Torticollis, Cranial Deformation, DDH, Development of MSK System Flashcards

Week 4

1
Q

What are the key events in trunk alignment development in infancy?

A

Neonatal kyphosis resolves, spinal curves develop, and postural control emerges through weight shifts and movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why is skull-side weight shifting important in prone?

A

It promotes lateral head and trunk righting, facilitating early rolling, belly crawling, and reaching.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the three primary co-existing processes in postural control development?

A

Postural control, physiologic adaptation, and functioning muscle couples based on use history.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the golden age of skeletal modeling?

A

The first 2 years of life when bones are highly responsive to mechanical loads and movement patterns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What key changes occur in the hip during the first year?

A

Coxa valga decreases, femoral antetorsion reduces, and hip joint congruency improves with weight-bearing activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does the knee alignment change in the first three years?

A

Newborns have genu varum, which transitions to genu valgum around age 2-3 before stabilizing in adulthood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What ankle and foot changes support independent walking?

A

Metatarsus adductus resolves, medial longitudinal arch develops, and ankle dorsiflexion range decreases to functional levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the key aspects of early walking?

A

Wide base of support, high cadence, short step length, and lack of heel strike.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does walking mature over time?

A

By age 3, children develop narrower bases of support, improved single-limb stance time, and refined heel-to-toe gait patterns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What role do lateral weight shifts play in gait development?

A

They allow for efficient limb advancement, weight acceptance, and postural stability in walking and cruising.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is CMT?

A

Unilateral shortening of the SCM muscle leading to lateral neck flexion toward the involved side and rotation away.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the three types of CMT?

A

Postural CMT (no PROM restrictions), Muscular CMT (SCM tightness with PROM restrictions), SCM Mass CMT (fibrotic mass in SCM).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are risk factors for CMT?

A

Intrauterine positioning, multiple births, difficult delivery, and ‘container syndrome’ from prolonged supine positioning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What impairments are associated with CMT?

A

Limited cervical ROM, asymmetric postural control, craniofacial asymmetry, and potential gross motor delays.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What activity limitations may be seen in CMT?

A

Asymmetrical reaching, rolling, sitting posture, and delayed gross motor skills.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are red flags indicating referral in CMT?

A

Poor visual tracking, abnormal tone, inconsistent asymmetry, or lack of progress after 4-6 weeks of PT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What interventions are used for CMT?

A

Stretching, strengthening, repositioning, caregiver education, and orthotic interventions (TOT collar if needed).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is plagiocephaly?

A

A cranial deformity characterized by asymmetrical skull flattening, often associated with CMT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is brachycephaly?

A

A cranial shape characterized by a short, wide head due to prolonged supine positioning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is scaphocephaly?

A

A long, narrow head shape due to restricted positioning, commonly seen in preterm infants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is plagiocephaly classified?

A

Using the Argenta Classification System, which grades severity based on skull and facial asymmetries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What interventions help improve plagiocephaly?

A

Tummy time, repositioning strategies, and orthotic cranial remolding helmets for moderate to severe cases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is DDH?

A

Abnormal development of the hip joint, including subluxation, dislocation, or dysplasia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are risk factors for DDH?

A

Breech presentation, family history, female gender, and first-born status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What clinical tests assess DDH in infants?

A

Ortolani test (reduces a dislocated hip), Barlow test (provokes hip instability), and Galeazzi sign (leg length discrepancy).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the most effective conservative intervention for DDH?

A

Pavlik harness, which maintains the femoral head in the acetabulum to promote normal hip development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When is surgical intervention indicated for DDH?

A

For infants older than 6 months with persistent hip dislocation or if conservative treatment fails.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How does early intervention impact orthopedic development?

A

It improves alignment, prevents compensatory movement patterns, and enhances lifelong function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the relationship between CMT and plagiocephaly?

A

Restricted head movement in CMT can lead to positional plagiocephaly due to prolonged pressure on one side of the skull.

30
Q

Why is tummy time important in infancy?

A

It promotes cervical extension, strengthens postural muscles, and reduces the risk of plagiocephaly and CMT.

31
Q

What principles guide orthopedic assessment in pediatric PT?

A

Observing alignment in multiple positions, analyzing weight shifts, and screening for developmental delays.

32
Q

What is the first major postural control milestone?

A

Head control in prone and supine, achieved by 2-4 months.

33
Q

How does prone positioning impact trunk development?

A

Encourages scapular stability, spinal extension, and lateral weight shifting for rolling.

34
Q

What role do righting reactions play in postural control?

A

They help maintain head and body alignment in different positions, crucial for sitting and standing.

35
Q

How does the center of mass shift as a child develops?

A

Moves from high in the thorax at birth to lower in the pelvis as postural stability improves.

36
Q

What postural control milestone is key for independent sitting?

A

Development of trunk extension and rotation by 6-8 months.

37
Q

Why do newborns have physiologic hip flexion contractures?

A

Due to intrauterine positioning, gradually decreasing with movement and weight-bearing.

38
Q

What role does kicking play in lower extremity development?

A

Strengthens hip extensors and abductors, essential for standing and walking.

39
Q

How does femoral torsion change in infancy?

A

Femoral anteversion reduces from ~40° at birth to ~10-15° in adulthood.

40
Q

What are the three primary factors influencing lower limb alignment changes?

A

Growth, weight-bearing, and muscle activation.

41
Q

How does the calcaneus change during early childhood?

A

Newborns have a valgus alignment that gradually straightens as gait matures.

42
Q

What are the six determinants of mature walking?

A

Pelvic rotation, pelvic tilt, knee flexion in stance, foot and ankle motion, step width, and cadence.

43
Q

How does step width change with age?

A

Decreases as postural control and balance improve.

44
Q

What is the typical cadence for a new walker?

A

High cadence (~180 steps/min) with short step length.

45
Q

How do initial contact patterns change with walking experience?

A

Transitions from flat-foot contact to heel strike by 2-3 years.

46
Q

What are common atypical gait characteristics in early walkers?

A

Toe-walking, knee hyperextension, and excessive trunk sway.

47
Q

What are key gait characteristics of children with developmental delays?

A

Delayed emergence of reciprocal arm swing, decreased push-off, and excessive hip abduction.

48
Q

What cranial deformity is most commonly associated with CMT?

A

Plagiocephaly due to preferential head positioning.

49
Q

What are the three grades of CMT severity?

A

Mild (postural asymmetry), Moderate (limited rotation and lateral flexion), Severe (fibrotic SCM mass).

50
Q

How does sternocleidomastoid tightness impact gross motor skills?

A

Affects rolling, sitting symmetry, and early weight shifts for mobility.

51
Q

What is the recommended treatment duration for CMT?

A

Typically 3-6 months, depending on severity and early intervention.

52
Q

What interventions help address persistent CMT cases?

A

TOT collar, kinesiotaping, caregiver repositioning strategies, and stretching.

53
Q

What is the difference between positional plagiocephaly and craniosynostosis?

A

Plagiocephaly is caused by external forces; craniosynostosis is premature skull suture closure.

54
Q

What are the risk factors for developing plagiocephaly?

A

Prolonged supine positioning, CMT, multiple births, and limited tummy time.

55
Q

What are the clinical signs of severe plagiocephaly?

A

Asymmetrical ear alignment, forehead prominence, and facial asymmetry.

56
Q

At what age is cranial remolding orthosis most effective?

A

Between 4-6 months, when skull growth is most active.

57
Q

What is a key criterion for referring an infant for a cranial helmet?

A

Moderate to severe asymmetry (>10 mm difference between skull sides).

58
Q

How is DDH severity classified?

A

Mild (hip instability), Moderate (subluxation), Severe (complete dislocation).

59
Q

What imaging is used to confirm DDH in infants <6 months old?

A

Ultrasound, as the hip joint is mostly cartilaginous and not well-visualized on X-ray.

60
Q

What are late signs of undiagnosed DDH in older infants?

A

Asymmetric gluteal folds, leg length discrepancy, and Trendelenburg gait.

61
Q

Why is early detection of DDH critical?

A

Late diagnosis increases the need for invasive interventions like closed reduction and spica casting.

62
Q

How does Pavlik harness positioning promote hip development?

A

Maintains hips in flexion and abduction, allowing proper femoral head seating in the acetabulum.

63
Q

What family-centered interventions are key for early motor development?

A

Encouraging active movement, caregiver education on positioning, and minimizing prolonged supine time.

64
Q

What is the impact of early weight-bearing on musculoskeletal development?

A

Stimulates bone growth, joint alignment, and muscle strengthening.

65
Q

How does crawling influence musculoskeletal and postural control?

A

Develops reciprocal limb coordination, strengthens core muscles, and improves trunk stability.

66
Q

What are common red flags for referral in pediatric orthopedic development?

A

Persistent asymmetries, delayed gross motor milestones, abnormal muscle tone, and joint instability.

67
Q

What is the role of PT in early detection of orthopedic conditions?

A

Screening, parent education, developmental monitoring, and facilitating referrals for medical management.

68
Q

What is the angle of antetorsion in a newborn vs adult?

A

Newborn: 40°
Adult: 16°

69
Q

What are the normal measurements at the pelvis, femur, hip (AOE), and resultant postural in the frontal planes?

A

Pelvis - AIS ~31°
Femur: Coxa Valga ~150°
Hip Joint: Angle of Entry: 90° (+/- 2°)
Resultant Postural - Femoral Abduction ~9°

70
Q

What are the Leg Length Rx Guidelines for Tx?

A

0-2 cm- no treatment
2-4 cm- shoe lift
2-6 cm- epiphyseodesis
6-20 cm- limb lengthening
>20 cm- prosthetic fitting

71
Q

How does the infant reduce coxa valga?

A

glute med starting around 3 months of age