u18 Flashcards

1
Q

as radio waves travels away from its source, what happens to the signal, wavelength and amplitude

A

weaker
smaller amplitude
same wave length

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2
Q

LF/MF frequency
- range
- what nav aid uses these frequencies
- _______ to _______ and ________ to ______ KHz

A

30 to 3000 KHz
NDB
190-415 and 510-535 KHz

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3
Q

HF frequency
- range
- location
- how does ionosphere determine which frequency you use

A

3000 to 30 000 KHz
crossing ocean and high north
sun up, frequency up (above 5000)
sun down, frequency down (below 5000)

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4
Q

VHF frequency
- range
- 108.10 to 111.95 MHz is used for what
- 112.00 to 117.95 MHz is used for what
- 118.00 to 137.00 MHz is used for what

A

30 to 300 MHz
ILS
VOR
comms

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5
Q

UHF frequency
- range
- used for what
- used by who

A

300 to 3000 MHz
DME
military

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6
Q

what is the skip zone for sky waves

A

planes can get reception from sky waves before it hits the ionosphere
once it hits the ionosphere and bounces back to the earth, plane can’t get good receiption (skip zone)

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7
Q

at night time, does the sky wave reception distance increase or decrease and why

A

increase reception distance
night = higher ionosphere = larger range = farther reception distance

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8
Q

do higher or lower frequencies have a farther reception distance of ground waves

A

lower frequencies have farther ground wave reception distance

high frequency = hits ground more = more attenuation = smaller range

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9
Q

why are LF/MF better ground waves than VHF

A

LF/MF = lower frequency = less attenuation = better ground waves

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10
Q

which one does NOT experience precipitation static - LF/MF or VHF

A

VHF

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11
Q

what is the equation for plane line of sight (NM) to VHF

A

line of sight (NM) = 1.25 x root (AGL)

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12
Q

how does HF single side band work
- why does it transmit a stronger signal as a single side band
- how does it affect spectrum space

A

only one side band of the frequency is transmitted
more power into 1 side band instead of 2 = stronger signal
only 1 side band used so it conserves spectrum space

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13
Q

ELT broadcasts a distress signal when it senses

A

sudden deceleration

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14
Q

what frequencies does ELT emit on?

A

121.5, 243, 406 MHz

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15
Q

what does the 406 ELT transmit on 406 MHz along with the siren

A

coded identification

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16
Q

406 ELT sends your information to who following its activation

A

joint rescue coordination centre (JRCC)

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17
Q

when can you test an old ELT and for how long

A

first 5 mins of UTC hour for 5 sec

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18
Q

an ELT is required when flying farther than ____ from base

A

25 NM

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19
Q

if you’re in a crash and turn on your elt, where can you put it to boost the signal

A

up high and attached to metal

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20
Q

how often must a pilot do the operational test for an ELT

A

1yr

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21
Q

how often must a technician do a performance test for an ELT

A

2yr

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22
Q

how much power does a L(ow) NDB have

A

less than 50 watts

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23
Q

how much power does a M(edium) NDB have

A

50-2000 watts

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24
Q

how much power does a H(igh) NDB have

A

50-2000 watts

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25
Q

NDB range
specific KHz

A

190-415 and 510-535 KHz

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26
Q

how does the night effect affect NDB reception / ADF pointing

what can you do to minimize night effect

A

height of the ionosphere changes dramatically within 1hr to sunrise and sunset, which can cause the ADF pointer to fluctuate when you are very far from the station

fly at higher altitude, use lower frequency

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27
Q

how do mountains affect NDB reception / ADF pointing

A

mountains reflect radio waves
magnetic deposits can mess with pointer

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28
Q

how do shorelines affect NDB reception / ADF pointing

at what angle should you approach the shoreline when flying over water to the NDB to minimize this effect

A

shorelines can bend LF radio waves when passing from land to water

don’t use NDB signal if your angle to the shoreline is less than 30º

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29
Q

how do electrical storms affect NDB reception / ADF pointing

A

ADF pointer will point to lightning

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30
Q

how does precipitation static affect NDB reception / ADF pointing

what can the pilot do to reduce precipitation static

A

heavy rain and snow causes static on the plane so ADF doesn’t know where to point since theres static every where

reduce airspeed

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31
Q

how does bank angle affect NDB reception / ADF pointing

A

when in a bank, the antenna isn’t parallel to incoming signal anymore = error

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32
Q

if homing to a NDB station (adf pointer) and there’s a strong cross wind, how will this affect your track

A

you’ll fly a curved route

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33
Q

does NDB have a shorter or farther range than VOR

A

farther range

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34
Q

what is the frequency for VOR

A

112 to 117.95 MHz

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35
Q

is VHF affected by precipitation static or other weather interference

A

no

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36
Q

the farther you are from the station, the _______ the area of ambiguity

A

wider

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37
Q

when testing a VOR, spin the obs to 180. the CDI must centre +/- ____º with a ____ flag

A


TO

think cessna 182

38
Q

when testing a VOR, spin the obs to 360. the CDI must centre +/- ____º with a ____ flag

39
Q

when testing your VOR at the airport test sign checkpoint, the VOR must be within +/- ____º and the DME must be within _____ NM

40
Q

when testing your VOR by flying over a town with a VOR published radial on the map, your VOR must be within +/- ____º

41
Q

the RMI can used a slaved or free gyro system, what does this mean?

and when the gyro is slaved, what is the heading indicator connected to

A

slaved = HI connected to compass via flux valve

free = HI manually reset by pilot

42
Q

what does DME provide

A

slant distance to station (NM) and sometimes ground speed

43
Q

DME operates in what frequency band

44
Q

how does DME work

A

you send signal to DME station
DME sends signal back
we measure the time between sent and received signal to get distance

45
Q

the closer to the station, the _________ the distance error using a DME

46
Q

slant distance errors for DME greatest when you are where (x2 places)

A

directly overhead station
high altitudes

47
Q

if flying a DME arc, what will the DME say your ground sped is and why

A

0 KT

since you’re flying a perfect circle around the DME station, your distance isn’t getting closer/farther from the station

48
Q

the GPS satellite group has _____ satellites that orbit around the earth _____ times per day

A

24 satellites
x2 orbits per day

49
Q

GPS position is based on measuring the _____ it takes for the signal to reach the receiver, then it calculates the ______ between satellites to get your position. this is called _________

A

time
distance
trilateralation

50
Q

it takes _____ satellites to get a 3D image

51
Q

each GPS satellite has ____ atomic clocks to ensure the timing is perfect

52
Q

is GPS affected by weather

53
Q

95% of the time, GPS is accurate _____m horizontal x ____m vertical

54
Q

WAAS
- stands for
- what does it do

A

wide area augmentation system

ground stations send ionosphere correction to satellite so it’s more accurate when tracking you on your xc

55
Q

LAAS
- stands for
- what’s it used for

A

local area augmentation system

ground station at airport that gives an accurate, local ionosphere correction so when you’re on approach/ILS at that airport your distances are super accurate

56
Q

what does it mean that a navigation system must have strong integrity

A

system will warn the pilot that something is wrong with it within seconds

57
Q

RAIM
- stands for
- how does it work
- how many satellites

A

receiver autonomous integrity monitoring
compares scans of different combinations of satellites so you can easily tell if one satellite is broadcasting wrong data
5+ satellites

58
Q

what is RAIM + Baroaiding
- what does baroaiding do
- how many satellites used

A

planes static system gives vertical reference to your position in space
4 satellites (less)

59
Q

what is FDE
- how many satellites
- can it work with a faulty satellite

A

fault detection & exclusion
6 satellites
still works with a faulty satellite

60
Q

only a GPS with ___________ is approved for IFT flights because it has _________ integrity warnings if something goes wrong with the system

A

TSO C-129
RAIM

61
Q

what is a VDF steer

  • what does it mean when ATC asks you to transmit for bearing
A

ATC uses planes radio signal to help them get un lost

say your call sign slowly for 5 sec

62
Q

does primary or secondary radar detect planes, weather, birds…

63
Q

secondary radar requires what in order to detect you

A

transponder

64
Q

the CDI for RNAV shows _______ off track

the CDI for VOR/ADF shows _______ off track

A

RNAV = distance off track

VOR = degrees off track

65
Q

the inertial navigation system (INS) has what 3 things to give you position, altitude, heading, ETA, speed, other information…

how accurate is it

accuracy decays by ______ NM per hour so must do position updates to ensure alignment throughout entire flight

does it require ground stations to work (VOR, NDB, etc)

A

inertial platform + accelerometers + computer

as accurate as your first initial programming

decays 1-2 NM per hour

no, it’s internal (plane itself) system

66
Q

the flight management system (FMS) is like a multi sensor RNAV,

it uses ______, ______ and ________ data from multiple sensors to make the best route

does it require ground stations to work

A

navigation, atmosphere and fuel flow data

yes

67
Q

TACAN
- who uses it
- what frequency
- what can civilians get from a TACAN

A

military
UHF
DME information only

68
Q

how does a radar altimeter work

when is it not accurate

A

radar on belly of plane broadcasts signal, bounces off ground, hits plane = distance AGL

not accurate over water

69
Q

what is the precision approach radar (PAR)

A

ATC has a horizontal and vertical screen to guide you for landing
military only

70
Q

when a pilot isn’t using the flight director system (arrows that tell you to follow this action), the pilot is using _______

71
Q

the altitude warning system warns the pilot when there’s a _____ ft deviation

72
Q

the traffic alert and collision avoidance system (TCAS) uses _______ data and voice prompts if there’s a change of collision

what does it require

A

secondary radar

transponder

73
Q

what is dependent (procedural) surveillance

A

pilot self reports position

74
Q

a transponder has a _____, ______ and _______ antenna on belly of plane

A

controller
transmitter/reciever
L-band antenna

75
Q

mode A transponder gives you what information

76
Q

mode C transponder gives you what information

A

position + pressure altitude

77
Q

mode S transponder gives you what information

A

position, pressure altitude, extra data + unique signature

78
Q

transponder code ______ for IFR below 18 000 ASL

79
Q

transponder code ______ for IFR at or above 18 000 ASL

80
Q

transponder code 1200 for what

A

VFR below 12 500

81
Q

transponder code 1400 for what

A

VFR above 12 500 ASL

82
Q

what kind of transponder is needed for traffic and collision avoidance system (TCAS) for airliners

83
Q

how does ADS-B work

what kind of transponder do you need

does it need ground radar to know your position

A

satellite tells your plane position -> your plane sends information to ATC and nearby planes

mode S

no, you know your position from the satellites not a ground stations

84
Q

Aireon is a satellite ADS-B organization and has ______ Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellites

85
Q

UAT
- what does it stand for
- what frequency
- altitude it’s for
- what information can it get

A

universal access transverse
978 MHz
below 18 000 ASL
weather and traffic

86
Q

1090 ES
- what does it stand for
- what transponder must you have
- what frequency
- altitude
- what information can it get

A

mode s extended squitter transponder
1090 MHz
above 18 000 ASL
traffic only - no weather

87
Q

what equipment do you need for ADS-B?

A
  1. WAAS GPS reciever (how you get your position)
  2. mode S extended squitter transponder
    or
    mode C or S transponder with UAT
88
Q

is ADS-B In or Out required for USA

A

ADS-B Out (so everyone knows your location)

89
Q

does 1090ES ADS-B In
or
978UAT ADS-B In

get traffic AND weather information

90
Q

the traffic information service (TIS-B) that the ground station gives to you will give you traffic within _____NM diameter and _______ ft high

A

300 NM

3000 ft

91
Q

how many receiving units are required from Multilaterataion (MLAT) to get your horizontal position