Unit 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Bacillus refers to what shape?

A

Rod

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2
Q

Coccus refers to what shape?

A

Round

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3
Q

Curved Rod

A

Vibro

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4
Q

Short Rod

A

Coccobacillus

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5
Q

Spiral Shape

A

Spirillum

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6
Q

Long, loose helical spiral

A

Spirochete

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7
Q

A pair of two cocci

A

Diplococci

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8
Q

Grouping of four cells arranged in a square

A

Tetrad

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9
Q

Chain of cocci

A

Streptococcus

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10
Q

Cluster of cocci

A

Staphylococcus

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11
Q

Chain of rods

A

Streptobacillicus

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12
Q

While gram-positive bacteria are more susceptible to ________________, gram-negative bacteria are more susceptible to _______________.

Select one:
A.disinfectants; lysozyme
B.penicillin; complement
C. complement; disinfectants
D.lysozyme; penicillin
E.heat; penicillin

A

B.penicillin; complement

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13
Q

In fermentation, the terminal electron acceptor is _______________ to recycle ________ to _________.
a.organic metabolite; NADH; NAD+
b. organic metabolite; ADP; ATP
c.NADH; ATP; ADP
d.organic metabolite; NAD+; NADH
e.organic metabolite; ATP; ADP

A

a.organic metabolite; NADH; NAD+

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14
Q

Which of the following is always a consequence of and can be measured (indicated) as evidence of fermentation?
A. pH increase
B. Bubbling
C. Formation of a black precipitate
D. pH drop

A

D. pH drop

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15
Q

Fungi: Prokaryote or Eukaryote

A

Eukaryote

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16
Q

Bacteria-Prokaryote or Eukaryote?

A

Prokaryote

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17
Q

Viruses-Prokaryote or Eukaryote

A

Neither

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18
Q

Protozoa-Prokaryote or Eukaryote

A

Eukaryote

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19
Q

Which of the following are fundamental structures found in all prokaryotic cells: 1.cell wall, 2. cytoplasmic membrane, 3. chromosome(s), 4. flagellum or flagella, 5. cytoplasm

A

2,3 and 5

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20
Q

Which strucutes are not stainable, but are made visible through negative stains?
A. Inclusion bodies
B. Mycolic acids
C. Flagella
D. Capsules

A

D. Capsules

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21
Q

Prokayotes include:

A

Bacteria

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22
Q

Eukaryotes involved in disease include:

A

Helminths (worms), Protozoa and Fungi

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23
Q

Etiologic Agents of Infectious Diseases are separated into

A

Cellular and Acellular

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24
Q

Examples of acellular agents of infectious disease

A

Viruses, viroids, and prions

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25
Q

Ribosomes of Prokaryotes

A

70S

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26
Q

Ribosomes of Eukaryotes

A

80S

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27
Q

Chromosome Shape: Prokaryote vs. Eukaryote

A

-Circular (Prokaryote)
-Linear (Eukaryote)

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28
Q

Prokaryotes contain a nucleus (T/F)

A

False, they contain a nucleoid

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29
Q

Endospores are contained in ___________ bacteria

A

gram-positive

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30
Q

What colors do gram positive and negative turn under the gram stain technique?

A

-Gram positive (Purple)
-Gram negative (Pink)

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31
Q

A gram negative bacterial cell wall contains a thin layer of _____________

A

peptidoglycan

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32
Q

Functions of the bacterial cell wall

A

Protect from harsh conditions and osmotic pressure

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33
Q

More susceptible to penicillin

A

Gram positive

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34
Q

More susceptible to lysozyme

A

Gram positive

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35
Q

More susceptible to lysis by complement

A

Gram negative

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36
Q

More sensitive to heat and disinfectants

A

Gram negative

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37
Q

Endotoxin

A

Gram negative

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38
Q

Exotoxin

A

Gram positive

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39
Q

Contains teichoic acid

A

Gram-positive

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40
Q

Functions of glycocalyx

A

-Hold Water
-Cell biofilm

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41
Q

Purpose of flagella

A

Movement of bacterial cells

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42
Q

one flagella

A

monotrichous

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43
Q

flagella with hair on either side

A

amphitricous

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44
Q

flagella with hair all around cell

A

peritrichous

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45
Q

flagella with all the hair at one end

A

lophotrichous

46
Q

Which are there more of, flagella or fimbriae

A

fimbriae

47
Q

Function of fimbriae

A

Biofilm formation

48
Q

Hollow tubes made of protein

A

Pili

49
Q

How many pili are there per cell

A

1-2

50
Q

Pili are ______ than fimbriae and ________ than flagella

A

Longer, shorter

51
Q

Function of pili

A

Transfer of DNA between cells

52
Q

O2 required: Aerobic Respiration or Fermentation?

A

Aerobic Respiration

53
Q

Phosphorylation of Aerobic Respiration

A

Oxidative

54
Q

Phosphorylation of Fermentation

A

Substrate-Level

55
Q

Final e- acceptor of Aerobic Respiration

A

O2

56
Q

Final e- Acceptor of Fermentation

A

Organic metabolite

57
Q

ATP/Glucose (Aerobic Respiration or Fermentation)

A

-Aerobic Respiration: Lots (30-32)/Fermentation (Few: 2)

58
Q

Gelatin-like polysaccharide from marine algae

A

Agar

59
Q

Organism growing in absence of oxygen

A

Anaerobe

60
Q

Device that stabilizes under pressure with stream

A

Autoclave

61
Q

Sum of all degradative reactions

A

Catabolism

62
Q

Enzyme that detoxifies hydrogen peroxide

A

Catalase

63
Q

Enzyme that activates fibrinogen

A

Coagulase

64
Q

Visible growth of a clone on an agar plate

A

Colony

65
Q

Catabolic process under anaerobic conditions

A

Fermentation

66
Q

Organism that thrives in low oxygen environments

A

Microaerophile

67
Q

Use of heat to destroy pathogens and reduce number of spoilage microoragnism in foods and beverages

A

Pasteurization

68
Q

Cell wall polysaccharide requiring nitrogen

A

Peptidoglycan

69
Q

Which of the following is NOT a target of antimicrobial methods?
A. Cell Wall
B. Cell Membrane
C. Nucleic Acids
D. Capsule

A

D. Capsule

70
Q

Sterilizing, using moist heat at elevated pressure, which keeps water liquid is called ____________.
A. Boiling
B. Pasteurizing
C. Autoclaving
D. Sanitization

A

C. Autoclaving

71
Q

Among etiologic agents of disease, bacterial endospores are some of the most difficult to kill forms of life

A

True

72
Q

Which form of radiation is recommended to keep surfaces sterile?
A. Gamma Rays
B. UV Radiation
C. X-Rays
D. Ionizing Radiation

A

B. UV Radiation

73
Q

Chemicals needed for microbial growth

A

-Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Sulfur, Phosphorus

74
Q

Affects of low temperaures on physical growth

A

Fragile and Rigid

75
Q

Result of high temperatures on physical growth

A

Too fluid

76
Q

Can multiply in a refridgerator

A

Psychophiles

77
Q

Inanimate objects that may harbor microbes and aid in their transmission

A

Fomite

78
Q

Removal of potential pathogens from fomites

A

Disinfection

79
Q

Removal of potential pathogens from living tissues

A

Antisepsis

80
Q

Removal of pathogens from objects to meet public health standards

A

Sanitization

81
Q

Use of heat to destroy pathogens and reduce number of spoilage mechanisms in foods and beverages

A

Pastuerization

82
Q

Destrcution of all microorganisms and viruses in or on an object

A

Sterilization

83
Q

High energy, sterilized was can’t be autocalved

A

X-Ray, Y-Ray

84
Q

Agar Plates innoculated with bacteria for confluent growth

A

Disk diffusion method

85
Q

Fermentation is a process that allows for ATP production under anaerobic conditions by
a) Transferring electrons from NADH to a metabolite, in order to provides NAD+ for catabolism
b) Generating acidic conditions, under which ATP synthesis is enhanced
c) Transferring protons from NADH to a metabolite, in order to provide NAD+ for
catabolism
d) Generating CO2 which activates ATP synthases

A

a) Transferring electrons from NADH to a metabolite, in order to provides NAD+ for catabolism

86
Q

Which of the following is NOT a difference between eukaryotic & prokaryotic genomes?
a) Mostly diploid - Always Haploid
b) In nucleus - In cytosol
c) Double-stranded - single-stranded
d) Chromosome linear - chromosome circular

A

b) In nucleus - In cytosol

87
Q

Fermentation of a specific carbon source is apparent when
a) There is a decrease in pH, made visible with a color change due to the presence of an indicator
b) Colonies grow on high salt agar plates
c) There is clumping occurring in the coagulase test
d) There is an increase in pH, made visible with a color change due to the presence
of an indicator
e) There is no catalase activity (H2O2 > H2 +O2)

A

a) There is a decrease in pH, made visible with a color change due to the presence of an indicator

88
Q

Why does nitrogen often become the growth limiting factor?
a) Because ammonia contributes to the physiological pH conditions in the
cytoplasm
b) Because nitrate is an important regulatory factor in bacterial cells
c) Because bacteria uses N2 as an oxidizing agent instead of O2
d) Because in ionic form it contributes to the correct osmotic pressure within
e) Because the demand for the biosynthesis of proteins, nucleic acids, and
peptidoglycan

A

e) Because the demand for the biosynthesis of proteins, nucleic acids, and
peptidoglycan

89
Q

Which of the following is not a target of antibiotic action?
a) Ribosomes
b) Capsule
c) Cell Membrane
d) Cell Wall

A

b) Capsule

90
Q

______________ is found in gram negative & gram positive bacteria
a) Lipopolysaccharide
b) Peptidoglycan
c) Teichoic acid
d) Spore formation

A

b) Peptidoglycan

91
Q

Which of the following are known to survive autoclaving, an otherwise very effective method of microbial control
a) Gram-negative bacteria
b) Endospores
c) Gram-positive bacteria
d) Fungi

A

b) Endospores

92
Q

Standard methods of sterilization in clinical setting are not effective in inactivating
a) Viruses
b) Bacteria
c) Fungi
d) Prions

A

d) Prions

93
Q

Spherical bacteria arranged in clusters are also called ____________
a) Streptobacilli
b) Tetrads
c) Staphylococci
d) Streptococci
e) Diplococci

A

c) Staphylococci

94
Q

The etiologic agent of meningitis is a _____________
a) Virus
b) Fungus
c) Bacterium
d) Can be any of the above

A

c) Bacterium

95
Q

Capsules are virulence factors because they:
a) Elicit a strong immune response
b) Act as toxins
c) Function as lytic enzymes
d) Distinguish the bacterium from the immune system

A

d) Distinguish the bacterium from the immune system

96
Q

Which best describes Streptococci with respect to oxygen & growth?
a) Obligate aerobes
b) Facultative anaerobes
c) Obligate anaerobes
d) Microaerophiles
e) Aerotolerant organisms

A

b) Facultative anaerobes

97
Q

Microbial capsules (sometimes called glycocalyces) consist typically of ______________
a) Lipopolysaccharides
b) Lipids
c) Peptidoglycan
d) Nucleic Acids
e) Carbohydrates

A

a) Lipopolysaccharides

98
Q

One metabolic test used to identify bacteria involves citrate as the sole carbon source. A positive test result will show microbial growth and a __________
a) Production of CO2
b) Formation of indole
c) AdropinpH
d) A pH increase

A

d) A pH increase

99
Q

Most pathogenic bacteria are ____________
a) Mesophiles
b) Thermophiles
c) Psychrophiles
d) Alkaliphiles
e) Acidophiles

A

a) Mesophiles

100
Q

Which of the following is affected by penicillin
a) DNA replication
b) Peptidoglycan synthesis
c) Ribosome function
d) Lipopolysaccharide synthesis
e) Cell membrane structure

A

b) Peptidoglycan synthesis

101
Q

Endotoxins are exclusively originating from ____________
a) Bacteria that do not have flagella
b) Gram-negative bacteria
c) Gram-positive bacteria
d) Bacteria that have a capsule

A

b) Gram-negative bacteria

102
Q

Which of the following is found in any type of cellular etiologic agent of disease?
a) Cell wall
b) Nucleus
c) Flagella
d) Mitochondria
e) Ribosomes

A

e) Ribosomes

103
Q

The negative stain is used to highlight the presence or absence of _________
a) Volutin (poly-P inclusion)
b) Capsules
c) Endospores
d) Flagella
e) Lipopolysaccharids

A

b) Capsules

104
Q

Where do the following structures aid in biofilm formation?
a) Glycocalyx and pili
b) Peptidoglycan and fimbriae
c) Peptidoglycan and pili
d) Fimbriae and glycocalyx
e) Fimbriae and pili

A

d) Fimbriae and glycocalyx

105
Q

Mycolic acids (wax-like substances) are found in which of the following types of bacteria?
a) Endospore-forming bacteria
b) Gram-negative bacteria
c) Gram-positive bacteria
d) Acid-fast bacteria

A

d) Acid-fast bacteria

106
Q

Which is the correct size order (smallest to largest)?
A. non-enveloped virus-enveloped virus-bacterium-protozoan-pinworm
B. Non-enveloped virus-protozoan-enveloped virus-bacterium-pinworm
C. Protozoan-non-enveloped virus-enveloped cirus-bacterium-pinworm
D.Bacterium-non-enveloped virus-enveloped virus-protozoan-pinworm
E.Pinworm-bacterium-non-enveloped vrius-enveloped virus-protozoa

A

A. non-enveloped virus-enveloped virus-bacterium-protozoan-pinworm

107
Q

Which is the correct description for ‘vibro’
A. Rod
B. Short Rod
C. Sphere
D. Curved Rod
E. Spiral

A

D. Curved Rod

108
Q

Which of the following is NOT a difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic genomes? Eukaryotic genome-Prokaryotic genome
A. mostly diploid-always haploid
B. In nucleus-in cytosol
C. Double-stranded-Single-stranded
D. Chromosome linear-Chromosome circular

A

C. Double-stranded-Single-stranded

109
Q

The sum of all degradative reactions in an organism is called ____________
A. Oxidative phosphorylation
B. Anabolism
C. Metabolism
D. Aerobic cellular respiration
E. Catabolism

A

E. Catabolism

110
Q

Agar plates inoculated with samples from throat swabs for the purpose of testing, where the burning of a candle in a closed jar uses up most of the oxygen. This condition following terms best describes Streptococci with respect to oxygen and growth?
A. Obligate anaerobes
B. Facultative anaerobes
C. Obligate anaerobes
D. Microaerophiles
E. Aerotolerant organisms

A

B. Facultative anaerobes

111
Q

Match the method used to measure microbial growth with the correct category?
_Direct Method
_Indirect Method
A. Viable Plate Count
B. Spectophtotmetry

A

A. Direct Mthod
B. Indirect Method

112
Q

From the following definitions/descriptions, match the correct one with each term (1-3)
A. Removal of potential pathodens from fomites
B. Removal of pathogens from objects to meet public health standards
C. Use of heat to destroy pathogens and reduce number of spoilage microorganisms in foods and beverages
D. Destruction of all microorganisms and viruses in or on an object
E. Removal of potential pathogens from living tissue
-Pasteurization
-Disinfection
-Antisepsis

A

C. Pasteurization
A. Disinfection
E. Antisepsis