UNCOMMON BLOOD GROUPS P3 Flashcards

1
Q

In 2014, the blood grpup number 035 was assigned to the CD59 system based
on a CD59-deficient child who formed an alloantibody with CD59 specificity

A

The CD59 (035) System

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2
Q

(CD59 ANTIGEN)

  • The gene CD59 is located on ________ at position 11p13 and has only one antigen, CD59.1
  • _____ is a GPI-linked complement-regulatory glycoprotein also known as the __________
  • CD59 plays a key role in protecting against complement-regulated hemolysis by binding to C8 and C9 thus interfering with the formation of the membrane- attach complex (MAC). _____ is acquired hemolytic anemia caused by a mutation in the GPI-linker gene.
  • _________ individuals have beem identified among Japanese,
    North Africans, Jews, and Turks.
A

chromosome 11 ;
CD59 ; membrane inhibitor lysis (MIRL) ;
PNH ;
Congenital CD59-deficient

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3
Q

(CD59 ANTIBODIES)

  • _______ was IgG, which shoed increased reactivity with enzyme-treated RBCs and was nonreactive with DTT-treated RBCs.
  • Patients with CD59 deficiency show PNH-like symtoms, including hemolysis
    and strokes, but also neutropathy.
A

Anti-CD59.1

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4
Q
  • Anti-Ata was first described in 1967 in the serum of a black woman named Mrs. Augustine.
  • The ISBT blood group system status was assigned in 2015 with a symbol of AUG.
A

The Augustine (036) System

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5
Q

(AUG ANTIGEN)

  • ____ is a high-prevalence antigen, and all At(a-) individuals have been black.
  • Two antigens are ____ AND ____(Ata)
  • The antigen defined by the antibody produced with the null phenotype is
    AUG1.
  • The AUG gene, SLC29A1, located on ______ at position 6p21.1, encodes
    the ________
  • The antigens are fully developed at birth and are resistant to treatment with ficin and papain, DTT, and glycine-acid EDTA.
A

Ata ;
AUG1 and AUG2 ;
chromosome 6 ; equilibrative nucleoside transporter 2 (ENT2) ;

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6
Q

(ATA ANTIBODIES)

  • Anti-Ata is usually IgG, reactive in the antiglobulin phase testing, and has
    caused severe HTRs and one reported mild case of HDFN.
  • A new low-prevalence antigen has been provissionally assigned _____; the
    corresponding antibody caused severe HDFN.
A

AUG3

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7
Q
  • Collections are antigens that have a biochemical, serologic, or genetic
    relationship but do not meet the criteria for a system.
  • Most the antigens in the blood group collection are either high or low
    prevalence.
  • Antigens classified as a collection are assigned a 200 number.
A

ISBT Blood Group Collections

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8
Q
  • formally referred to as Cost-Sterling, was established in 1988.
  • It was named after the two patients (Copeland and Sterling) who made anti-Csa.
A

Cost Collection 205

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9
Q

COST COLLECTION 205 ANTIGEN

  • Five antigens formally in the Cost Collection have been placed into the Knops system once it was established that they are carried on ________
  • The Cost Collection currently consists of two antithetical antigens, ____ and ___
  • The ___ antigen is a high-prevalence antigen with a frequency of 95% in the black population and greater than 98% in most population.
  • The ___ antigen is a polymorphic antigen with a frequency of 34% in most populations.
  • Both the Csa and Csb antigens demonstrate a resistance enzyme treatment aand
    varying effects to treatment with DTT.
A

complement receptor 1 (CR1). ;
Csa and Csb. ;
Csa ;
Csb ;

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10
Q

Antibodies
* The ________ antibodies are IgG reacting at antiglobulin phase of testing, and have not been found to be clinically significant.
* The antibodies are difficult to identify due to the varying RBC expression from person to person.

A

Cost Collection

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11
Q
  • Was first assigned in 1990 and consistefd of two antigens, I and i.
  • In 2002, the I antigen was promoted to a blood group system 027, leaving i the
    sole antigen in the collection.
A

Ii Collection 207

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12
Q

Ii Antigen

  • The i antigen occurs on unbranched carbohydrate chains and is the precursor for the I antigen.
  • Along with RBCs, the I and i antigens are found on most human cells and on soluble glycoproteins
    in the body fluids.
  • The i antigen is strongly expressed on cord cells with only trace amounts on adult RBCs
  • is resistant to both enzyme and chemical treatments.
  • may increase in expression during hemopoietic stress due to rapid production of RBCs.
A

Ii Collection 207

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13
Q

Ii Antibodies

  • Anti-i is usually IgM reacting at room temperature or 4 Degrees Celsius, some may bind
    complement.
  • is not known to cause transfusion reactions and rarely causes HDFN.
  • Autoanti-i is cold agglutinin associated with infectious monocleosis and some
    lymphoproliferative disorders that occasionally can cause hemolysis.
A

Ii Collection 207

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14
Q

was established as a collection in 1990 with three antigens.

A

Er Collection 208

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15
Q

Er Collection 208 Antigen

  • Two of the antigens are high-prevalence antigens, _____ and ____.
  • Third antigen is a low-prevalence antigen, ____.
  • The Er antigens are resistant to enzyme and DTT treatment, but sensitive to glycine acid/EDTA
    treatment.
A

Era and Er3 ;
Erb

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16
Q

Er Collection 208 Antibodies

  • _____ is produced by the presumed null phenotype Er(a-b-).
  • The antibodies are IgG reacting at the antiglobulin phase of testing and do not fix complement.
  • Limited data exist on the clinical significance of Er antibodies.
  • A patient with anti-Er3 showed mild hemolysis following transfusion of an incompatible unit.
  • Monocyte-monolayer assays (MMA) suggest anti-Era is not clinically significant, whereas anti-Er3
    had potential significance.
  • The Er antigens are expressed on cord cells, and anti-Era and -Erb have caused a positive DAT in
    the newborn but no clinically significant HDFN.
A

Anti-Er3

17
Q
  • The Bloboside collection currently consists of one high-prevalence antigen,
    LKE.
  • The GLOB collection and how it relates to the P1PK (003) and Globoside (028)
    blood group systems.
A

Globoside Collection 209

18
Q
  • Consist of two antigens, Lec and Led, which are glycosphingolipids adsorbed onto RBCS.
  • Lec and Led are precursors to the Lewis antigens and demonstrate increased expresion in
    Le(a-b-) individuals.
  • The antigen names are misleading because neither Lec nor Led are produced by a Lewis
    gene transferase.
A

Collection 210 (Unnamed)

19
Q

Collection 210 (Unnamed) Antigen

  • ___ is a low-prevalence antigen occuring in 1% of most populations.
  • ____ is a polymorphic antigen occuring in 6% of most populations.
A

Lec ;
Led

20
Q
  • ______ agglutinates Le(a-b-) RBCs from nonsecretors.
  • both humans and goats are known to make anti-Lec.
  • _____ agglutinates Le(a-b-) RBC form secretors, but not from Le(a-b-)
  • The discovery of anti-Led was the result of injecting goats with saliva from a Le(a-b+) individuals.
A

Anti-Lec ;
Anti- Led

21
Q

MN CHO Collection 213 Antigen:

  • The MN CHO collection currently consists of six polymorphic antigens: __________________
  • The antigens are associated with the M or N antigen in the MNS (002) system and are expressed on ____ with altered levels of sialic acid or GlcNAc.
  • All are antigens are sensitive to ficin/papain, with some demonstrating resistance to a-chymotrypsin.
  • The Hu antigen (213001) was formerly called ______ after the donor of the RBCs used to
    immunize rabbits in 1934.
A

Hu,M1, Tm, Can, Sext, and Sj. ;
GPA ;
Hunter

22
Q

MN CHO Collection 213 Antigen:

  • The Hu antigen is predominantly an altered GPAm with a strong link to the Sext antigen, which is also in the MN
    CHO collection.
  • Enzyme treatment shows sensitive to ficinpapain and trypsin and resistance to a-chymotrypsin.
  • The _______ (213002) was reported in 1960 and is predominantly an altered GPAm.
  • Enzyme treatment of the M1 antigen shows sensitivity ficin/papain and trypsin and resistance to
    a-chymotrypsin.
A

M antigen ;

23
Q
  • In 1965, the _____ antigen was renamed Tm (213003).
  • The logic behind the Tm naming was that “T” was next in line after the S and s, and since the “T” was already
    associated with polyagglutination, the letter “m” was included due to the association with the MN system.
  • Enzyme treatment of the Tm antigen shows sensitivity to ficin/papain and trypsin and resistance to
    a-chymotrypsin.
A

Sheerin

24
Q
  • The ____ antigen (213004) was reported in 1979 and named after the first antigen-positive proband, Canner.
  • The Can antigen is predominantly an altered GPAm that is sensitive to ficin/papain and trypsin and resistant to
    a-chymotrypsin.
A

can

25
Q
  • The ___ antigen (213005)was reported in 1974 and named after the individual who produced the antibody.
  • The Sext antigen is predominantly an altered GPAn with a strong link to the Hu antigen. Sensitive to ficin/papain,
    trypsin and salidase.
A

Sext

26
Q
  • The ___ antigen (213006) was reported in 1968 when an anti-Tm serum was shown to have an additional
    specificity.
  • The antigen is predominantly associated with GPAn and sensitive to ficin/papain
A

Sj

27
Q

(MN CHO Collection 213 Antibodies)

  • All antibodies to the MN CHO collection react optimally at _______
  • Antibodies to the Hu antigen have only been demonstrated in immunized rabbits.
  • The majority of anti-M1 are made by M- individuals, but a few cases of anti-M1 have been found in M+N+ individuals.
  • The separation of anti-M and anti-M1 by differential Adsorption has not been
    successful.
A

room temperature

28
Q
  • Antigens in the 700 series of low-prevalence antigens represent those with a
    prevalence of less than 1% of most random populations.
  • The low-prevalence antigen and antibody discovery is usually unexpected.
    Some examples of how the low-prevalence antigen/antibodies were detected are
    (1) an unknown maternal antibody causing HDFN,
    (2) an unexplained incompatible crossmatch, and
    (3) unexplained positive reactivity with commercial human source antisera
    containing an unknown low-prevalence antibody.
  • Low-prevalence antibodies are commonly found in serum that contains
    multiple antibodies, especially antibodies to other low-prevalence antigens.
  • A case of severe HDFN that required three intrauterine transfusions was seen in
    a neonate due to the presence of anti-HJK.
  • HDFN caused by anti-Kga and -REIT required exchange transfusion.
  • Other cases of HDFN ranged in severity resulting in a positive DAT,
    phototherapy, and/or transfuion.
A

ISBT 700 Series

29
Q
  • Antigens in the 901 series of high-prevalence antigens represent those with a
    prevalence of more than 90% of most random populations.
  • Six antigens currently make up the 901 series of the ISBT.
  • The difficulty in identifying and finding compatible units makes antibodies to
    the high-prevalence antigens a potential transfusion risk.
A

ISBT 901 Series

30
Q
  • First reported in 1987 and named after the first identified antigen-negative
    proband.
  • Six probands with the negative phenotype have been identified.
  • antigen is expressed on cord cells and is resistant to all enzyme and chemical
    treatments.
  • Anti-Emm has been identified to be both IgG and IgM reacting at Both 4 Degrees
    Celsius and antiglobulin phase of testing with a higher occurence of IgG antibodies.
  • Some Have been shown to bund complement.
A

Emm Antigen

31
Q
  • In 1982, an alloantibody to an antigen called Anton was identified and followed
    by the identification in 1983 of an autoantibody to an antigen call Wj.
  • In 1985, it was shown that they were the same antigen and renamed AnWj.
  • Is not expressed on cord cells and has varying expression in adults.
  • Antigen is resistant to ficin/papain, trypsin, and a-chymotrypsin, and is variable
    with DTT.
  • Haemophilus influenza uses the AnWj antigen as a receptor to enter RBCs.
  • Anti-AnWj is an IgG antibody demonstrating reactivity at antiglobulin phase of
    testing;
  • most anti-AnWj are autoantibodies due to a trasnfusion suppression of the
    AnWj antigen.
A

AnWj Antigen

32
Q
  • is a high-prevalence carbohydrate amtigem named for Sid, who was the head of the maintenance department at the Lister Institute in London.
  • The soluble form of Sds is Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein found in urine.
  • The antigen is not expressed on RBCs of newborns but is in their saliva, urine,
    and meconium.
  • The Sda antigen is resistant to treatment with ficin, papain, DTT, and glycine-acid EDTA.
  • Anti-Sda can naturally occur in the sera of individuals who are Sd(a-).
  • Usually an IgM agglutinin that is reactive at room temperature, but it can be detected in the indirect antiglobulin test and does not react with cord RBCs.
  • Anti-Sda is generally considered clinically insignificant for transfusion, though there are two reports of transfusion reaction associated with the transfusion of
    Sd(a++) RBCs.
A

Sda Antigen

33
Q
  • The High-prevalence PEL antigen was first identified in 1980 and given the
    name PEL in 1966 after the first negative proband.
  • The PEL-negative phenotype has been identified in two French-Canadian
    families.
  • Antigen is expressed ocn cord cells and is resistant to both enzyme and
    chemical treatment.
  • Anti-PEL are presumed to be IgG reacting at the antiglobulin phase of testing.
  • No signs of HDFN were noted for the baby of the original PEL-negative proband.
A

PEL Antigen

34
Q
  • In 1996, the high-prevalence ABTI antigen was reported with the detection of anti-ABTI in three multiparous women of an
    inbred Israeli-Arab family.
  • The ABTI- phenotype was also reported in one Bavarian and one German individual.
  • The expression on cord RBCs was presumed to be the mechanism of immunization.
  • The ABTI antigen is resistant to enzymes and chemical treatment.
  • Anti-ABTI are IgG reacting at the antiglobulin phase of testing.
  • Anti-ABTI has not demonstrated evidence of HDFN.
A

ABTI Antigen

35
Q
  • The high-prevalence antigen MAM was first reported in 1993 and assigned to
    the 901 series in 1999.
  • 4 MAM- proband have been reported.
  • All the probands are thought to have formed anti-MAM through exposure
    during pregnancy because none of the probands had a history of transfusion.
  • MAM antigen is expressed on cord cells, lymphocytes, granulocytes,
    monocytes, and probably platelets.
  • Antigen is resistant to both enzyme and chemical treatment.
  • It is thought that anti-MAM may also cause neonatal thrombocytopenia.
  • Anti-MAM are IgG, reacting at the antiglobulin phase of testing.
A

MAM Antigen

36
Q
  • HLA class I antigens (HLA-A,-B, and -C) are present on all nucleated cells.
  • HLA antigens are not considered a blood group antigen.
  • The name “Bg” (Bga, Bgb, and Bgc) was given to HLA class I antigens that are
    detectable on mature RBCs.
  • Bga = HLA-B7
  • Bgb = HLA-B17
  • Bgc = HLA-A28
  • HLA antigens on RBCs are not destroyed by enzymes or DTT/AET treatment.
  • However, Chloroquine or EDTA/glycine-HCL can be used to remove the HLA
    antigen from RBCs.
  • Bg antibodies are usually considered insignificant, but although rare, Bg
    antibodies have been reported to cause immediate and delayed HTRs.
  • HLA antibodies have not been implicated in HDFN.
  • HLA antibodies play a significant role in transfusion-associates acute lung injury (TRALI).
A

HLA Antigens on RBCs

37
Q
  • When an uncommon antibody is detected, understanding antigen and antibody characteristics and how they relate to frequency, ethinicity, enzymes, and chemical treatments is critical in the identification process.
  • Antibodies to low-prevalence antigens are most often detected through
    unexpected incompatible crossmatches or case of HDFN.
  • Antibodies to high-prevalence and othe uncommon antigens are easy to detect but difficult to work with since most blood banks do not have the antigen- negative reagent RBCs needed to exclude other alloantibodies, nor do they have typing reagents to phenotype the patient’s RBCs or havee an inventory of
    rare units.
A

Applications to Routine Blood Banking