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AAA-ANESTHESIOLOGY > TYPES OF ANESTHESIA: LOCAL, REGIONAL, GENERAL (Part 1) > Flashcards

TYPES OF ANESTHESIA: LOCAL, REGIONAL, GENERAL (Part 1) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four types of anesthesia as defined by the American Society of Anesthesiologists?

A

General Anesthesia (GA), Regional Anesthesia (RA), Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC), Local Anesthesia (LA)

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2
Q

What are the two main categories of general anesthesia?

A

Intravenous Anesthesia and Inhalational/Volatile (Gas) Anesthesia

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3
Q

What are the two categories of Regional Anesthesia?

A

Central Nerve Blocks (Neuraxial Anesthesia) and Peripheral Nerve Blocks

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4
Q

What are the three types of Central Nerve Blocks?

A

Spinal Anesthesia, Epidural Anesthesia, Caudal Anesthesia

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5
Q

Name two examples of Peripheral Nerve Blocks.

A

Digital Nerve Block and Dorsal Penile Nerve Block

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6
Q

What is Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC)?

A

A type of anesthesia that involves sedation and monitoring without loss of consciousness

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7
Q

What is the only inhalational anesthetic that can be used solely as an induction agent?

A

Sevoflurane

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8
Q

Name two drugs used for Rapid Sequence Induction (RSI).

A

Succinylcholine and Rocuronium

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9
Q

What are the five steps in the conduct of general anesthesia?

A

Preoxygenation, Induction, Intubation, Maintenance, Reversal and Emergence

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10
Q

What are the basic tools for intubation?

A

Macintosh and Miller laryngoscope blades

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11
Q

What is the purpose of the anesthesia machine?

A

To provide oxygenation, ventilation, and administration of inhaled anesthetics

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12
Q

What is Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC)?

A

The concentration of an inhalational anesthetic at which 50% of patients will not respond to a surgical stimulus

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13
Q

How does MAC change with age?

A

MAC decreases by 6% per decade of age

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14
Q

Name the three agents used to reverse non-depolarizing muscle relaxants.

A

Neostigmine, Edrophonium, Glycopyrrolate

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15
Q

What is the reversal agent for rocuronium and vecuronium?

A

Sugammadex

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16
Q

What is the sensory nerve supply of the airway?

A

Trigeminal nerve, Glossopharyngeal nerve, and Vagus nerve

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17
Q

What is the effect of unilateral superior laryngeal nerve injury?

A

Minimal effect or subtle clinical findings

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18
Q

What is the effect of bilateral superior laryngeal nerve injury?

A

Hoarseness or easy tiring of the voice

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19
Q

What is the effect of unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury?

A

Hoarseness

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20
Q

What is the effect of bilateral acute recurrent laryngeal nerve injury?

A

Stridor and respiratory distress

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21
Q

What is the effect of bilateral chronic recurrent laryngeal nerve injury?

A

Aphonia

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22
Q

What is the effect of unilateral vagus nerve injury?

A

Hoarseness

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23
Q

What is the effect of bilateral vagus nerve injury?

A

Aphonia

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24
Q

Which nerve injury is most likely to cause respiratory distress?

A

Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury

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25
What drug is commonly used in Total Intravenous Anesthesia (TIVA) as both an induction and maintenance agent?
Propofol
26
What is the purpose of preoxygenation in general anesthesia?
To increase oxygen reserves and prevent hypoxia during induction
27
What is the cricothyroid membrane used for in airway management?
It is incised during a surgical airway if intubation is impossible
28
Which sedation level involves reducing anxiety without affecting consciousness?
Minimum sedation (anxiolysis)
29
Which sedation level is typically used for procedures like colonoscopy or endoscopy?
Deep sedation
30
What are the four key parameters used to classify levels of sedation?
Responsiveness, Airway Management, Spontaneous Ventilation, Cardiovascular Function
31
What is the normal interincisal distance for a proper mouth opening in preanesthetic airway assessment?
3 cm or more
32
What is the ideal thyromental distance for airway assessment?
Greater than 3 cm
33
What neck circumference is associated with difficulty visualizing the glottic opening?
Greater than 17 cm
34
What is the Mallampati classification used for?
To assess tongue size in relation to the oral cavity
35
What is visible in Class I of the Mallampati classification?
The entire palatal arch, including bilateral faucial pillars, down to the bases of the pillars
36
What is visible in Class II of the Mallampati classification?
The upper part of the faucial pillars and most of the uvula
37
What is visible in Class III of the Mallampati classification?
Only the soft and hard palates
38
What is visible in Class IV of the Mallampati classification?
Only the hard palate
39
What does Class I in the Mallampati classification indicate?
An easy intubation
40
What is the purpose of the Cormack-Lehane classification?
To assess the view of the larynx and vocal cords during intubation
41
What is SARI in airway assessment?
Simplified Airway Risk Index, a multivariable risk model of seven independent risk factors for difficult intubation
42
What routine equipment is needed for airway management?
Oxygen source, bag and mask, laryngoscopes, endotracheal tubes, suction machine, pulse oximeter, capnometry, and more
43
What sizes of endotracheal tubes (ETTs) should be prepared?
The approximate size for the patient, one size larger, and one size smaller
44
What is a Guedel airway?
An oropharyngeal airway (OPA) invented by Dr. Guedel
45
How is a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) inserted?
Using a vasoconstrictor spray or lidocaine
46
What position is recommended for airway management in obese patients?
Ramped position
47
What is the sniffing position used for in airway management?
To align the oral, pharyngeal, and laryngeal axes for easier intubation
48
What is the purpose of preoxygenation before airway management?
To denitrogenate and increase oxygen reserves, improving apnea duration without desaturation
49
What is the primary purpose of bag and mask ventilation (BMV)?
To ventilate the patient after preoxygenation, except in cases like RSI or awake intubations
50
What are supraglottic airway devices (SGAs) used for?
As conduits for endotracheal intubations or as rescue airways during anesthesia
51
Who introduced laryngeal mask airways (LMAs) in 1983?
Dr. Archi Brain
52
What are the main indications for endotracheal intubation?
Airway protection, general anesthesia, ventilator management, and resuscitation
53
What are the standard ETT sizes for adult males and females?
7.5–9.0 mm for males, 7.0–7.5 mm for females
54
What is the purpose of a double-lumen ETT?
To ventilate each lung independently during thoracic surgery
55
What is a flexible fiberoptic bronchoscope used for?
For intubation in patients with problematic airways or small mouth openings
56
What are the steps for endotracheal intubation?
Open the mouth, sweep the tongue, visualize the vocal cords, insert the ETT, inflate the cuff, and secure the tube
57
When is nasotracheal intubation indicated?
When oral intubation is difficult or contraindicated
58
What spray can be used to prepare the nasal passages for nasotracheal intubation?
Phenylephrine (0.5% or 0.25%)
59
What are the advantages of fiberoptic intubation (FOI)?
Minimizing cervical spine movement, managing small mouth openings, and avoiding airway obstructions
60
When is a surgical airway required?
In 'can't intubate, can't ventilate' (CICO) scenarios
61
What is the purpose of transtracheal catheter jet ventilation?
To provide oxygenation in emergencies using short bursts of oxygen
62
What is the significance of the cricothyroid membrane in airway management?
It is incised during surgical cricothyroidectomy if intubation is impossible
63
What is retrograde intubation?
A wire-guided intubation technique using the cricothyroid membrane for ETT placement
64
What type of laryngoscope is used for difficult intubations?
Videolaryngoscopes or fiberoptic bronchoscope
65
What is the purpose of preoxygenation in patients with compromised airways?
To ensure oxygen reserves and prevent desaturation during apnea
66
What factors increase airway management difficulty?
Obesity, limited neck movement, small mouth opening, and anatomical abnormalities
67
How is a laryngeal mask airway (LMA) inserted?
By pressing the mask against the hard palate and advancing it into the pharynx
68
What is the Simplified Airway Risk Index (SARI) designed to assess?
Risk factors for difficult intubation
69
What is the main use of supraglottic airway devices during positive pressure ventilation?
To maintain a high airway seal pressure
70
What is the main function of a nasopharyngeal airway?
To maintain airway patency through the nasal cavity
71
What is the most severe consequence of bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury?
Stridor and respiratory distress
72
What happens with unilateral vagus nerve injury?
Hoarseness
73
What technique is used for bag and mask ventilation when a single operator is present?
One-handed face mask technique
74
Who introduced videolaryngoscopy classification?
Healy et al., in 2012

AAA-ANESTHESIOLOGY (14 decks)

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