PREOPERATIVE EVALUATION AND PREPARATION (based on T) Flashcards

1
Q

What organization developed the Basic Standards for Preanesthesia Care?

A

The American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA), adopted by the Philippine Society of Anesthesiologists.

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2
Q

What is the responsibility of the anesthesiologist in preanesthesia care?

A

Determining the patient’s medical status and developing an anesthesia care plan.

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3
Q

What should the anesthesiologist review before anesthesia?

A

Medical records, patient history, physical exam, relevant tests, and consultations.

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4
Q

What is included in the patient interview for preanesthesia care?

A

Discussion of medical history, past anesthetic experiences, surgical history, and medical therapy.

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5
Q

Why is physical examination important in preanesthesia evaluation?

A

To assess perioperative risk and management, including airway assessment and spinal/epidural feasibility.

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6
Q

What tests or consultations should the anesthesiologist review?

A

Pertinent available tests and necessary consultations for anesthesia care.

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7
Q

What medications may be ordered preoperatively?

A

Preemptive analgesia and antibiotics.

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8
Q

What should be included in the informed consent for anesthesia?

A

The anesthetic plan and risks, including the possibility of death.

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9
Q

What is documented in the chart before anesthesia?

A

Medical status assessment, anesthesia plan, informed consent, and preoperative evaluations.

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10
Q

What are the cornerstones of preoperative evaluation?

A

History and physical examination.

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11
Q

What is the purpose of preoperative evaluation?

A

To identify patients who may benefit from medical optimization or surgery postponement.

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12
Q

When might a surgery be postponed for a patient’s benefit?

A

If their condition is unstable, such as a patient with left main coronary artery disease requiring a CABG before elective surgery.

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13
Q

What is the anesthetic plan?

A

A strategy to determine premedication use, anesthetic type, intraoperative management, and postoperative care.

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14
Q

When is general anesthesia typically used?

A

For surgeries above the diaphragm, such as neurosurgery, cardiac, and thyroid procedures.

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15
Q

What are examples of regional anesthesia techniques?

A

Spinal, epidural, and peripheral nerve blocks.

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16
Q

What factors affect intraoperative management?

A

Nonstandard monitors, patient positioning, contraindications to drugs, fluid management, and special techniques.

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17
Q

What should be considered for postoperative management?

A

Pain control, ICU admission, postoperative ventilation, and hemodynamic monitoring.

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18
Q

What is the purpose of the ASA Physical Status Classification System?

A

To assess and communicate a patient’s pre-anesthesia medical comorbidities.

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19
Q

Does the ASA classification predict perioperative risk?

A

No, but it can help assess risk when combined with other factors like frailty and type of surgery.

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20
Q

When is the final ASA classification assigned?

A

On the day of anesthesia care by the anesthesiologist after evaluating the patient.

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21
Q

What does the letter ‘E’ in ASA classification indicate?

A

Emergency surgery (e.g., ASA 1E).

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22
Q

What is ASA 1 classification?

A

A normal, healthy patient (e.g., non-smoker, no chronic illnesses).

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23
Q

What is ASA 2 classification?

A

A patient with mild systemic disease (e.g., controlled DM/HTN, pregnancy, mild lung disease, BMI 30-40).

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24
Q

What is ASA 3 classification?

A

A patient with severe systemic disease with functional limitations (e.g., poorly controlled DM/HTN, COPD, ESRD on dialysis).

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25
Q

What is ASA 4 classification?

A

A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life (e.g., recent MI, ongoing ischemia, sepsis, ARDS).

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26
Q

What is ASA 5 classification?

A

A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation (e.g., ruptured aneurysm, massive trauma).

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27
Q

What is ASA 6 classification?

A

A brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donation.

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28
Q

Why is pregnancy considered ASA 2?

A

Due to physiological changes that increase anesthetic risk compared to non-pregnant patients.

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29
Q

What is the definition of emergency surgery in ASA classification?

A

A surgery where delay increases the threat to life or body part.

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30
Q

How would you classify a 30-year-old female scheduled for emergency appendectomy?

A

ASA 1E.

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31
Q

What is the first monitoring device that should be connected to a patient in the OR?

A

Pulse oximeter.

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32
Q

Why is the pulse oximeter essential in the OR?

A

It provides continuous oxygenation and pulse rate monitoring, ensuring vigilance even without direct visual observation.

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33
Q

What does ASA Standard I state?

A

Qualified anesthesia personnel must be present throughout the administration of anesthesia.

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34
Q

What does ASA Standard II emphasize?

A

Ensuring proper monitoring of oxygenation, ventilation, circulation, and body temperature.

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35
Q

What equipment is used to monitor oxygenation?

A

Oxygen analyzer and pulse oximeter.

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36
Q

What methods are used to monitor ventilation?

A

Capnography, chest excursion observation, breath sounds auscultation.

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37
Q

What parameters are monitored for circulation?

A

Arterial blood pressure, heart rate, and ECG.

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38
Q

Why is body temperature monitoring important?

A

To prevent hypothermia or hyperthermia in critical care settings.

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39
Q

“How long before surgery can a patient consume a light meal (e.g., toast and clear liquids)?”

A

Up to 6 hours

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40
Q

“How long before surgery can a patient consume breast milk?”

A

Up to 4 hours

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41
Q

“How long before surgery can a patient consume clear liquids?”

A

Up to 2 hours

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42
Q

“What is the fasting recommendation for a patient within the 2-hour window before surgery?”

A

No solids, no liquids

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43
Q

“What are examples of conditions that increase the risk of aspiration, making fasting guidelines inapplicable?”

A

Esophageal disorders (uncontrolled reflux, hiatal hernia, Zenker diverticulum, achalasia, stricture), previous gastric surgery (gastric bypass), gastroparesis, diabetes mellitus, opioid use, GI obstruction, acute intra-abdominal processes, pregnancy, obesity, emergency procedures

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44
Q

“What pharmacologic agents can be used to reduce the risk of pulmonary aspiration in preoperative fasting?”

A

H2 blockers, PPIs, gastric protectants, gastrokinetic agents

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45
Q

“What is the purpose of the ASA Physical Status Classification System?”

A

To assess and communicate a patient’s pre-anesthesia medical comorbidities

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46
Q

“What is ASA 1 classification?”

A

A normal healthy patient (e.g., healthy, non-smoker, no or minimal alcohol use)

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47
Q

“What is ASA 2 classification?”

A

A patient with mild systemic disease (e.g., controlled DM/HTN, mild lung disease, pregnancy, obesity BMI 30-40, current smoker, social alcohol drinker)

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48
Q

“What is ASA 3 classification?”

A

A patient with severe systemic disease (e.g., poorly controlled DM/HTN, COPD, morbid obesity BMI >40, active hepatitis, pacemaker, moderate ejection fraction reduction, ESRD on dialysis, history of MI/CVA >3 months)

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49
Q

“What is ASA 4 classification?”

A

A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life (e.g., recent MI/CVA <3 months, ongoing cardiac ischemia, severe valve dysfunction, severe ejection fraction reduction, sepsis, DIC, ARDS, ESRD not on dialysis)

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50
Q

“What is ASA 5 classification?”

A

A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without surgery (e.g., ruptured aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischemic bowel with significant cardiac pathology)

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51
Q

“What is ASA 6 classification?”

A

A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donation

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52
Q

“When is the letter ‘E’ added to an ASA classification?”

A

For emergency surgeries where delay increases the threat to life or body part (e.g., ASA 1E)

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53
Q

“What is the fasting requirement for a pregnant patient before surgery?”

A

Pregnant patients are always considered to have a full stomach and require special precautions.

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54
Q

“What are the four categories of surgery urgency in perioperative cardiovascular management?”

A

Emergency (<2h), Urgent (≥2 to <24h), Time-Sensitive (delay up to 3 months), Elective (can be delayed for full evaluation)

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55
Q

“What are the two risk categories for perioperative cardiovascular events?”

A

Low risk (MACE <1%) and Elevated risk (MACE ≥1%)

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56
Q

“What are the highest-risk surgeries for MACCE?”

A

Suprainguinal vascular, thoracic, transplant, neurosurgery

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57
Q

“What are the intermediate-risk surgeries for MACCE?”

A

General, otolaryngology, genitourinary, orthopedic surgeries

58
Q

“What are the lowest-risk surgeries for MACCE?”

A

Endocrine, breast, gynecology, obstetrics

59
Q

“What are major cardiovascular risk factors in preoperative cardiac assessment?”

A

Hypertension, smoking, high cholesterol, diabetes, age >65 (women) or >55 (men), obesity, family history of premature CAD

60
Q

“What are examples of risk modifiers in preoperative cardiac risk assessment?”

A

Severe valvular heart disease, severe pulmonary hypertension, previous CABG or coronary stenting, recent stroke, presence of CIED (ICD/pacemaker), frailty

61
Q

“How does the timing of surgery affect MACCE risk?”

A

Emergency surgeries have the highest risk, while elective surgeries allow for risk optimization.

62
Q

“What is an example of how surgical approach affects MACCE risk?”

A

Endovascular aortic aneurysm repair has a lower MACCE risk than open repair.

63
Q

“What is the first monitoring device that should be connected upon arrival in the OR?”

A

Pulse oximeter

64
Q

“What are the ASA standards for basic anesthetic monitoring?”

A

Qualified anesthesia personnel present, monitoring of oxygenation, ventilation, circulation, and body temperature

65
Q

“What are the recommended methods for monitoring oxygenation during anesthesia?”

A

Oxygen analyzer, pulse oximeter

66
Q

“What are the recommended methods for monitoring ventilation during anesthesia?”

A

Capnography, capnometry, chest excursion observation, breath sounds auscultation

67
Q

“What are the recommended methods for monitoring circulation during anesthesia?”

A

ECG, arterial blood pressure, heart rate monitoring

68
Q

“What is the role of qualitative clinical signs in anesthetic monitoring?”

A

Chest excursion, reservoir bag observation, auscultation of breath sounds, pulse palpation

69
Q

“Why is the pulse oximeter the first device to be connected in the OR?”

A

Immediate monitoring of oxygenation and pulse rate, ensures continuous vigilance even without direct visual observation.

70
Q

What is an important predictor of risk of adverse cardiovascular events after noncardiac surgery (NCS)?

A

Functional capacity, usually measured in metabolic equivalents (METs) of a task, with 4 METs considered the threshold for poor functional capacity.

71
Q

What is a common way to assess functional capacity?

A

It can be assessed by asking patients if they can climb 2 flights of stairs or by using a patient-reported instrument like the Duke Activity Status Index (DASI).

72
Q

What percentage of patients undergoing major NCS have coronary artery disease (CAD)?

A

Approximately 18%.

73
Q

What is the perioperative risk associated with a history of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) compared to chronic coronary disease (CCD)?

A

A history of ACS confers greater perioperative risks than CCD.

74
Q

What ASA classification is given to patients with a history of CAD for more than 3 months?

75
Q

What ASA classification is given to patients with a recent history of CAD?

76
Q

What risk is associated with coronary stent placement in patients undergoing NCS?

A

Increased risk of major adverse cardiovascular events (MACE).

77
Q

How should patients with CAD be managed before elective NCS?

A

Careful attention to optimal medical management for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) is important.

78
Q

What is the benefit of preoperative revascularization in patients with ACS or left main CAD?

A

Preoperative revascularization can reduce the risk of MACE in patients with MI.

79
Q

What should be done for patients with refractory anginal symptoms before NCS?

A

A multidisciplinary heart team approach to revascularization should be considered.

80
Q

How does uncontrolled hypertension affect myocardial demand?

A

It increases myocardial demand via elevated LV end-diastolic pressure, leading to subendocardial myocardial ischemia.

81
Q

What complications are increased by uncontrolled hypertension in the perioperative period?

A

Increased risk of cardiovascular disease (CVD), cerebrovascular events, and bleeding.

82
Q

What should be considered when elevated BP is observed on the day of surgery?

A

It may represent a situational (‘White Coat Hypertension’) response, and the patient’s baseline ambulatory BP should guide management.

83
Q

What should be administered if elevated BP is detected preoperatively?

A

Anxiolytics and IV antihypertensive agents may be required.

84
Q

What is the most common arrhythmia in patients undergoing NCS?

A

Atrial fibrillation (AF).

85
Q

What are the risks for patients with preexisting AF undergoing NCS?

A

Increased risks of all-cause mortality, heart failure (HF), and ischemic stroke within 30 days of surgery.

86
Q

Do patients with AF undergoing NCS generally require changes in medical management?

A

If hemodynamically stable, they generally do not require changes, except for interruption of oral anticoagulation (OAC).

87
Q

What complication is of concern when performing neuraxial anesthesia in patients with AF?

A

Increased risk of spinal or epidural hematoma.

88
Q

How long should elective NCS be delayed after a stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA)?

A

At least 3 months to reduce the incidence of recurrent stroke, MACE, or both.

89
Q

What is the effect of delaying surgery after a cerebrovascular event?

A

The increased risk of MACE and stroke diminishes over time as inflammation decreases, hemorrhage risk reduces, and cerebral autoregulation is reestablished.

90
Q

What is the minimum time required for aspirin to restore platelet function after interruption?

91
Q

What is the minimum time required for clopidogrel to restore platelet function after interruption?

92
Q

What is the minimum time required for prasugrel to restore platelet function after interruption?

A

7-10 days.

93
Q

What is the minimum time required for ticagrelor to restore platelet function after interruption?

94
Q

What are the risks of perioperative major adverse cardiovascular events (MACE) when NCS is performed within the first 3 months after PCI?

A

The risks of MACE are highest within the first 3 months after PCI.

95
Q

What is the recommended minimum time for elective NCS after PCI?

A

Elective NCS should not be performed within 30 days of PCI.

96
Q

What therapy is associated with lower rates of death and nonfatal MI in patients undergoing NCS after PCI with stent placement?

A

Aspirin use.

97
Q

When should dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) be interrupted for patients undergoing NCS?

A

DAPT should be interrupted at least 14 days after balloon angioplasty alone without stent placement.

98
Q

What should be done if interruption of DAPT is required for NCS?

A

Aspirin monotherapy should be continued whenever possible.

99
Q

What should be considered when delaying elective NCS in patients with high residual thrombotic risk?

A

Delaying surgery may allow for safer interruption of oral anticoagulation (OAC).

100
Q

What are the reversal agents for vitamin K antagonists (VKA) like warfarin after a procedure?

A

Vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrates.

101
Q

What is a key consideration when restarting warfarin after a procedure?

A

It can take several days to achieve full anticoagulant effect, so it is reasonable to restart VKA as early as 12-24 hours postoperatively.

102
Q

How does diabetes impact perioperative cardiovascular events and surgical site infections?

A

Diabetes increases the risk of cardiovascular events and surgical site infections.

103
Q

What are the risks associated with stress from anesthesia and surgery in diabetic patients?

A

It alters the balance between hepatic glucose production and glucose utilization, affecting regulatory hormones and inflammatory cytokines.

104
Q

Why is managing perioperative hyperglycemia crucial in diabetic patients?

A

To reduce the risks of complications such as cardiovascular events and infection.

105
Q

What is the recommendation regarding GLP-1 agonists (e.g., Ozempic) before elective NCS?

A

Weekly formulations of GLP-1 agonists should be held >1 week before NCS, and daily formulations should be held the day before.

106
Q

What is a complication of SGLT2 inhibitors that requires attention in the perioperative period?

A

Euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis, which is a serious postoperative complication.

107
Q

What should be done if the patient’s hemoglobin A1c is higher than 8% before elective surgery?

A

It may be reasonable to defer surgery if the hemoglobin A1c is higher than 8%.

108
Q

What is the approach for emergent or time-sensitive procedures in diabetic patients with high A1c?

A

The focus should be on optimizing perioperative glucose control rather than delaying surgery to achieve a target hemoglobin A1c.

109
Q

How should SGLT2 inhibitors be managed before surgery?

A

SGLT2 inhibitors should be discontinued 3-4 days before surgery.

110
Q

What is the impact of chronic pulmonary disease on surgical patients?

A

Increased morbidity and mortality (M/M).

111
Q

How should asthma and COPD be evaluated in the perioperative setting?

A

Evaluate exercise tolerance, frequency & severity of exacerbations, and focused history including intubations for exacerbations.

112
Q

What is the risk of instrumentation or tracheal intubation in patients with asthma or COPD?

A

It may act as a noxious stimulus, causing bronchoconstriction, leading to desaturation and hypoxemia.

113
Q

What causes bronchoconstriction in asthma and COPD patients during anesthesia?

A

Vagal afferents in the bronchi are sensitive to histamine and noxious stimuli, resulting in bronchoconstriction.

114
Q

What is the effect of most inhaled anesthetics in asthma or COPD patients?

A

Most inhaled anesthetics act as bronchodilators.

115
Q

Which inhaled anesthetic is recommended for asthmatic or COPD patients to avoid airway irritation?

A

Sevoflurane, as it is not an airway irritant.

116
Q

What is the treatment approach for asthmatic patients with active bronchospasm presenting for emergency surgery?

A

Aggressive treatment with supplemental oxygen, aerosolized B2-agonists, and IV glucocorticoids.

117
Q

Why are ABGs useful in asthma or COPD exacerbations?

A

ABGs help in evaluating the severity and adequacy of treatment.

118
Q

What is the most common pulmonary disorder encountered in adult anesthetic practice?

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

119
Q

What is the difference between ‘blue bloaters’ and ‘pink puffers’ in COPD?

A

‘Blue bloaters’ typically have chronic bronchitis, while ‘pink puffers’ typically have emphysema.

120
Q

How does smoking affect pulmonary function preoperatively?

A

Smoking increases mucus production, decreases clearance, and depletes antioxidants like glutathione and vitamin C.

121
Q

What is the benefit of smoking cessation before surgery?

A

Cessation of smoking for as little as 24 hours can improve oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin.

122
Q

What is the preoperative evaluation for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?

A

Medical record review, patient/family interview, screening protocols, and review of sleep studies.

123
Q

What should be considered for patients with severe OSA before surgery?

A

Preoperative initiation of CPAP, and in some cases, NIPPV (Non-Invasive Positive Pressure Ventilation).

124
Q

What preoperative treatments should be considered for OSA?

A

Mandibular advancement devices, oral appliances, and preoperative weight loss.

125
Q

When should a patient with a history of corrective airway surgery be assumed to remain at risk for OSA complications?

A

Unless a normal sleep study has been obtained and symptoms have not returned.

126
Q

What tests are useful in evaluating dyspnea preoperatively?

A

ABGs, BNP, BUN, PFTs, CT, and other clinical evaluations.

127
Q

What is the key approach to preventing acute kidney injury (AKI) in high-risk patients?

A

Adequate hydration and maintenance of renal blood flow.

128
Q

What are the underlying causes of impaired kidney function that may impact surgery?

A

Glomerular dysfunction, tubular dysfunction, and urinary tract obstruction.

129
Q

What is the incidence of postoperative AKI in general surgery patients?

A

1% to 5% of general surgery patients, and up to 30% in cardiothoracic and vascular surgeries.

130
Q

What are preoperative risk factors for perioperative AKI?

A

Pre-existing kidney disease, hypertension, diabetes, liver disease, sepsis, trauma, and exposure to nephrotoxic agents.

131
Q

What is a general recommendation for nephrology in patients with increased risk for AKI?

A

Avoid NSAIDs post-operatively and optimize perioperative fluid management.

132
Q

What is the preferred muscle relaxant in patients with renal dysfunction?

A

Cis-atracurium, as it is eliminated via Hofmann elimination and not dependent on renal or hepatic metabolism.

133
Q

Why should morphine and meperidine be avoided in patients with renal failure?

A

Their metabolites can accumulate, leading to increased risk of respiratory depression.

134
Q

What is the role of the liver in drug metabolism?

A

The liver is responsible for metabolizing most anesthetic drugs, and hepatic dysfunction may impair this process.

135
Q

What are the hemostatic changes in liver disease?

A

Impaired synthesis of coagulation factors, leading to prolonged PT/INR, thrombocytopenia, and endothelial dysfunction.

136
Q

How does cirrhosis affect bleeding risk in surgery?

A

Cirrhosis can lead to excessive bleeding due to thrombocytopenia, endothelial dysfunction, and portal hypertension.

137
Q

What laboratory tests are used to assess liver function preoperatively?

A

PT, INR, liver enzymes, albumin, bilirubin, and platelet count.

138
Q

Why should elective surgery be postponed in patients with acute hepatitis?

A

Elective surgery should be postponed until liver function normalizes, as indicated by liver tests.

139
Q

What is the risk of acute alcohol withdrawal during the perioperative period?

A

Acute alcohol withdrawal can be life-threatening, with a mortality rate as high as 50%.

140
Q

What is the most important indicator of hepatic synthetic function?

A

Prothrombin time (PT) is the best indicator.

141
Q

What does a persistent prolongation of PT after vitamin K administration indicate?

A

Severe hepatic dysfunction requiring interventions like fresh frozen plasma or platelet transfusions.

142
Q

What are the perioperative risks associated with liver disease?

A

The degree of hepatic impairment correlates with increased perioperative risks, including difficulty awakening from anesthesia due to impaired hepatic metabolism.