurs

A

higher than 2500 m

200
Q

high altitude pulmonary edema

A

progression in the severity of AMS

dyspnea fatigue, chest pain, tachycardia, coughing, cyanosis

201
Q

primary pollutants

A

CO, sulfur oxides, nitrogen oxides, hydrocarbons, particulates

202
Q

secondary pollutants

A

O3, aldehydes, sulfuric acid and peroxyacetyl nitrate

203
Q

acceptable macronutrient distribution range

AMDR

A

represents range of intakes for a particular macronutrient associated with reduced risk of chronic diseases while providing adequate intake of essential nutrients

204
Q

adequate intake

A

the recommended average daily intake level based on observed or experimentally determined approximations of nutrient intake by a group of apparently healthy people that are assumed to be adequate

205
Q

antioxidants

A

dietary components present in small concentrations such as vitamin C and E, which prevent or reduce the extent of oxidative damage of cellular components such as DNA and cell membranes by scavenging free radicals

206
Q

dietary reference intake

DRI

A

a set of reference values for specific nutrients that expands upon the former RDA, which includes the estimated average requirement, RDA, AI, and tolerable upper intake level

207
Q

essential amino acids

A

amino acids required for maintaining proper growth and development that are not synthesized in the body and therefore must be consumed in the diet.

208
Q

essential nutrient

A

refers to any nutrient, such as essential amino acids and fatty acids, necessary for normal body functions that is not synthesized in the body and must be consumed in the diet

209
Q

estimated average requirement

A

average daily nutrient intake level estimated to meet the requirement for half of the healthy individuals of a particular sex or age

210
Q

gluconeogenesis

A

endogenous production of new glucose from nonglucose carbonprecursors, such as amino acids, lactate, pyruvate, and glycerol, which occurs primarily in the liver and to a lesser extent the kidney

211
Q

glycemic index

A

the rate at which ingestion of a food or food component, such as carbs, increases blood glucose in comparison to a reference food, white bread in particular

212
Q

glycogenolysis

A

the breakdown of liver and muscle glycogen in response to elevated glucagon and epinephrine levels to produce either glucose in the liver that is able to be circulated throughout the body or glucose in skeletal muscle made available for energy production

213
Q

glycolysis

A

the breakdown of glucose into two pyruvate molecules accompanied by the formation of adenosine triphosphate. the pyruvate can be converted to lactate or enter mitochondria for aerobic metabolilsm

214
Q

macronutrients

A

organic energy- providing nutrients, which include carbs, fat, protein, and alcohol consumed in large quantities in the diet

215
Q

micronutrient

A

organic and inorganic nutrients including vitamins and minerals, respectively which are consumed and/or required in much lower amounts in comparison to the macronutrients

216
Q

nonessential amino acids

A

often referred to as dispensable amino acids, these amino acids are synthesized in the body and therefore not essential in the diet

217
Q

recommended daily allowance

A

average daily dietary nutrient intake level sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all healthy individuals of a particular gender and life stage

218
Q

tolerable upper intake level

A

the highest average daily nutrient intake level not likely to pose an risk or adverse health affects to almost all individuals in the general population. the potential risk for adverse effects may increase as intake exceeds the UL

219
Q

carb energy

A

4 per gram

220
Q

protein energy

A

4 per gram

221
Q

fat energy

A

9 per gram

222
Q

alcohol energy

A

7 per gram

223
Q

carbohydrates

A

simple
complex
fiber

224
Q

where does dietary fiber come from

A

plant sources

225
Q

are the health benefits of dietary fiber positive or negative

A

positive

226
Q

RDI of dietary fiber for men and woman

A

men 25g/day

women 38g/day

227
Q

water insoluble dietary fiber

A

derived from cell walls of plants

cellulose, hemicellulose, liginins

228
Q

water insoluble dietary fiber

A

metabolized via bacterial fermintation in large intestine to gas and short-chain fatty acids, which can be absorbed,

229
Q

digestion and absorption of carbs

A

broken down to monosaccharide in intestine and absorbed into blood and distributed to all tissues

230
Q

carb metabolism

A

one glucose yeilds 38 ATP

231
Q

glucagon

A

release upregulated by low blood glucose, stimulates gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis in the liver to increase blood glucose

232
Q

where is fat stored

A

adipose tissue

233
Q

saturated fatty acid

A

all carbon bonded to hydrogen

234
Q

unsaturated fatty acid

A

one (mono) or more (poly) carbon-carbon double bond
cis isomer
trans isomer

235
Q

cis isomer

A

both hydrogen atoms on the same side of the double bond

236
Q

trans isomer

A

hydrogen atoms on opposing sides of the double bond

237
Q

essential fatty acids

A

required from diet for growth, healthy skin and producing elements for the immune system

238
Q

cholesterol

A

waxy, fatlike substance and steroid formation

239
Q

HDL

A

good cholesterol

240
Q

LDL and VLDL

A

bad cholesterol

241
Q

where is cholesterol produced

A

liver

242
Q

how is cholesterol transproted

A

by blood as lipoproteins

243
Q

Fat DRI

A

no RDA

244
Q

AMDR for fat for total energy intake

A

20 to 35 %

245
Q

AMDR for cab for total energy intake

A

50 to 65%

246
Q

protein

A

unique because it contains Nitrogen

247
Q

what is protein part of structural components

A

muscle, bone, tendons, and ligaments

248
Q

4 functions of proteins

A

enzymes critical in energy producing reactions
hormones that regulate metabolism
transporters of other critical nutrients
energy source in energy deprived conditions

249
Q

is animal or plant proteins more complete

A

animal

250
Q

is alcohol recommend for exercise and athletics

A

no

251
Q

6 functions of water balance

A

carry nutrients and waste products,
maintain the integrity of proteins and glycogen, participate in metabolic reactions,
provide a medium for nutrients,
maintain blood volume, blood pressure, and body temp,
act as a lubricant

252
Q

AI for water

A
  1. 7 L/day for men

2. 7 L/day for women

253
Q

anaerobic capacity

A

the ability of the anaerobic energy systems to produce energy during short-term maximal effort exercise

254
Q

deconditioning

A

a partial or complete reversal of physiological adaptations to exercise resulting from a significant reduction of cessation of exercises

255
Q

detraining

A

the process that occurs after the cessation of training in which adaptations to exercise are gradually reduced or lost

256
Q

muscle atrophy

A

reduction in muscle size from disuse

257
Q

sarcopenia

A

the loss of muscle mass that results from the aging process

258
Q

functional capacity

A

throughout the lifespan, the ability to effectively perform extended (aerobic) and short term (anaerobic) work is notably related to fat free mass

259
Q

functional capacity from early adulthood on

A

there is a general decline in physical work capacity, which is matched with a concurrent loss in FFM

260
Q

what does relative VO2max

A

remains constant throughout childhood, but absolute is lower than adulthood due to less FFM

261
Q

how much does VO2max decline in adulthood

A

1% anually

262
Q

how is magnitude and timing of declined affected by

A

amount and intensity of physical activity

263
Q

how does a sedentary state affect decline

A

doubles rate

264
Q

what does exercise training do to decline

A

attenuates rate of decline

265
Q

what is absolute and relative (to body mass) anaerobic power in children than in adults

A

anaerobic power is lower in children

266
Q

when does anaerobic power plateaus

A

about age 35, then begins to decline

267
Q

when does anerobic capacity in adults decline

A

to level of childhood by the age of 65

268
Q

how can persons aged 60 to 70 increase peak power

A

high intensity training

269
Q

what does maximal CO do in children

A

increase with growth

270
Q

do boys or girls have a higher stroke volume

A

boys

271
Q

what would resting SV and CO not decrease

A

in persons known to be free of arterial disease

272
Q

heart rate

A

80-100 BPM is common in children

resting HR doesn’t change throughout adulthood

273
Q

what happens to blood vessels with age

A

stiffen with age secondary to worn elastin and changes in collagenous properties in the arterial walls

274
Q

what happens with thoracic wall compliance

A

decreases with age and ability to expand the chest cavity becomes limited

275
Q

pulmonary system with age

A

decreased maximal expiratory flow and lung volume reserve
residual volume increases 30-35%, vital capacity decreases 40-50% by 70
during exertion increased ventilation is accomplished by increased breathing frequency
20% increase in the work of respiratory muscles
ventilation does not limit exercise capacity in adulthood

276
Q

what is predetermined at birth

A

number and proportion of fiber types

277
Q

what is type I fibers resistant to

A

atrophy until seventh decade

278
Q

what do type II fibers do

A

atrophy sooner and type I proportions increases

279
Q

sacropenia

A

loss of skeletal muscle mass common with aging

280
Q

what does sacropenia cause

A

decreased fiber number and area, decreased motor unit size and recruitment, decreased innervation, decreased capillarization, decreased protein synthesis and growth factor alterations

281
Q

effects of sacropenia

A

decreased force production capacity and loss of neural function

282
Q

what helps attenuate losses with sacropenia

A

both resistance and aerobic exercise

283
Q

bone during age

A

continuously changing, osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity due to genetics and loading

284
Q

bone childhood

A

epiphysis not yet connected to bone

285
Q

senescene

A

osteoblastic> osteoclastic = bone loss

286
Q

joint ROM age

A

typically decreases with aging due to decreased tendon and ligament elasticity

287
Q

how to help maintain and/or increase flexibility throughout adulthood

A

exercise training and ROM exercise

288
Q

nervous system with aging

A

hearing and vision deficits, decreases coordination and increases fall risk

289
Q

when does immune system activity peak

A

around puberty

290
Q

what does immune system decrease

A

loss of suppressor T cell function
inability to fight pathogens
increased incidence of tumors and autoimmune disorders

291
Q

renal function with aging

A

declines up to 50%
total body water declines 10-50% with aging
decreased skin blood flow, which may contribute to a reduced ability to thermoregulate

292
Q

children sweat rate

A

lower and rely more on radiation and convection for heat dissipation

293
Q

impact of deconditioning

A

exercise cessation led to loss of previous exercise induced increases in BMD in postmenoupausal women
decreased activity of middle age persons decreased travecular BMD

294
Q

effects on bone due to deconditioning

A

prolonged inactivity increases resporption of calcium from bone

295
Q

effects on bone dure to deconditioning

A

decreased 1-2% per month typical in response to weightlessness,

296
Q

implications of bone loss

A

bone mass restoration is outspaced by muscle strength, practitioners must be careful not to induce fracture by overly aggressive exercise programs

297
Q

skeletal muscle impact of deconditioning

A

atrophy

298
Q

degree of atrophy

A

during the first few weeks in linearly related to duration and extent of unloading

299
Q

when is atrophy most severe

A

in muscles involved in weight bearing and postural control

300
Q

what types of muscle is most severely affected by atrophy

A

extensors

301
Q

skeletal muscle metabolic consequences due to deconditioning

A

decreased mitochondrial content

unloading compromises absolute muscular endurance

302
Q

strength and muscular endurance on skeletal muscle due to deconditioning

A

strength decreases,

magnitude of strength decreases, weight bearing muscles most affected

303
Q

nueromuscular consequences on skeletal muscle due to deconditioning

A

ability to recruit high threshold motor units also decrease
greater relative decrease in strength than in size
submaximal loads that were once easily borne require more absolute muscle involvement

304
Q

vulnerability of muscle damage in skeletal muscle due to deconditioning

A

unloading for 5 weeks increases vulnerability to eccentric exercise induced dysfunction and muscle injury

305
Q

myocardial infraction

A

The death of myocardial tissue resulting from prolonged ischemia

306
Q

angina pectoris

A

Chest pain or discomfort that is caused by myocardial is ischemia

307
Q

cardiovascular disease

A

Class pf diseases that affect the heart or circulatory system

308
Q

ischemia

A

a lack of blood flow relative to tissue needs

309
Q

morbidity

A

The rate of incidents of a particular disease

310
Q

mortality

A

the number of deaths in a given time or place

311
Q

peripheral arterial disease

A

Condition in which blood flow through noncoronary arterial beds is impaired

312
Q

sudden cardiac arrest

A

An unexpected death that is results from the abrupt loss of heart function and that occurs within one hour of the onset of symptoms

313
Q

thrombus

A

A blood clot that may cause a vascular obstruction

314
Q

What is cardiovascular disease

A

a major public health burden
estimated 17.1 million worldwide deaths per year
underlying cause of 33.6 percent of all US deaths in 2007

315
Q

atherosclerosis

A

an active process involving molecular signals that produce altered cellular behavior as well as endothelial dysfunction and a subsequent inflammatory response and lipid deposition

316
Q

when can initial endothelial lining injury occur

A 
early in life
CO or other toxins from smoking
hypertension
LDL-C
Homocysteine
317
Q

hypertension

A

SBP > 140 or DBP > 90 or taking anihypertensive meds

increased restriction of peripheral arteries, decreased blood flow and increased workload of heart

318
Q

Coronary heart disease

A

advanced atheroslerotic progression in one or more coronary arteries
single largest killer of Americans one of 6 deaths

319
Q

What is angina pectoris

A

Pain from myocardial ischemia, substernal pressure, heaviness, or burning sometimes accompanied by dyspnea

320
Q

Heart failure

A

impaired ability have one or both ventricles to fill with or eject blood

321
Q

symptoms of heart failure

A

Dyspnea, fatigue, exercise intolerance, and fluid retention

322
Q

Causes of heart failure

A

cardiomyopathies, CHD, MI, HTN, smoking, obesity, high cholesterol, diabetes

323
Q

Cardiac remodeling

A

valvular leakage

elevated catecholamines, aldosterone, and angiotensin II

324
Q

Stages of heart failure

A

A- at high risk for HF without structural heart disease or symptoms a HF
B- structural heart disease but without signs are symptoms of HF
C- scherschel heart disease with prior or current symptoms of HF
D- refractoy HF requiring specialized intervention

325
Q

stroke

A

The loss of brain function subsequent to the interuption of blood flow caused my hemorrhage or obstruction

326
Q

symptoms of stroke

A

hemiplegia, altered coordination, vertigo, memory loss, problems with speech and vision and behavioral changes

327
Q

Transient ischemic attack

A

have neurological symptoms that last more than 24 hours and are predictive of stroke

328
Q

Prevention strategies for strokes

A

modifying CVD risk factors: dislipedema, hypertension, obesity, smoking, and physical activity

329
Q

peripheral arterial disease

A

It hit it blood flow through non coronary arterial beds

330
Q

What arteries are typically affected by PAD

A

femoral, popliteal, tbial, iliac, abdominal aorta, renal, mesenteric arteries

331
Q

Classic symptoms of intermittent claudication

A

Leg pain that predictably follows physical exertion is relieved by rest

332
Q

Fontaine’s classification of PAD

A 
I- asymtomatic
IIa- mild claudication
IIb- moderate to severe claudication
III- ischemic rest pain
IV- ulceration or gangrene
333
Q

Surgical treatments for cardiovascular disease

A

coronary or femoral/ popliteal bypass graft

334
Q

CA risk factors

A

Nonmodifiable: age and family history
modifiable: Smoking, sedentary lifestyle, obesity, hypertension, dyslipidemia, and impaired fasting glucose

335
Q

Smoking with CA

A

contain several 1000 chemicals in at least 40 carcinogens
contributes the initiation in progression of atherosclerosis, damage endothelial cells, leads to acute increases in blood pressure, and increases platelet aggregation
complete cessation is the goal

336
Q

Dyslipidemia

A

NCEP recent recommendation

LDL- C < 100mg/ dL if triglycerides are > 200 mg/dL, and all non- HDL-c should be < 130 mg/dL

337
Q

what is mandatory for those with CHD

A

statin medications

338
Q

sedentary lifestyle

A

many positive effects of regular exercise on CAD
a minimum of 30 min of moderate intensity exercise for 5 days a week
two or more days per week of resistance training

339
Q

What is a major independent risk factor for CVD

A

obesity

340
Q

impaired fasting glucose

A

Chronic hyperglycemia

341
Q

chronic hyperglycaemia

A

Associated with accelerated atherosclerosis/ lesion formation
promotes monocyte recruitment in adherence to the endothelial monolayer by stimulating expression of endothelial adhesion molecules
related to advanced atherosclerotic plaques and clinical outcome

342
Q

antiplatelet medication

CAD

A

asprin and clopidogrel interfere with platelet activation and or aggregation

343
Q

anticoagulants

CAD

A

warfarin and herarin interfere with the coagulation cascade

344
Q

antianginals

CAD

A

nitroglycerin increases vasodilation and blood flow

345
Q

antihypertensives

CAD

A

diuretics

furosemide, thiazides, amiloride

346
Q

β-blockers

CAD

A

atenolol, propranolol, metoprolol

347
Q

calcium channel blockers

CAD

A

diltiazam, verpamil

348
Q

angiotensin- converting enzyme inhibitors

CAD

A

enalapril, ramipril, lisinopril

349
Q

angiotensin receptor blockers

CAD

A

irbesartan, losartan, valsartan

350
Q

antihypercholesterolemics

A

simvastatin, lovastatin, atorvastatin
cholestryramine
gemfibbrozil, fenofibrate
niacin

351
Q

pathophysiology of healing myocardium

A

4-6 h post MI- acute ischemia
6 h - 7d post MI- inflammation and necrosis
>7 d post MI- collagen deposition rapidly increases

352
Q

assumption of risk

waiver

A

an agreement by a client, provided before beginning participation to give up, relinquish, and waive the participant’s rights to legal remedy in the event of injury, even when such injury arises as a result of a provider’s ordinary negligence

353
Q

informed consent

A

a process that entails conveying info to a client so that the client achieves an understanding about the options to choose to participate in a procedure, test, service, or program

354
Q

negligence

A

a failure to conform one’s conduct to a generally accepted standard or duty

355
Q

risk management

A

an initial and ongoing process to identify relevant risks associated with the delivery of a service and then, through the application of various techniques to eliminate, reduce, or transfer those risks through the implementation of operations strategies to the program activities designed to benefit the clients and programs

356
Q

contract law

A

defines and governs the undertakings that may be specified among individuals

357
Q

contract

A

promise or performance bargained for and given in exchange for another promise or performance, all which is supported by adequate consideration

358
Q

what is informed consent intended to ensure

A

that the client entered in to the procedure with adequate knowledge of the relevant material risks, any alternative procedures that might satisfy certain objectives, and the benefits associated with that activity

359
Q

how can consent be expressed

A

written or implied by law simply a function of how the two parties to the procedure conducted themselves

360
Q

who can give informed consent

A

be of legal age, not be mentally incapacitated, know and fully understand the importance and relevance of the material risks and benefits, and given consent voluntarily and not under any mistake of fact or duress

361
Q

tort law

A

simply a civil wrong

362
Q

most tort claims on exercise professionals are

A

based on allegations of negligence or malpractice causing personal injury or death

363
Q

negligence

A

failure to conform one’s conduct to a generally accepted standard or duty

364
Q

validity of negligence

A

defendeant owed a duty
one or more failures occurred
injury or damage is attributable to an established act or failure to perform
whether exercise professional provided service in accordance with so called standard of care

365
Q

malpractice

A

generally involve claims against professionals who have been provided with public authority to practice for alleged breaches of professional duties and responsibilities toward patients or other persons to whom they owed a particular standard of care or duty.

366
Q

defense to negligence or malpractice

A

proper conduct of the informed consent
proof of negligence committed by participant
liability insurance to protect against financial loss

367
Q

standards of practice

A

express how contemporary services should be delivered to give reasonable assurance that desired outcomes will be achieved in a safe manner
developed and periodically revised

368
Q

unauthorized practice of medicine

A

stimulated a variety of initiatives to clarify roles and responsibilities, promote professionalism, and increase professional opportunities for exercise professionals

369
Q

What is the most common method of prescreening whole process

A

Standardized forms

370
Q

Limitations of pre participation screening for

A 
Cannot cover all situations 
Some forms (PAR-Q) can only identify those who are at high risk
Most do not make recommendations based on intensity of the proposed exercise program
371
Q

4 Purposes of pre participation health screening

A

Identifying and exclude individuals with medical contradictions to exercise
Identify individuals who should undergo a medical evaluation and exercise testing before starting an exercise program because of increased stress for disease as a result of age, symptoms, or risk factor
Identify persons with clinically significant disease who should participate in medically supervised exercised programs
Identify individuals with other special needs

372
Q

Medical screening examination

A

Can range in complexity from a simple clinical examination to extensive diagnostic testing depending on age, medical history, risk factors, and symptoms

373
Q

Components of detailed medical history

A

Previous diagnosis, especially cardiac\vascular
Risk factors
Past and current skeletal and muscular injuries
Medications
Current symptoms

374
Q

thorough physical exam

A 
assessment of cardiovascular, respiratory, and skeletal muscle symptoms
BP, HR, auscultation of heart and lungs
height, weight
joint mobility, ROM, strength
balance test
foot exam
375
Q

why would further medical testing be ordered

A

hx, exam, and published recommendations indicate

376
Q

medical conditions that complicate the exercise prescription

A 
cardiovascular disease
hypertension
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
diabetes mellitus
elderly individuals
arthritis
377
Q

cardiovascular disease exercise prescription

A

must be done with MD approval and input
start slowly and gradually increase intensity and duration
goal 30-60 min of daily moderate intensity aerobic exercise
osteoporosis

378
Q

hypertension exercise prescription

A

high risk

silent killer

379
Q

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

A

long term illnesses of the respiratory system

380
Q

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exercise prescription

A

exercise is an imporant part of rehab
increase indurance, decrease dypnea
physician approval to start

381
Q

diabetes mellitus exercise prescription

A

high risk

must have physician clearance

382
Q

elderly individuals exercise prescription

A

physician clearance

extended build up period of intensity and duration

383
Q

arthritis exercise prescription

A

decrease pain and stiffness

increase flexibility, muscle strength, cardiac fitness, and endurance

384
Q

osteoporosis exercise prescription

A

weight bearing exercise and resistance training can help prevent and treat
need physician approval

385
Q

special safety considerations for resistance training

A

moderate to risk patients with cardiac disease

low to moderate risk patients with cardiac risk disease

386
Q

moderate to risk patients with cardiac disease

A

safety of resistance testing and training requires additional study

387
Q

low to moderate risk patients with cardiac risk disease

A

first participate in a traditional aerobic exercise program for a min of 5 weeks

CEP (6 decks)

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