Systems FLIGHT CONTROLS

Question 1

How many PFCC control the FBW, and when is this selected

Answer 1

3 PFCC only 1 in control at a time. Automatically selected at power up
FCOM 1 10-02-4

Question 2

PFCC’s receive commands from the flight deck controls through the ___

Answer 2

Inceptor Interface Modules IIM’s
FCOM 1 10-02-4

Question 3

In the FBW system, what transmits commands from the PFCC’s to the hydraulic Power Control Units PCU’s of the control surfaces

Answer 3

Remote Electronics Units REU’s
FCOM 1 10-02-3 10-02-7

Question 4

How many REU’s are there in the aircraft

Answer 4

10
FCOM 1 10-02-7

Question 5

The Alternate Flight Control Unit AFCU bypasses the ___ if there is a severe FBW system degradation

Answer 5

REU’s
FCOM 1 10-02-7

Question 6

What does the Normal Mode sidestick soft limit (soft stop) provide

Answer 6

A tactile cue at the edge of the operational envelope
FCOM 1 10-02-15

Question 7

On the ground with sidestick in neutral position the elevator is automatically set to ___ deg nose down up to ___ kts and decreases to ___ deg by ___ kts

Answer 7

12 deg nose down up to 80 kts
decreases to 0 deg by 90 kts
FCOM 1 10-02-15 & 10-02-22

Question 8

What is aileron lift augmentation

Answer 8

Ailerons deploy symmetrically down for lift augmentation from 0-10 deg as flaps deploy and retract on flap retraction. Roll assist has priority over this function
FCOM 1 10-02-27

Question 9

What happens when the sidesticks are moved simultaneously in the same or opposite direction

Answer 9

The FBW system adds the signals of both algebraically
DUAL flag on the PFD
DUAL INPUT aural message
FCOM 1 10-03-11

Question 10

When will the SPOILER DEPLOY message be displayed

Answer 10

Amber Caution Flight Spoiler deployed below 300 ft
Cyan Advisory Flight Spoiler deployed with either gear deployed or flaps 4 or 5
FCOM 1 10-04-6
10-04-20
10-04-21

Question 11

What are the alternate Air Data sources for the Captain’s PFD
How are they selected

Answer 11

ADSP 4 - 2 - 3
Automatically with a failure or ADS switch on reversion panel
FCOM 1 08-07-5

Question 12

Selecting the ALTN FLAP switch to DPLY drives the slats/flaps to which position

Answer 12

Position 3
FCOM 1 10-05-4

Question 13

What is the maximum altitude for extended slats/flaps

Answer 13

20,000 ft
AFM Limitations 02-09-1

Question 14

The nose up Pitch Attitude Protection PAP limit is

Answer 14

30 deg
FCOM 1 10-02-17

Question 15

Between 140 - 130 kts the nose up Pitch Attitude limit decreases from 30 to

Answer 15

26 deg
FCOM 1 10-02-17

Question 16

On the ground the nose up pitch attitude limit is

Answer 16

17 deg
FCOM 1 10-02-18

Question 17

The nose down pitch attitude limit is

Answer 17

-20 deg
FCOM 1 10-02-17

Question 18

Yaw damper function is enabled at ___ T/O and disabled at ___ LDG

Answer 18

60 kts
FCOM 1 10-02-22

Question 19

Speed trimming and Auto trim are enabled ___ sec after Ground to Air transition

Answer 19

1 sec
FCOM 1 10-02-24

Question 20

Ground to Air transition begins with _____ and ends approx ____ sec after ____

Answer 20

Nose gear wheels lift off
1-3 seconds
WoW
FCOM 1 10-02-24

Question 21

Wing Drag Optimization deploys ailerons symetrically ___ deg trailing edge down to provide drag reduction

Answer 21

2 deg
FCOM 1 10-02-28

Question 22

Bank angle is limited to ___ deg either side

Answer 22

80 deg
FCOM 1 10-02-31

Question 23

Maximum roll rate at full sidestick deflection is ___ deg/sec and reduces to ___deg/sec at Max AoA

Answer 23

20 deg/sec
reduces to 10 deg/sec
FCOM 1 10-02-33

Question 24

To reduce wing bending moment maneuvers between 1.55 and 2.1 g the ailerons are commanded to ___ deg trailing edge up TEU

Answer 24

10 deg
FCOM 1 10-02-33

Question 25

Gust Load Alleviation when aircraft is clean

Answer 25

Deflects ailerons TEU when Multifunction Spoilers MFS deploy above 5 deg FCOM 1 10-02-34

Question 26

Partial Yaw Compensation

Answer 26

Rolls A/C up to max 20 deg into failed engine and sideslip of 5 deg or less FCOM 1 10-02-34

Question 27

In Normal mode when L or R thrust lever >24 deg or during Hi AoA conditions the Multi Function Spoilers MFS’s

Answer 27

Automatically retract to stowed position and SPOILER MISMATCH advisory displayed on EICAS FCOM 1 10-04-6

Question 28

On LDG MFS's, Ground Spoilers and Ailerons automatically

Answer 28

Fully extend in Normal mode, does not require arming FCOM 1 10-04-11

Question 29

Spoilers are armed on the ground when wheel spin up is

Answer 29

> 60 kts FCOM 1 10-04-11

Question 30

Spoiler deployment occurs on LDG when

Answer 30

WoW sensed, RadAlt < 7 ft and wheel speed > 16 kt GS also require pitch attitude < 2.5 deg FCOM 1 10-04-11

Question 31

In Normal mode the Stabiliser position is determined by the

Answer 31

FBW Control Laws CLAWS. The Autotrim function automatically offloads the Stabiliser FCOM 1 10-04-13

Question 32

The PFCC will disable trimming in the air if the trim switch is held for more than

Answer 32

3 secs FCOM 1 10-04-16

Question 33

The slats and flaps are hydraulically actuated and electrically controlled by

Answer 33

The two Slat/Flap Electronic Control Units SFECU's in the mid equipment bay FCOM 1 10-05-1

Question 34

The Slat system uses pressure from the

Answer 34

Hydraulic system No 2 & 3 FCOM 1 10-05-2

Question 35

The Flap system uses pressure from the

Answer 35

Hydraulic systems No 1 & 3 FCOM 1 10-05-2

Question 36

The Slats & Flaps are each operated by

Answer 36

Two hydraulic motors in the Power Drive Units PDU's through a system of rigid torque tubes and rotary geared actuators FCOM 1 10-05-2

Question 37

The Slat Flap systems can operate on one motor and one Hydraulic system but at

Answer 37

Half Speed FCOM 1 10-05-2

Question 38

How many PFCC's are installed

Answer 38

3 FCOM 1 03-03-1

Question 39

What do the Inceptor Interface Modules IIM do

Answer 39

They receive data from the flight deck controls and transmit it to the PFCC's Each IIM is connected to the 3 PFCC's FCOM 1 10-02-4

Question 40

What flap configurations are available for T/O

Answer 40

2,3 and 4 FCOM 1 10-05-4

Question 41

If a flight control check is required at the end of a flight, what are the steps

Answer 41

Ensure N1 and N2 are 0, HYD 2B on, HYD 3B on, PTU on, Avionics SYN page, AVIO, test FLT CTRL, confirm pass, PTU off, HYD 3B off, HYD 2B off FCOM 2 03-02-101

Question 42

How many PFCC's are required to be lost before PFCC Direct mode is activated

Answer 42

2 FCOM 1 10-02-40

Question 43

What other functions are lost in REU Direct mode in addition to functions lost in PFCC Direct mode

Answer 43

No selection of sidestick authority, Ground spoilers not avail, no auto ground lift dumping, Pitch trim rate is a function of slat/flap position but slower than PFCC Direct mode FCOM 1 10-02-41

Question 44

What slat/flap positions are available for landing (without any faults)

Answer 44

4 & 5 Flap 3 with ALTN FLP DEPLOY FCOM 1 10-05-4

Question 45

What are the components of the AFCS

Answer 45

Flight Director, Autopilot, Autoland & Autothrottle FCOM 1 03-01-1

Question 46

What are the guidance modes commanded by the Flight Director system

Answer 46

Lateral, Vertical and Multi Axis FCOM 1 03-02-4

Question 47

If the XFR switch on the FCP is selected in flight, what modes does the FD revert to

Answer 47

Resets the FD to Basic modes HDG & FPA FCOM 1 03-02-7 03-06-15

Question 48

If climbing or descending to an altitude selected on the FCP and the ALT button was pressed on the FCP, what will the aircraft do (assuming AP & AT are on)

Answer 48

The aircraft will climb or descend to the altitude when the ALT was pressed FCOM 1 03-02-35

Question 49

When does the message NO VPATH XKE appear

Answer 49

When the cross track error exceeds 10 nm FCOM 1 03-02-52

Question 50

When does the message NO PATH TKE appear

Answer 50

When the track angle error exceeds 75 deg FCOM 1 03-02-50