UA Exam 2 Flashcards
Reference range of creatinine.
0.6 – 1.2 mg/dL
Reference range of BUN.
11 – 23 mg/dL.
Reference range of serum osmolality.
275 – 300 mOsm.
Reference range of renal glucose.
70 – 105 mg/dL.
Which two test pads do we typically see positive in Diabetes Mellitus?
Glucose and ketones.
History: A 25-year-old pregnant women comes to the ED with symptoms of lower back pain, urinary frequency, and a burning sensation when voiding. Her pregnancy has been normal up to this point. She is given a sterile container and asked to collect a mid-stream clean catch urine specimen. Routine urinalysis are as follows.
Which of the following structures seen microscopically do the most significant chemical results of this patient’s diagnosis correlate?
WBC casts? Bacteria?
Which of the following is useful in the identification of early renal disease?
Microalbumin.
Which of the following renal function tests is most effected by muscle mass?
Creatinine Clearance.
Which conditions would likely cause an increase in ammonia levels?
Severe liver disease, Reye’s syndrome, hyperammonemia.
What are the testing methods for microalbumin?
immunodip, micral test, multistix pro, and clinitek microalbumin.
The p-aminohippuric acid (PAH) test is used to measure which of the following?
Renal plasma flow.
Which of the following conditions promotes the formation of renal calculi?
Supersaturation of chemical salts, optimal pH, urinary stasis, nucleation/initial crystal formation.
Indicate in what patient population is Type II Diabetes Mellitus most often seen.
Obese people >40 y/o.
With is the most probable diagnosis for the patient?
Acute interstitial nephritis?
What is the notable color of a urine that contains porphobilinogens?
Port-wine color.
A urine that turns black after sitting on the counter for several hours could be indicative of which of the following? NOTE: nothing has been added to the urine.
Alkapronuria.
Which of the following quantitative microalbumin results is associated with advanced kidney disease?
> 300 mg/L.
What conditions are associated with diabetes insipidus?
Neurogenic or nephrogenic defects, water not reabsorbed by tubules, very low specific gravity, increased water consumption.
What principle is the basis of the Clinitek 100 urine chemistry reader?
Photometry? Reflectance?
Match the enzyme with the type of galactosuria it causes: Type I (GALT)
Galactose-1-phosphate uridylyltransferase.
Match the enzyme with the type of galactosuria it causes: Type II (GALK).
Galactose Kinase.
Match the enzyme with the type of galactosuria it causes: Type III (GALE).
Uridine diphosphate galactose-4-epimerase.
Identify the two methodologies used for an automated microscopic analysis in urine.
Flowcell digital imaging and flow cytometry.
In which of the following conditions will the presence of both tyrosine and leucine crystals be seen?
Type II Tyrosinemia.
Which of the following analytes is seen elevated in someone who has azotemia?
Urea.
Which of the following disorders is characterized by the inability to reabsorb cystine and causes cystine crystals to be formed?
Cystinuria? Ocular cystinosis?
Select all of the following factors involved in calculating the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR).
Hydrostatic pressure, oncotic pressure, capsular hydrostatic pressure (3 pressures indicate the net filtration pressure), surface area and permeability.
Calculate the creatinine clearance for a patient of average size from the following data:
80 mL/min.
All of the following are considered types of Cystinosis?
Types of Cystinosis: 3R-nephropathic cystinosis, intermediate cystinosis, and ocular cystinosis.
Which of the following low molecular weight proteins can be tested for to determine tubular damage?
Albumin?
Using the same case from question 3, which element(s) of the chemical exam is/are most significant in suggesting the source for the patient’s symptoms?
Nitrite and leukocyte esterase.
Which of the following best describes the calculation of the glomerular filtration rate?
Takes net filtration rate, surface area, and permeability into account.
All of the following are testing methods for microalbumin?
Testing methods: immunodip, micral test, multistix pro, and clinitek microalbumin.
A rare autosomal recessive diseases that causes homogentisic acid to be excreted in the urine causes the urine to:
Alkaptonuria; have a very strong odor? Dark color?
Which of the following best describes the normal reference interval for a GFR?
> 60.
When determining the glomerular filtration rate which of the following determine the net filtration pressure?
Hydrostatic pressure, onconic pressure, and capsular hydrostatic pressure.
Which of the following best describes why creatinine is a better substance than urea to use for a renal clearance testing?
It does not get reabsorbed from the tubules and is not affected by urine flow rate.
After controlled fluid intake, the urine to serum osmolarity ratio should be at least:
3:1.
Using the cause study from question 3, what on the microscopic examination helps to distinguish this diagnosis from other similar diseases?
Nitrite and WBC casts?
In which of the following condition will the presence of both tyrosine and leucine crystals be seen?
Type II Tyrosinemia.