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Type Rating & OPC Questions Flashcards

1
Q

How many IRUs are installed?

A

3
Each receives data from GNSS and Air Data Computers
They are powered by multiple sources
FCOM 1 16-02-1

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2
Q

How many FMS’s are installed?

A

2

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3
Q

At what distance does the NAV to NAV preview function display?

A

Within 31nm of the destination airport

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4
Q

How many GPS receivers are fitted to the A220?

A

2

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5
Q

How many satellites are required for a 3D solution?

A

4

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6
Q

What does “Proximate Traffic” indicate on the ND?

A

Traffic within 6nm horizontal and within 1200ft vertical - No Aural Alert

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7
Q

Describe how to manually tune a VOR frequency using the CTP and set the course function and VOR needles?

A

MAN tune FRQ in the CTP - Set course on the main page of the CTP (Each CTP independent)- CTP select BRG 1/2 as necessary

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8
Q

What considerations with respect to NAV display indications are there following a TCAS or TAWS warning?

A

Confirm the WXR radar display is “ON” using CTP or OVLY on the ND

Note: Weather Radar is dropped with first ‘Traffic, Traffic’ notification. If no RA, still need to reselect WXR

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9
Q

Describe Path Attenuation Correction (PAC) function of the WXR?

A

Shows an amber arc up to 80nm ahead, identifies potentially dangerous precipitation ahead (Only in Auto Mode)

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10
Q

When does the overflight protection become active?

A

Above FL220
Within 15 nm radar stores and displays intense returns so they remain in view until behind aircraft
FCOM 1 16-06-10

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11
Q

What soft tiles are displayed in the ECL menu bar?

A

Summary, Normal, Non-Normal, Procedure and Function

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12
Q

What is a sensed item?

A

A switch position or a control position sensed by the ECL

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13
Q

Who reads the pre-flight checklist?

A

CM2

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14
Q

If a speed adder is required for a non-normal procedure to what speeds is this added to?

A

Vref, Vac and Vga

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15
Q

What is the procedure for AT fault/failure during Takeoff?

A

During a De-rate (TO-1, TO-2, TO-3)
- Above 60kts-If N1 matches N1 target (Continue), if not (Reject)

During a FLEX
- Above 60kts-Set thrust levers to MAX (Continue)

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16
Q

What procedure is required for an overweight landing?

A

Can be safely accomplished up to MTOW, no usual handling characteristics. Use maximum runway and minimum braking to ensure brakes remain within limits.

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17
Q

Describe the PF actions in the event of a TCAS RA?

A

At TA “TCAS, I have control”
At RA “TCAS RA PFD or HUD”
Autopilot - Disconnect
Flight Director (PFs Side) - OFF
Adjust Vertical Flight Path to Green Box
ATC advise
Clear of Conflict
FCP modes as required
AP on
WX radar re select

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18
Q

Can the ECL be used for the Smoke/Fire/Fume Procedure

A

No - It is indicated on the ECL ‘refer to QRH’

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19
Q

Can the AT be activated during the take-off roll?

A

No - not until at or above 400ft AGL

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20
Q

During an ILS approach at approximately 1500ft AGL an aural alert ‘Go-Around Windshear ahead’ is heard. What type of alert is this? and what is the correct procedure?

A

A predictive Windshear alert (PWS is active 2300RA to 50ft), a normal go-around must be commenced.

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21
Q

What is the maximum altitude for the A220?

A

41,000ft

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22
Q

What is the maximum speed of the A220?

A

300kts to 8000ft, 330kts from 10,000ft to M0.82

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23
Q

What is the Maximum gear extension and retraction speed?

A

250kt extension, 220kt retraction.

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24
Q

What is the turbulence penetration speed for moderate to severe turbulence Vra

A

265kts to 10,000ft
280kts above 10,000ft to M0.75 whichever is lower
AFM 02-03-5

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25
At what temperature must ice shedding be performed? (if in visible moisture below 1500m Vis)
OAT is 3 degrees or below
26
Describe the "ice shedding procedure"
Set 60% N1, then return to idle. Will flex fan blades to crack ice off.
27
What is the maximum Engine starter operating run time?
4 minutes
28
How would the starter be engaged for a Tail pipe fire?
Set and hold "ENG CRANK"
29
When must MAX TO thrust be used?
Contaminated Runway, Windshear, Performance Reasons, MEL Requirements
30
When can an IFR flight report 'Visual' by day?
When within 30nm of the aerodrome, and the pilot has established and can continue flight to the aerodrome with continuous visual reference to the ground or water and visibility is not less than 5000m.
31
What is the maximum speed leaving an en-route holding pattern? (unless otherwise advised)
250kts
32
What is standard obstacle clearance and missed approach climb gradient designed in IAL charts?
Min obstacle clearance of 100ft, and a gradient of 2.5%.
33
If prior to commencing an Instrument Approach at night, crew advised by ATC that a partial lighting failure has occured. What is the required visibility to continue an approach?
In VMC: No Restriction Less than VMC: The minimum for the approach multiplied by a factor of 1.5 AIP ENR 1.5-18
34
What does 'established' mean?
Within half scale deflection, or ILS, VOR and GNSS, or within 2nm of the DME Arc
35
Can a localiser approach be flown as a 3D approach in the A220?
Up until the FAF, provided it is coded correctly as a LOC approach
36
Holding speed limitations in controlled airspace?
Up to and Including FL140 - 230kts above FL140-FL200 - 240kts above FL200 - 265kts ** Speed may be increased up to the lesser of 280kts or M0.8 in turbulent conditions** AIP ENR 1.5-28 3.3.1
37
What does the 'DME Limit' mean on a holding pattern limitation?
The DME limit is the distance an which the outbound leg of the holding pattern must be terminated and inbound turn commenced.
38
At places not equipped with RVR sensors or where one or more sensors are unserviceable, can RV assessments be substituted?
No, RV assessments can be used as a guide for expected visibility only. RVR is an electronic measurement only. Particularly for approaches with less than 800m vis Or T/O with vis less than 350m AIP ENR 1.5 - 33
39
What is the wingspan of the A220?
35.1m
40
What is the minimum pavement width required for a 180 degree turn?
23.5m
41
Maximum TakeOff Weight?
70,896 kg
42
Maximum Landing Weight?
58,740 kg
43
Maximum Zero Fuel Weight?
55,792 kg
44
Minimum Flight Weight?
36,287kg
45
Maximum Ramp Weight?
71,214 kg
46
What are the ICAO holding speeds and outbound timings?
up to and including FL140 - 230kts & 1min FL140 to and including FL200 - 240kts & 1.5min above FL200 - 265kts & 1.5min Can increase speeds with ATC approval up to 280kts or 0.8M whichever is lower.
47
What are the CAO 20.7.1B Climb Segments and gross gradients?
1st Segment - Lift-off to Gear Retracted (+ve) 2nd Segment - Gear Retract to Acceleration Alt 400ft Minimum (2.4%/ 1.6% Net at TO thrust) 3rd Segment - Acceleration to Clean Configuration (1.2% Available at TO thrust) 4th Segment - Clean to 1500ft or clear of obstacles (1.2%/ 0.4% Net at MCT Thrust)
48
What are Vga and Vac
Vga - Climb Speed for all engines go-around Vac - Approach Climb speed, target speed to be attained during a go-around with one engine inop.
49
What is the difference between Green Dot and Vfto
Green Dot is best Lift/Drag ratio Vfto is Final Take-Off Climb Speed (Flown at completion of 4th Segment OEI) A220 specifies setting Green Dot at completion of sector (this is the single engine green dot, approx 10kt difference to all engine green dot)
50
What are the visibility requirements on an ILS for using HUD to DA?
Visibility requirement does not increase. The lowest visibility can be obtained by using any of Flight Director/Autopilot or HUD to the DA. Shown on bottom of Jepp Chart
51
What are the stall recovery actions?
"Stall, I have control" Autopilot - OFF Autothrottle - OFF Pitch - Reduce AOA Roll - Wings Level Thrust - As required Spoilers - Ensure Retracted Once stable and suitable speed (Happy Place), Cycle FDs - ALT, HDG Sync, Man Speed. AP-AT-FLC
52
What is the procedure for an overweight landing?
Landing Distance must be verified. Fly normal profile. Thrust reversers maximised after landing to reduce brake heat, and use all runway available.
53
What is the Maximum Design Manoeuvring Speed? Va
300kts/0.8M AFM 02-03-4
54
What is the Turbulence Penetration Speed? Vra
Below 10,000ft - 265kts Above 10,000ft - 280kts/0.75M whichever is less AFM 02-03-5
55
How many Autopilots in the A220?
3 A function integrated into each of the 3 PFCC’s FCOM 1 03-03-1
56
How many Auto throttles on the A220?
2 One integrated into each of the 2 AFCS’s FCOM 1 03-05-1
57
Can we achieve CAT3B landings with the NJS A220? (Disregarding regulatory approvals)
No, the NJS A220’s have only 2 RADALTS, 3 are required for Cat3B
58
What are the recent experience requirements for passenger operations To/Lding? (Outside of the Cyclic Program)
3 x TO/LDings in 90days (Day) 3 x TO/LDings in 90days (Night) Recency also met if flight test conducted within 90days that includes 1 TO/Lding
59
Does a IFR proficiency check satisfy the requirements of a flight review?
Yes
60
What are rough holding fuel flows are expected at mid levels FL200? OEI and AEO.
Total Fuel flow 19-33kgs for both AEO and OEI
61
What is contingency fuel amount?
5% or 5mins holding fuel at 1500ft above destination whichever is greater. Note Destination alternate does not require Contingency fuel although Company flight planning includes 5% from destination to destination alternate as a safety margin OM A 13.2.3
62
What is the best holding speed?
Green Dot - Best lift to drag ratio. Be cautious with slow auto throttles, if speed drops below green dot considerable thrust will be required to regain speed (back of the drag curve) FCOM 2 03-02-62
63
What are the recency requirements for IFR? (outside of a cyclic program)
If the holder has passed an instrument proficiency check within the last 90 days. or 3 Instrument Approaches within 90days (1 in the applicable Category of aircraft) General IFR Currency - Conducted 1x2D, 1x3D, 1xAzimuth etc.
64
How long is an instrument proficiency check valid for? (Outside of a Cyclic Program)
12months
65
How many satellites are required for Fault Detection? And Fault detection and exclusion (FDE)?
5 & 6
66
What is the maximum cross-track error allowable in RNP 1 airspace?
0.5nm (1/2 Nav tolerance)
67
What is the accuracy requirement of RNP 1?
Must be within 1nm of Actual position 95% of the time, and 99.9% of the time within 2nm
68
What are the FMS default RNP values are different phases of flight?
Power-up - 1nm FMS Non-Precision - 0.3nm SID or STAR - 1nm Terminal Area - 1nm Enroute or exit from Terminal Area - 2nm
69
What is the coldest operating temperature?
-70.5
70
When is a traffic alert issued (TA)?
When the intruder is within 20-48 seconds of closest point of contact.
71
When is an RA issued?
When the intruder is within 15-35 seconds of closest point of contact.
72
What are the Upset Recovery actions
For Nose High and Low. "Upset I have control" Recognise Confirm Breathe AP OFF AT OFF Pitch attitude as required to reduce angle of attack Roll attitude as required Thrust Lever as required Spoiler lever as required Once stable and suitable speed (Happy Place), Cycle FDs - ALT, HDG Sync, Man Speed. AP-AT-FLC
73

BD500 (29 decks)

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