Typical Development Flashcards

Week 2

1
Q

What are the five major theories of child development?

A

Neuromaturational, Cognitive (Behavioral), Dynamic Systems, Neuronal Group Selection, Ecological Systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the Neuromaturational Theory?

A

Suggests development follows a set, invariant sequence based on CNS maturation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which standardized test aligns with the Neuromaturational Model?

A

Bayley Scales of Infant Development (BSID-4).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the primary assumption of the Neuromaturational Model?

A

Motor skills emerge as a result of CNS maturation; environment plays a secondary role.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the Cognitive (Behavioral) Theory of development?

A

Based on stimulus-response; behavior is shaped by environmental reinforcement and conditioning (Skinner, Pavlov).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the Dynamic Systems Theory of development?

A

Motor behavior emerges from the interaction of multiple subsystems, including infant, environment, and task.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does the Neuronal Group Selection Theory explain motor development?

A

It emphasizes genetic and experience-driven variability, including primary and secondary variability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the Ecological Systems Theory of development?

A

A child’s development is influenced by overlapping ecological systems: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, chronosystem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which developmental theory is considered the most contemporary?

A

Dynamic Systems Approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the main directions of motor development?

A

Cephalocaudal (head to toe), proximal to distal, medial to lateral, generalized to localized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the key gross motor milestones at 1-6 months?

A

1M: Clears airway in prone; 4M: Rolls supine to side; 6M: Sits independently.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When does prone on elbows typically emerge?

A

At around 3 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When does independent standing typically emerge?

A

Between 11-12 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are red flags in gross motor development?

A

Persistent head lag beyond 4M, hand fisting beyond 4M, unable to sit by 9M, unable to walk by 18M.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

At what age do infants typically transition from army crawling to creeping?

A

Army crawling: 7-8 months, Creeping: 9-10 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When does a child typically begin cruising?

A

At around 10 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the difference between creeping and crawling?

A

Crawling (army crawling) occurs with belly on the ground, creeping is on hands and knees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When does goal-directed reaching typically develop?

A

Between 3-6 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the three-jaw chuck grasp and when does it develop?

A

A grasp using the thumb and first two fingers, developing around 10 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the stages of pencil grasp progression?

A

Palmar-supinate grasp, digital-palmar grasp, static tripod, dynamic tripod.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When do infants typically begin self-feeding?

A

Finger feeding by 12-15 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are red flags in fine motor development?

A

Hand preference before 12 months, persistent hand fisting beyond 4 months, asymmetrical Moro reflex at any age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

At what age does babbling typically begin?

A

Around 4-5 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When do repetitive consonant sounds like ‘mama’ and ‘dada’ emerge?

A

At 10 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are common language milestones at 12 months?

A

Can name 3 body parts, imitate names of familiar objects, follow simple commands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When does a child typically start using two-word combinations?

A

Between 18-24 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the three types of play at age 2?

A

Exploratory play, parallel play, social play.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are red flags for cognitive/language development?

A

Lack of reciprocal vocalization by 10M, <50 word vocabulary at 24M, lack of eye contact, loss of previously acquired skills.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the difference between reflexes and reactions?

A

Reflexes are simple and predictable; reactions are more complex and inconsistent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the two groupings of reflexes?

A

Primitive Reflexes (present at birth) and Automatic Reflexes (develop in first 2 years).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the Plantar Grasp Reflex and its significance?

A

Stimulus: Pressure on foot; Response: Toe flexion; If not integrated, can impact walking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the Moro Reflex and why is it important?

A

Stimulus: Sudden head drop; Response: Arm extension then flexion; Important for first breath and survival instincts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the Rooting Reflex and its function?

A

Stimulus: Stroke side of mouth; Response: Baby turns toward stimulus; Helps with feeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the Babinski Reflex and when should it disappear?

A

Stimulus: Stroke sole of foot; Response: Toe extension and fanning; Should disappear by 12 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the ATNR (Asymmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex) and its impact if retained?

A

Stimulus: Turning head to one side; Response: Extension of limbs on face side, flexion on opposite side; If retained, can interfere with midline activities and hand-eye coordination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the STNR (Symmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex) and its impact if retained?

A

Stimulus: Head flexion or extension; Response: Flexion of arms/extension of legs (or vice versa); If retained, can interfere with crawling and posture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the Landau Reflex and when does it appear?

A

Stimulus: Hold baby in prone suspension; Response: Extension of neck, trunk, and legs (‘superman’); Appears at 3-4 months and integrates by 1-2 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the Alberta Infant Motor Scales (AIMS)?

A

A norm-referenced assessment for gross motor development in infants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What positions are observed in AIMS?

A

Prone, supine, sitting, standing.

40
Q

What are key descriptors in AIMS assessment?

A

Weight-bearing (WB), postural alignment, antigravity movements (AGM).

41
Q

What percentile is concerning on AIMS at 4 months?

A

<10th percentile.

42
Q

What percentile is concerning on AIMS at 8 months?

A

<5th percentile.

43
Q

What standardized tests assess motor development?

A

Peabody, Bayley, AIMS, PEDI, SFA.

44
Q

What are equilibrium reactions and when do they develop?

A

Counter-movements to maintain balance; Prone: 6M, Supine: 7-8M, Sitting: 7-8M, Quadruped: 9-12M, Standing: 12-24M.

45
Q

What are protective reactions and when do they emerge?

A

Front: 6-7M, Side: 7-8M, Back: 9M, Downward: 4M, Stepping: 15-17M.

46
Q

How does the Dynamic Systems Theory differ from the Neuromaturational Theory?

A

Dynamic Systems Theory considers multiple interacting subsystems influencing development, while Neuromaturational Theory emphasizes CNS maturation as the primary driver.

47
Q

What are intrinsic vs. extrinsic factors in motor development?

A

Intrinsic: muscle properties, neurological state; Extrinsic: environment, parental interaction, task demands.

48
Q

What is ‘primary variability’ in the Neuronal Group Selection Theory?

A

Initial motor patterns are genetically driven and variable, allowing for exploration.

49
Q

What is ‘secondary variability’ in the Neuronal Group Selection Theory?

A

Motor patterns become more refined and efficient through experience and practice.

50
Q

How does the Ecological Systems Theory relate to pediatric PT?

A

It emphasizes how family, school, and society influence child development and function.

51
Q

What gross motor milestone is expected at 18 months?

A

Walking backward.

52
Q

What gross motor skill develops at 24 months?

A

Jumping forward 4 inches.

53
Q

When does stair climbing with alternating feet typically develop?

A

27 months with railing, 36 months without railing.

54
Q

When do children typically begin skipping?

A

Between 4-5 years old

55
Q

What is the difference between a superior pincer grasp and an inferior pincer grasp?

A

Superior: Tip of thumb and index finger; Inferior: Pads of thumb and index finger.

56
Q

When does a child begin to use a palmar-supinate grasp for writing?

A

Around 12-15 months.

57
Q

What is a red flag for fine motor development at 12 months?

A

Not using a pincer grasp or persistent fisting.

58
Q

What is joint attention and why is it important?

A

Shared focus between child and caregiver, crucial for language and social development.

59
Q

What type of play predominates at age 3?

A

Associative play—children engage in separate activities but interact with each other.

60
Q

What is the difference between expressive and receptive language?

A

Expressive: Ability to produce language; Receptive: Ability to understand language.

61
Q

At what age should the Moro Reflex integrate?

A

4-6 months.

62
Q

What is the purpose of the Landau Reflex?

A

Breaks up flexor dominance and facilitates prone extension.

63
Q

Which reflex is an early indicator of cerebral palsy if retained?

A

Asymmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex (ATNR).

64
Q

What does a percentile rank below the 5th percentile on AIMS indicate?

A

Potential gross motor delay requiring further assessment.

65
Q

Why does AIMS use an observational approach?

A

Minimizes handling and allows assessment of natural movements.

66
Q

What is the purpose of equilibrium reactions?

A

To maintain balance when the center of mass is displaced.

67
Q

At what age does the backward protective response emerge?

A

At 9 months.

68
Q

Why is the concept of adjusted age important in pediatric assessment?

A

It accounts for prematurity when evaluating developmental milestones.

69
Q

What is the significance of antigravity control in development?

A

It allows for postural stability and independent movement progression.

70
Q

What is the purpose of the Alberta Infant Motor Scale (AIMS)?

A

A norm-referenced observational tool assessing gross motor development in infants from birth to independent walking.

71
Q

What positions are assessed in the AIMS?

A

Prone, supine, sitting, and standing.

72
Q

What is the Peabody Developmental Motor Scales (PDMS-2)?

A

A norm-referenced test that evaluates fine and gross motor skills in children from birth to 5 years old.

73
Q

What are the six subtests of the PDMS-2?

A

Reflexes, Stationary, Locomotion, Object Manipulation, Grasping, and Visual-Motor Integration.

74
Q

What is a key advantage of the PDMS-2?

A

Provides both fine and gross motor composite scores, making it useful for tracking motor development over time.

75
Q

What is the Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development (BSID-4)?

A

A standardized test that assesses cognitive, language, motor, social-emotional, and adaptive behavior development in children aged 1 to 42 months.

76
Q

Which domains does the Bayley assess?

A

Cognitive, Language, Motor, Social-Emotional, and Adaptive Behavior.

77
Q

What is a limitation of the Bayley?

A

It requires trained examiners and can be time-consuming to administer.

78
Q

What is the Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Inventory (PEDI)?

A

A norm- and criterion-referenced tool that assesses self-care, mobility, and social function in children aged 6 months to 7.5 years.

79
Q

What type of scoring does the PEDI use?

A

Measures functional skills, caregiver assistance, and environmental modifications.

80
Q

What is the School Function Assessment (SFA)?

A

A criterion-referenced assessment that evaluates participation, task supports, and activity performance in school-aged children.

81
Q

What is the primary purpose of the SFA?

A

To assess a child’s ability to function within a school environment and identify areas needing support.

82
Q

What is the Gross Motor Function Measure (GMFM)?

A

A criterion-referenced assessment designed to evaluate gross motor function in children with cerebral palsy and Down syndrome.

83
Q

How is the GMFM scored?

A

Scores are based on the percentage of tasks completed in five dimensions: lying/rolling, sitting, crawling/kneeling, standing, and walking/running/jumping.

84
Q

What is the primary use of the GMFM?

A

Tracking motor function changes over time in children with motor impairments.

85
Q

What is the Wee-FIM?

A

A pediatric adaptation of the Functional Independence Measure (FIM) that assesses self-care, mobility, and cognition in children with disabilities.

86
Q

How is the Wee-FIM scored?

A

A 7-level scale evaluating independence in activities of daily living (ADLs).

87
Q

What is the Test of Infant Motor Performance (TIMP)?

A

An assessment tool for preterm and full-term infants aged 34 weeks gestational age to 4 months post-term, measuring motor control and early postural development.

88
Q

What is a unique feature of the TIMP?

A

It is predictive of later motor outcomes and often used in the NICU.

89
Q

What is the Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2)?

A

A norm-referenced assessment that evaluates fine and gross motor skills in children aged 4-21 years.

90
Q

What are the subtests of the BOT-2?

A

Fine Manual Control, Manual Coordination, Body Coordination, and Strength/Agility.

91
Q

What is a key advantage of the BOT-2?

A

It is useful for assessing children with coordination disorders and developmental delays.

92
Q

What is the Sensory Profile?

A

A parent/caregiver questionnaire that assesses sensory processing patterns in children.

93
Q

What are the main sensory processing areas assessed in the Sensory Profile?

A

Sensory modulation, sensory discrimination, and sensory-based motor performance.

94
Q

What is the Ages and Stages Questionnaire (ASQ)?

A

A parent-completed screening tool used to identify developmental delays in children aged 1 month to 5.5 years.

95
Q

What domains does the ASQ assess?

A

Communication, Gross Motor, Fine Motor, Problem-Solving, and Personal-Social skills.