CBT Exam Revision Questions Flashcards
1
Q
Flight Guidance (FG) and Auto throttle (AT) software are hosted by
A
AFCS Automatic Flight Control System in the Data Concentrator Unit (DCU) Module Cabinet
2
Q
What activates the windshear escape guidance mode
A
Pushing the TOGA buttons
3
Q
Pressing the PUSH FINE on the Altitude knob while turning allows:
A
The altitude is adjusted in increments of 100’.
4
Q
What is the purpose of the right section on the Flight Control Panel (FCP)?
A
Vertical Modes VS, FPA also the Flight Director switch
5
Q
Where is the flight mode annunciator (FMA) located?
A
At the top of the PFD.
6
Q
When will rudder pedal movements disengage the autopilot?
A
The Tiller or Rudder Pedals are moved more the 0.8 inches during Autoland ground roll.
7
Q
During Autoland ILS approach, which of the following occurs when the main landing gear
touch down?
A
ROLLOUT mode starts 2 seconds after Weight On Wheels
8
Q
ILS CAT IIIA approaches may be conducted with
A
Either fail passive or fail operational systems
9
Q
What information displays on the flight mode annunciator (FMA)?
A
Autothrottle mode/Lateral Mode/AP,AT and data source/Vertical Mode/Alternate source selection
10
Q
What are the vertical guidance modes?
A
FPA, VS, ALTS, ALT, FLC, TO, GA, APR
11
Q
The autopilot can be engaged when the AP pushbutton is pressed and _________.
A
Side stick neutral, bank within +|- 45, roll rate <15\sec, pitch change<10*\sec, load factor within limits.
12
Q
What displays on the approach status annunciator (ASA) when the required onboard equipment and the localizer signal quality meets the ILS CAT II approach criteria?
A
APPR 2
13
Q
APU Fault messages would be displayed on:
A
EICAS + Status Synoptic
14
Q
When starting the APU, for how long should the APU switch be held in the start position?
A
At least 3 seconds
15
Q
Where do APU oil quantity, pressure, and temperature values display?
A
STATUS Page
16
Q
During APU start from a cold ship (no external power available)
A
Requires both batteries for starting + fuel is suction fed.
17
Q
The APU is limited to ______start attempts within____hour, and ____minutes between each start. The ECU prevents restart until RPM decreases to less than____%
A
3 starts, 1 hour, 2minutes, 7%
18
Q
When the APU is switched off, the ECU will start a cool down period of:
A
60 Seconds
19
Q
What APU information will be displayed on the Status page:
A
RPM, EGT, Door Status, Oil Temp, Oil pressure, Oil Quantity
20
Q
When the aircraft is on the ground or in flight and a critical ECU fault occurs, the APU will
A
Shutdown
21
Q
The APU controls are found in the following places:
A
On the overhead panel, External Service Panel and an APU shutoff in the APU compartment
22
Q
When AC power is powering the aircraft electrical system, the ECU uses the following source of power to start the APU
A
TRU 3 when external AC power is available.
23
Q
What happens when the APU rotary switch is positioned to OFF
A
The APU shuts down after a 60 second cooldown period.
24
Q
What controls the APU inlet door position?
A
The ECU
25
What is the effect on APU operation, when an overspeed condition is detected by the electronic control unit (ECU)?
APU is shutdown
26
When does the electronic control unit (ECU) for the APU initiate an automatic shutdown in flight?
RPM Overspeed/signal loss, Critical ECU fault or Loss of ARINC inputs to ECU. + Failed Start.
27
To access the Control Tuning Panel (CTP) second Top level page:
The TUNE/MENU switch is pushed and then one of the LSK. (4L, labelled “next page
28
There are a total of____ Push-To-Talk switches in the flight deck
11
29
How are radios controlled and tuned?
CTP’s, CNS page on MFW, or Graphical. (FMS - AVIO - CTP tab if CTP inoperative)
30
In order to connect the microphone to the passenger address system, the ACP PA transmit button must be:
Pressed and held during during the entire communication.
31
What happens when the 1/2 function key on the control tuning panel (CTP) is pressed once?
The cross side radio legends are displayed in Amber.
32
Radio control and tuning is accomplished using
Display & Graphical Tuning
33
What happens when the MECH CALL pushbutton is pressed
Horn in nose gear service area
34
What happens when a new datalink message is received?
When a DLK communication is received, initially the DLK communication flag flashes for 5 seconds and then becomes steady. A tone is also heard in the flight compartment.
35
Which air traffic service (ATS) functions display on the ATS MENU page
Departure & oceanic clearances.
36
What transmission system is used by the data link communication system?
VHF Data link (VDL) and SATCOM
37
When the aircraft flies into regions without VHF coverage, such as over an ocean, how is data link communication established
Data link com is auto switched to Satcom system.
38
Which of the following services does the A220 SATCOM currently use?
Data
39
What happens after 30 seconds of continuous VHF radio transmission?
Open Mike protection.
40
On the control tuning panel (CTP), how is the VHF CONTROL page accessed?
Top level tuning page - associated LSK pushed twice.
41
What indicates an incoming priority cabin call?
CABIN (amber) on EICAS page, Associated tone, Cabin Call on Cabin Transmit switch flashes.
42
Which action should be taken to initiate an emergency cabin call
Press and hold cab call button for 3 seconds.
43
What is the function of the data link communication
Provides 2 way comms between aircraft and ACARS network
44
What symbol next to SAT in the TEST column on the LINK STATUS page, indicates that a TEST can be performed on the SATCOM system?
*
45
The cockpit door EMER ACCESS DENY switch when selected
Illumination of DENY switch goes out and door remains locked.
46
Which aircraft doors are located in the lower fuselage?
Equipment Bay Doors
47
If a white FWD PAX is displayed on the DOOR synoptic page, what is the status of the engine and doors?
Door open on ground, engine not running
48
Where does the slide status of the passenger and service doors display?
Status -Door synoptic, EICAS, cabin management system (CMS).
49
When emergency access to the flight deck is requested, which visual signal is triggered and illuminates red in the flight compartment?
EMERG ACCESS switch/light DENY on the COCKPIT DOOR panel.
50
Which tile on the electronic checklist displays a drop-down list that allows a checklist to be reset or overridden?
Function ( FCTN).
51
May the pilot and copilot select different checklists on their MFW's?
YES
52
What does the message CHECKLIST NOT AVAILABLE indicate on an MFW
Data based errors are detected .
53
When a limitation checklist item has been selected, the limitation displays on the SUMMARY page as follows:
In white at the lower section of the Summary Page.
54
Which Item on the function (FCTN) drop-down list overrides a checklist
Override CHKL
55
Which page of the electronic checklist displays all normal checklists for all phases of flight?
Normal
56
Primary power for the Generator Control unit (GCU) is the:
The Variable Frequency Generators each contain a Permanent Magnet Generator (PMG) which supplies power to the GCU and Overvoltage Protection Unit OPU
FCOM 1 07-02-1
57
The APU generator is rated to 75 KVA for continuous operation up to?
36,500ft
58
Which busses are always powered:
BATT DIR 1 and 2, DC EMER
59
Does the aircraft electrical system permit both EXT AC and APU power at the same time
Yes - (FCOM 1 07-06-9)
60
When external power is suitable in terms of frequency, voltage, and phase, which advisory message displays on the EICAS?
EXT POWER AVAIL
FCOM 1 07-02-3
61
The RAT generator, when deployed and operating, supplies the AC ESS BUS
True
AC ESS bus powers EPC 3 & DC ESS 3 through TRU 3
FCOM 1 07-02-8
62
When would the guarded CABIN PWR switch be used?
To Isolate sources of smoke in cabin such as galleys, IFE.
FCOM 1 07-06-4
63
On the ground, if only batteries supply the power for more than 5 minutes what will occur?
BATT DISCHARGE caution on EICAS and a horn sounds.
FCOM 1 07-03-2
64
When AC power is supplied by the RAT only, the message that follow will be displayed on the EICAS pages:
RAT DPLY, EMERG PWR ONLY, RAT GEN ON.
Note: RAT DPLY will only show with the recovery of a VFG
FCOM 1 07-02-9
65
What is the purpose of the two permanent magnet alternator generators (PMAGs)
To supply AC power to the two Fly By Wire Power Converters FBWPC’s and the EEC of each FADEC
FCOM 1 07-03-3
66
The engine variable frequency generators (VFGs) are rated at
75kVA Continuous
FCOM 1 07-02-1
67
On the CB synoptic page, selecting the TRIP acknowledgment soft key:
Confirms breaker tripped state and changes state to OUT
68
With no AC power available, what occurs when BATT 1 and BATT 2 switches are selected to AUTO on the ELECTRICAL panel
All three DC ESS BUSSES are powered.
FCOM 1 07-06-13
69
What do the APU GEN FAIL lights indicate?
Fail illuminates amber when the APU Generator Control Unit AGCU removes the generator from the bus due to fault
FCOM 1 07-06-10
70
When operating on emergency power or battery power only, which of the following are available?
DC ESS 1, 2 and 3
71
What are the alternate Air Data Sources for the Captain's PFD
ADSP 4 - ADSP 2 - ADSP 3
FCOM 1 08-07-5
72
What happens to the PFD on DU 1 when DU 1 fails?
It moves inboard to DU2 in half screen with mini map below
73
During takeoff, what does the Pitch Target Marker (PTM) on the PFD represent?
Required pitch attitude for T/O.
Removed above 200 ft 7 secs after
T/O
FCOM 1 24-02-6
74
What is default position of the EICAS page display
Right half of DU 2
75
The CTP has the Quick Access Keys (QAKs) that follow:
MAP FMS CNS CHKL SYN DATA
76
What are the alternate controls to move the cursors
Arrow keys on MKP
77
Under which conditions does the ROL (sic) miscompare message display?
Difference of >4 degrees roll/bank between PFDs
FCOM 1 08-03-14
78
Which type of EICAS messages are inhibited during takeoff and landing
Most Caution and all advisory messages
79
What information displays on the EICAS?
Engine and Fuel indications
Crew alerting messages
Configuration and trim indications
cabin air info
and communications info
FCOM1 08-05-24
80
Which components are used in the air data system?
4x ADSP, 2x TAT, 2x AOA vanes
81
If four DUs are inoperative, the remaining DU displays the MFW and EICAS. True or False
False. Will display half-PFD with minimap and EICAS
82
Which indicator provides yaw indication
Slip/skid indicator or the Beta Index during Single Engine Operation
83
A non ETOPS cargo compartment fire suppression is provided by:
LRD bottle slowly discharges to suppress fires for a minimum of 60mins (180mins ETOPS)
84
The main landing gear is equipped with which type of fire or overheat detection equipment
Dual overheat detection loops mounted inside the top of each main landing gear wheel well.
85
The lavatory is equipped with a ceiling mounted smoke detector and:
A waste bin fire extinguisher.
86
An amber bar illuminates on the respective BTL switch/light to indicate bottle pressure is abnormally low, or a squib failure is detected
True
87
If a fire loop fails, the second loop continues to provide fire detection
TRUE. A FIRE SYSTEM FAULT advisory message is also displayed on the EICAS.
88
The Sidestick priority is assumed, when the sidestick AP/PTY is
Momentary priority is activated when the AP/PTY switch is pressed. Full authority when the switch is pressed and held
89
In the fly-by-wire (FBW) system, which component positions the control surfaces through hydraulic actuators?
The REU’s transmit commands from the PFCC’s to the hydraulic power control units PCU’s
90
The Fly-By-Wire (FBW) Trim Speed bug is displayed as______ when the
autopilot is_____
Hollow Triangle, Dis-engaged
91
The Alternate Flight Control Unit (AFCU) direct mode in the FBW system is automatically selected. TRUE or FALSE
TRUE Due to failure of multiple REU’s.
92
What does the Normal mode sidestick soft limit ("soft stop") provide?
A Tactile cue at the edge of the operational envelope.
93
What is aileron lift augmentation?
Ailerons deploy symmetrically, Trailing edge down for lift augmentation. They deploy from 0 to 10 degrees as the flaps deploy
94
What happens when the sidesticks are moved simultaneously in the same or opposite?
The system adds the signals of both algebraically. The DUAL flag is displayed on both PFD’s and there is a DUAL INPUT aural message.
95
SPOILER DPLY message is displayed when?
Flight spoiler deployed below 300ft or Flight spoiler deployed with either gear deployed or flaps 4 or 5.
96
Which of the following is a submode of the fly-by-wire (FBW) direct mode?
PFCC direct, REU direct or AFCU direct
97
Which compensation is automatically provided by the fly-by-wire system following an engine failure
Automatic Yaw compensation. Aircraft typically yaws into the failed engine with a bank angle of 20 deg or less and a sideslip angle of 5 deg or less.
With Autoflight engaged, it will hold heading, pilot will still be required to input rudder for co ordination
98
Which indication occurs when simultaneous inputs from both sidesticks are detected?
The DUAL flag is displayed on both PFDs and the is a DUAL INPUT aural message
99
Indication of a latched sidestick are identical to momentary priority with which of the following two exceptions?
The green PTY is illuminated instead of flashing and if the the autopilot is engaged, it does not disengage
100
With regard to momentary sidestick priority, which actions occur when the sidesticks AP/PTY pushbutton is pressed and held?
The sidestick has full authority
Opposite sidestick is deactivated
PTY green onside glareshield SIDESTICK flashes
A red arrow is illuminated on the opposite SIDESTICK switch
and the autopilot disconnects
FCOM 1 10-03-13
101
Four multifunction spoilers (MFSs) on each wing provide
Roll assist
Speed braking
Ground lift dumping
FCOM 1 10-04-3
102
What is the purpose of slat/flap brakes
They lock the surfaces in their commanded positions
And include position sensing and skew detection systems
FCOM 1 10-05-2
103
Which components are part of the high lift system?
Four leading edge slat panels and two fowler type flaps on each wing
Controlled by 2 Slat/Flap Electronic Control Units SFECU’s
FCOM 1 10-05-1
104
The Inceptor Interface Modules (IIMs) are:
The primary interface between cockpit controls and the FBW system
Three IIM’s receive data from the flight deck controls and transmit it to the PFCC’s.
105
Command signals from the flight deck controls are routed by the alternate flight control unit (AFCU) directly to:
A single channel of the HSTAB MCE unit, and directly to the hydraulic actuators for other surfaces
106
On landing, multifunction spoilers, ground spoilers, and ailerons deploy to assist in deceleration. IN which fly-by-wire modes are ground spoilers not available?
AFCU Direct and REU direct
107
When spoilers have been manually deployed, and a bank requiring roll assist is initiated, the fly-by-wire system:
Partially retracts the high wing multifunction spoilers
108
Selecting the ALTN FLAP switch to DPLY drives the slats/flaps to which position?
Flaps 3
109
How is the master FMS designated between FMS 1 and 2?
The FMS that supplies information to the side coupled to the flight director is the master FMS.
110
which tab of the FMS DBASE tile display the active database?
status
111
Which two pages of DBASE/DEFAULT data can be accessed from the SELECT drop-down list
FPLN/PERF, FUEL MGMT
112
What is the purpose of the BLEED SOURCE drop-down List? (to find on the PERF tile / DEP tab)
To select the source of bleed air for air conditioning and pressurization during takeoff
113
When the noise abatement departure procedure (NADP) is selected, a data entry box is presented for:
Thrust reduction (THR RED) and acceleration (ACCEL) height
114
Replacing the active flight plan with the secondary flight plan is accomplished by selecting which two soft keys?
ACTIVATE SEC
115
Which of the soft keys display below the aircraft symbol in the compass rose (MAP page) when a flight plan is being modified?
CNCL, END AND EXEC
116
What does it mean when LPV ARM displays in the top left corner of the HSI?
The aircraft has entered the terminal area.
117
When does the GNSS REVERTED message display in white on the left PFD?
When GNSS 1 has failed
118
What are the functions of the slave FMS?
To maintain a real time copy of the master FMS data, to input data, and to display data
119
Identify two methods of entering flight levels in FMS data entry boxes
Five numbers without letters or three numbers preceded by "F" or “FL"
120
Identify the methods available for flight plan entry into the FMS
Upload by datalink, access stored route with a route identifier, manual entry of all
121
Where are V1, VR, and V2 speeds entered in the flight management system?
PERF tile/DEP tab
122
What are the profiles choices in the DEP PROFILE drop-down?
STANDARD, NADP
123
To which description do the NADP definitions correspond
NADP - Close in is used when the thrust reduction altitude is lower than the acceleration
altitude.
NADP - Distant is used when the acceleration altitude is lower than the thrust reduction altitude
124
The pilot wished to cross a specific waypoint at an airspeed of 230 kt, between 9,000 and 11,000 ft. How is this entered into the vertical flight plan of the LEGS page?
230/9000A11000B
125
The MSG soft key on the bottom bar of any FMS page displays in four colour
Gray, black, white, amber
126
When modifying an active flight plan by inserting waypoints with the cursor, the END soft key is displayed. What is the purpose of the END soft key?
Removes all reroute modifications and restores the active flight plan.
127
What is a characteristic of an LPV approach
Vertical path is angular, like a glideslope on an ILS
128
What does RNP deviation on the PFD indicate
Flight technical error (FTE).
129
How much fuel can be transferred at one time in manual?
227 kg from wing tank to wing tank. 454kg from wing to centre
130
Which message displays on the EICAS when a main tank to main tank manual fuel transfer is complete
Fuel MAN XFR Complete
131
Where are surge tanks located?
Outboard of Wing tanks for venting
132
During an auto crossfeed process, both engines receive fuel directly from the fullest tank until fuel quantities are within
45kg
133
Which of the following provides fuel delivery to the engine?
Engine driven pump motive flow
134
What is fuel inerting?
Nitrogen enriched air pushed into the fuel tanks to provide non flammable air.
135
Where does the APU receive fuel from?
Left main tank
136
Which component regulates the flow of nitrogen-enriched air entering the fuel tank in the fuel tank inerting system (FTIS)?
Inerting control unit
IASC integrated air system controllers
137
Where are collector tanks located
Each wing tank inboard
138
Identify two ways the fuel tank inerting system reduces the risk of fuel igniting in flight
Varies the flow of nitrogen-enriched air entering the tanks and generates nitrogen-enriched
air
139
With the L and R BOOST PUMP rotary switches set to AUTO, which conditions must occur for the AC boost pumps to start
Low pressure or fuel imbalance, or APU commanded to start
140
What is the purpose of a surge tank?
To maintain air pressure in the tanks to keep pressure within the structural design limits. To provide venting space for both mains and center tanks
141
When manually transferring fuel from main tank to main tank, which of the following is correct
When transfer is complete, the EICAS advisory message FUEL MAN XFR COMPLETE display
142
Where are the scavenge ejector pumps located
Each wing tank
143
If one or both main fuel ejector pumps fail:
Both AC boost pumps will automatically come on
144
Where do fuel temperatures for the left and right main fuel tank display
Fuel SYN page only
145
Which type of engine powers the Airbus 220-300
The NJS A220 is powered by two Pratt & Whitney PW1524G-3 engines
146
Which unpressurized section is located at the aft of the aircraft
Aft Equipment Bay, APU Bay
147
What is the minimum required pavement width to complete a 180° turn for the A220-300?
23.5m
148
An out-of-alignment condition causes the HUD to show an ALIGN HUD message on the combiner display. The message is removed by
The message is removed when the combiner glass is repositioned so that it snaps into the detents
149
When HUD is selected from the MENU page (CTP) the range setting of APPR PATH ANG in MAN mode can be changed as follows:
When MAN mode is selected, the default value is −3 degrees, which can be updated by a value of between 0 and −7.5 degrees.
150
How are the pitch lines on the HUD displayed
Positive pitch angles are displayed as solid pitch lines and negative pitch angles are displayed as dashed pitch lines
151
How are the FMA symbols on the HUD displayed
HUD symbols are combinations of characters (letters and numbers), shapes,
and lines that are displayed on the combiner.
They are displayed as follows (refer to FCOM HUD Figure 24−02−1):
* Attitude Director Indicator (ADI) in the center,
* Airspeed tape on the left side,
* Altitude tape on the right side,
* Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) modes at the top, and
* Navigation and Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI) at the bottom.
There are two additional display areas during specific conditions:
* Non-normal situation symbols (e.g. warnings, cautions, failures,
miscompares), and
* Non-conformal display indications?
152
What purpose does the Priority Valves serve within the Hydraulic system
To maintain pressure and priority for higher users if pressure drops to 1700 psi or less
153
In the AUTO or ON position, the PTU will provide pressure to;
Sys no 1 if sys no 2 is pressurised and system 1 has more than 5%
154
How long does the ACMP 2B and PTU run if the Park brake is cycled OFF-ON-OFF?
6mins
155
When the 3B rotary switch on the HYDRAULIC panel is selected to the ON position, ACMP 3B
The electrical pump operates and supplies pressure to system No 3 if AC power is available
156
The hydraulic shutoff valves can be manually closed by the
Pressing the HYD 1 SOV and or the HYD SOV2
157
If the PTU and ACMP 2B rotary switches in the AUTO position, what will occur when the parking brake cycles OFF – ON– OFF
The ACMP 2B will operate automatically
158
Which pumps power hydraulic system no, 1
Main pump EDP 1A and backup pump PTU
159
What happens when the L (R) COWL rotary switch on the ANTI-ICE panel is set to AUTO
Cowl heat is controlled automatically by the ice detection system and the EECs.
160
Air data smart probes (ADSPs) and total air temperature (TAT) probe heaters can be turned on by the PROBE HEAT switch/light when the:
Aircraft is on the ground and powered by the APU or GPU. The probe heaters are on a 2 minute timer.
Otherwise they are automatically selected on when weight off wheels or engines are running
161
The heating source for Cowl Anti-icing is
6th stage engine bleed air
162
The PROBE HEAT switch on the overhead panel can be used to turn on the TAT and ADSP probe heaters
Yes when the aircraft is on the ground with either APU or GP
163
What is the purpose of the piccolo tubes in the wing anti-ice system
Sized and predrilled to spray hot bleed air on inner surface of the slats.
164
Which anti-ice system uses 6th stage engine bleed air
Cowl anti-ice system
165
Where are the landing lights located
The landing lights are on the left and right wing to body fairing and on the nose landing gear
166
The controls for the landing and taxi lights are located on which panel
Overhead module.
167
What controls interior and exterior emergency lighting
The EMER LTS rotary switch on the flight deck and the guarded EMER LIGHTS switch/light on the forward flight attendant panel.
168
Landing gear actuation is powered by
Hydraulic system 1
169
Which control releases the landing gear uplocks, allowing the gear to free fall?
DC ESS 3 powers the EMA’s (electric motor actuators) to release the uplocks
170
The nosewheel steering system uses pressure from which hydraulic system?
Hydraulic system no. 2
171
Which braking protection function stops the main wheels from rotating during retraction?
Landing gear retraction braking
172
What colour does TAWS use to show terrain 500 feet below to 2000 feet above the aircraft?
Yellow
173
What is required when the caution message IRS SET HEADING is displayed on EICAS
Manual entry of the magnetic heading is to be entered on the pod soft switch on the FMS
page.
174
Where is GNSS information displayed
POS tile, FMS page.
175
The TCAS selection and mode control is accomplished by using:
The CTP or the CNS tune page
176
When is the tilt adjustment available when using the radar?
Manual operating mode
177
During a TCAS system test, where does the cyan IN PROG message display?
The AVIO Page
178
Pressing the NAV SRC button on the left control tuning panel (CTP) cycles through which navigation sources?
Onside FMS, onside VHF NAV, cross-side FMS, cross-side VHF NAV"
179
When does the nav-to-nav preview function display localizer data and indications on the HSI
When a localizer-based approach (for the destination airport)
is selected on the FMS, and the aircraft is within 31 nm of the destination airport. (Right side next to the compass rose in cyan and double cyan dashed lines.)
180
For display tuning, how can the TUNE page be accessed?
CNS page pushing the switch on the the CTP or MKP or the soft switch on the CCP
181
Where is the GNSS computed position displayed?
FMS POS tile /GNSS page
182
When an IRS is in normal operating mode, what displays on the IRS tab of the FMS POS window
Navigation
183
Which indication display when the IDENT pushbutton on the control tuning panel (CTP) is pressed?
ID annunciated in cyan on the CTP and a cyan ident message displays on the tune page
184
Which advisory is used by the TCAS when traffic becomes a collision threat to the aircraft?
Resolution advisory aural alert and avoidance manouvre.
185
When is the terrain clearance floor function primarily used?
When terrain clearance is not sufficient even in the landing mode around the landing airport.
186
The TAWS test is initiated by selecting the TAWS soft key on the
AVIONICS tab
187
When is aircraft track (AC/TRK) format automatically displayed?
When the aircraft is not tracking the FMS or localizer flight plan route
188
What information displays on the GNSS tab
GNSS 1 and GNSS 2 as well as the number of satellites used to calculate the position
189
When MAP is selected, the VSD
can be selected from the OVLY drop-down menu.
190
How is the weather radar (WXR) image displayed on the multifunction window (MFW)?
WX switch on the CTP or OVLY tab menu on the map display page
191
A TCAS system test can be initiated from the
CTP LSK or CNS tune page or the AVIO tab in the synoptic page
192
The TAWS displays terrain on the MAP or PLAN pages on the MFW when the
Selecting Map on CTP or terrain on OVLY page
193
When is the aural alert "SINK RATE" initiated?
When the descent rate is excessive for the current altitude mode1 defined by vertical speed and radio altimeter
194
To optimize gain settings and weather returns in all phases of flight during automatic operating mode, the WXR system compensates for variations in:
geographic location, temperature, time of day, and altitude
195
The crew oxygen mask microphone is activated by
Putting the mask on.
196
Where does the CREW OXY LO PRESS caution message display?
Amber caution on EICAS.
197
Where does the oxygen cylinder pressure display
On the EICAS or the AIR synoptic page
198
During normal cabin oxygen dispensing unit operation, when does the flow of oxygen begin
When the mask is pulled toward the passenger.
199
How is oxygen vented when there is overpressure in the oxygen bottle?
Through the oxygen overboard discharge vent
200
Portable halon fire extinguishers, located behind the copilot seat and in the forward and aft galleys, are used to fight which classes of fire
Class A (combustible), Class B (flammable liquids), and Class C (electrical)
201
When will the EEC have the ability to abort an engine start?
N1, Hot/Hung, EGT, Igniter fail, Fuel control failure
202
What does the EICAS caution message THROTTLE IN REVERSE indicate?
L or R throttle has been moved to the reverse thrust position on the throttle quadrant.
203
What is the purpose of the Thrust Limitation at Low Speed (TLLS)
Nose gear sufficiently loaded during T/O phase
204
Where are indications for oil quantity, temperature and pressure displayed together
Synoptic Status page.
205
The maximum landing reverse thrust is available when the thrust levers are at the MAX REV position, from thrust reverser deployment until
60kt
206
On the ENGINE panel, the PILOT EVENT switch is pressed in, so that
Event is marked for maintenance investigation
207
The Integrated Air System Controller (IASC) is composed of:
Channel A & B and a Safety channel C.
208
On the AIR panel, how is the right bleed air valve closed?
Right bleed switch
209
How is Pack high flow mode controlled
Pack flow switch
210
Which control on the PRESSURIZATION panel opens the outflow valve and depressurizes the aircraft to either 15,000 ft or the aircraft altitude, whichever is lower
Emerg Depress switch/light.
211
What is the purpose of the trim air system
Trim air valves (TAVs provide additional hot air)
212
What is the function of the high-pressure ground external air connection
A high-pressure ground connection, on the left forward side of the wing-to-body fairing, supplies external high pressure air for engine starting or to supply air to one or both air-conditioning packs.
213
Which of the following displays for each zone on the AIR synoptic page
Duct, Selected, Cabin Attendant Variation, Actual
214
When the guarded EMER DEPRESS switch/light is pressed on the PRESSURIZATION panel, cabin altitude increases to ______ or the Aircraft altitude, whichever is less
15,000ft
215
Where do the pressurization system indication display?
Air synoptic page and EICAS
216
Which sections of the aircraft are pressurized?
Flight deck, Cabin, fwd and aft cargo holds.
217
Where are the duct temperatures displayed?
Air synoptic
218
What is not controlled by the guarded DITCHING switch?
Ram air valve.
219
When the L (R) Bleed switch/light is pressed:
Bleed valve closes
220
What are the sources of bleed air
L&R Engines, APU air, EXT air
221
On the AIR panel, which control closes the APU bleed air valve?
APU bleed switch.
222
What records all flight deck digital and voice communications?
CVR
223
What is monitored by the high load event indication function (HLEIF)?
Monitors the aircraft for severe turbulence and hard landing conditions.
*Gusts mentioned in ground school but not in FCOM
224
What does the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) record
Voice and digital parameters
225
Which system records flight parameters?
FDR
226
What does the water and waste system controller monitor?
Temperature, pressure, water levels
227
The vacuum waste system is active when aircraft power is available, the waste tank is not full and the service panel door is closed.
True
228
Which function are monitored by the vacuum waste system?
Waste system servicing, waste collection, waste storage.
229
When is the potable water system active?
The potable water system is automatically activated when:
* Electrical power is available,
* Water is in the potable water tank, and
* The servicing panel door is closed.
