Type II Hypersensitivity Flashcards

1
Q

Which antibodies are typically involved in Type II hypersensitivity, and how do they lead to cell damage or dysfunction?

A) Immunoglobulin A (IgA) antibodies that cause cell damage through direct cytotoxicity.
B) Immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies that block the binding of a ligand to a surface receptor.
C) Immunoglobulin G (IgG) or immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies that lead to cell damage by complement-mediated lysis or other mechanisms, dysfunction of the cell by blocking the binding of a ligand to a surface receptor, or overstimulation of a cell’s function.
D) Immunoglobulin D (IgD) antibodies that promote cell damage through cell-mediated cytotoxicity.

A

C) Immunoglobulin G (IgG) or immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies that lead to cell damage by complement-mediated lysis or other mechanisms, dysfunction of the cell by blocking the binding of a ligand to a surface receptor, or overstimulation of a cell’s function.

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2
Q

Which of the following conditions are associated with Type II hypersensitivity reactions?

A) Rheumatoid arthritis and asthma
B) Systemic lupus erythematosus and psoriasis
C) Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDFN) and immediate
D) Type 1 diabetes and multiple sclerosis

A

C) Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDFN) and immediate

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3
Q

When an antibody binds to a cell, what is one of the major effects that can occur?

a. The cell can be destroyed.
b. The function of the cell can be inhibited.
c. The function of the cell can be increased above normal.
d. The cell can replicate rapidly.

A

a. The cell can be destroyed.

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4
Q

In the autoimmune disease myasthenia gravis, the attachment of autoantibodies to the ACH receptor results in what effect?

a. Muscle strength improvement
b. Increased energy production
c. Muscle weakness
d. Increased neurotransmitter production

A

c. Muscle weakness.

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5
Q

In Graves Disease, where antibodies are produced against the receptor for TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone), what is the major effect on the thyroid function?

a. Reduced thyroid hormone production
b. Normal thyroid function
c. Hyperthyroidism
d. Hypothyroidism

A

c. Hyperthyroidism.

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6
Q

Which mechanism can lead to the formation of the membrane attack complex and cell lysis?

A) Coating of the cell surface by antibodies

B) Activation of the classical pathway of complement

C) Opsonization of the cells by phagocytes

D) Antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)

A

B) Activation of the classical pathway of complement

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7
Q

How can opsonization and subsequent phagocytosis of cells occur?

A) Binding of IgG antibody to its corresponding antigen on the target cell

B) Binding of cell surface C3b to complement receptors on phagocytic cells

C) Coating of the cell surface by antibodies

D) Activation of the classical pathway of complement

A

B) Binding of cell surface C3b to complement receptors on phagocytic cells.

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8
Q

Which mechanism involves the binding of IgG antibody to its corresponding antigen on the target cell and to Fc receptors on macrophages or natural killer cells?

A) Activation of the classical pathway of complement

B) Coating of the cell surface by antibodies

C) Antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)

D) Opsonization of the cells by phagocytes

A

C) Antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)

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9
Q

Which of the following conditions is primarily associated with the destruction of cells by type II hypersensitivity?

A) Influenza infection
B) Allergic rhinitis
C) Blood transfusion reactions, hemolytic anemia
D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

A

C) Blood transfusion reactions, hemolytic anemia

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10
Q

Which factor determines the temperature at which an antibody is most active in a transfusion reaction?

A) The plasma concentration of the antibody
B) The immunoglobulin class involved
C) The extent of complement activation
D) The density of the antigen on the RBC

A

B) The immunoglobulin class involved

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11
Q

In transfusion reactions, why can a reaction occurring only below 30°C be disregarded?

A) Antibodies are inactive at lower temperatures
B) Antigen-antibody complexes are more stable at lower temperatures
C) Complement activation is less effective at lower temperatures
D) RBCs are less affected at lower temperatures

A

B) Antigen-antibody complexes are more stable at lower temperatures

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12
Q

What factor affects the plasma concentration of antibodies in transfusion reactions?

A) The temperature of the reaction
B) The immunoglobulin class involved
C) The extent of complement activation
D) The number of RBCs transfused

A

D) The number of RBCs transfused

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13
Q

Which of the following factors contributes to the extent of complement activation in a transfusion reaction?

A) The temperature at which the antibody is most active
B) The plasma concentration of the antibody
C) The immunoglobulin class involved
D) The density of the antigen on the RBC

A

A) The temperature at which the antibody is most active

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14
Q

In transfusion reactions, what does the density of the antigen on the RBC affect?

A) The temperature at which the antibody is most active
B) The plasma concentration of the antibody
C) The immunoglobulin class involved
D) The extent of complement activation

A

D) The extent of complement activation

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15
Q

Which factor influences the number of RBCs transfused in a transfusion reaction?

A) The temperature at which the antibody is most active
B) The plasma concentration of the antibody
C) The immunoglobulin class involved
D) The extent of complement activation

A

B) The plasma concentration of the antibody

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16
Q

Which factor does a transfusion reaction primarily depend on?

A) The density of the antigen on the RBC
B) The age of the recipient
C) The temperature of the blood
D) The donor’s blood type

A

A) The density of the antigen on the RBC

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17
Q

Which type of blood group incompatibility is associated with immediate reactions, often involving IgM antibodies?

A) ABO blood group incompatibilities
B) Intravascular hemolysis
C) Anamnestic response
D) Immediate transfusion reactions

A

A) ABO blood group incompatibilities

18
Q

What is the primary cause of intravascular hemolysis following complement activation, leading to disseminated intravascular coagulation, vascular collapse, and renal failure?

A) ABO blood group incompatibilities
B) Intravascular hemolysis
C) Anamnestic response
D) Immediate transfusion reactions

A

B) Intravascular hemolysis

19
Q

Delayed hemolytic reactions typically occur within the first 2 weeks following a transfusion due to the presence of which type of antibodies and blood groups?

A) ABO blood group incompatibilities
B) Intravascular hemolysis
C) Anamnestic response
D) Immediate transfusion reactions

A

C) Anamnestic response (Rh, Kell, Duffy, and Kidd blood groups)

20
Q

Immediate transfusion reactions are most commonly associated with which blood group antigens?

A) ABO blood group incompatibilities
B) Intravascular hemolysis
C) Anamnestic response
D) Immediate transfusion reactions

A

D) Immediate transfusion reactions (Rh, Kell, and Duffy antigens)

21
Q

Bilirubin levels above 20 mg/dl can lead to the deposition of bilirubin in tissues, resulting in a condition known as:

A) Kernicterus
B) Hemolysis
C) Anemia
D) Thrombocytopenia

A

A) Kernicterus

22
Q

When is Rhogam, anti-D immune globulin, administered prophylactically during pregnancy and after delivery?

A) At 20 weeks of gestation and within 24 hours following delivery.

B) At 28 weeks of gestation and within 72 hours following delivery.

C) At 10 weeks of gestation and within 48 hours following delivery.

D) At 36 weeks of gestation and within 12 hours following delivery.

A

B) At 28 weeks of gestation and within 72 hours following delivery.

23
Q

What is the underlying cause of antibody production in idiopathic autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A) Penicillins and cephalosporins
B) Quinidine and phenacetin
C) Methyldopa
D) Unknown

A

D) Unknown

24
Q

Which drugs act as haptens after binding to proteins on the RBC membrane?

A) Corticosteroids
B) Quinidine and phenacetin
C) Methyldopa
D) Penicillins and cephalosporins

A

D) Penicillins and cephalosporins

25
Q

What drugs stimulate the production of anti-drug antibodies that bind to the drug to form soluble immune complexes?

A) Corticosteroids
B) Methyldopa
C) Quinidine and phenacetin
D) Anti-CD 20 (rituximab)

A

C) Quinidine and phenacetin

26
Q

Which drug is known to induce hemolytic anemia?

A) Methyldopa
B) Corticosteroid
C) Anti-CD 20 (rituximab)
D) Quinidine

A

A) Methyldopa

27
Q

What is the treatment for warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A) Corticosteroid
B) Anti-CD 20 (rituximab)
C) Methyldopa
D) Quinidine

A

A) Corticosteroid

28
Q

Which type of IgG subclass is most affected by the severity of hemolysis in autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A) IgG1
B) IgG3
C) IgG2
D) IgG4

A

B) IgG3

29
Q

Which treatment is refractory to corticosteroids and splenectomy in autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A) Methyldopa
B) Quinidine and phenacetin
C) Anti-CD 20 (rituximab)
D) Idiopathic autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

C) Anti-CD 20 (rituximab)

30
Q

Which statement is true regarding Cold agglutinins?

A) They are IgG class antibodies and are specific for the Ii blood groups on RBCs.

B) They lead to the fixation of complement.

C) They are coated with C3b, and the entire classical pathway is activated, leading to intravascular hemolysis.

D) They are IgA class antibodies and have no specific binding to RBC antigens.

A

C) They are coated with C3b, and the entire classical pathway is activated, leading to intravascular hemolysis.

31
Q

Which condition is associated with polyclonal cold agglutinins?

A) Acrocyanosis
B) Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
C) Mycoplasma pneumonia
D) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

C) Mycoplasma pneumonia

32
Q

What are the typical symptoms of acrocyanosis?
A) Blue coloration and autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B) Becoming numb and slightly painful
C) Respiratory viruses and HIV
D) Polyclonal cold agglutinins

A

B) Becoming numb and slightly painful

33
Q

Which condition is characterized by autoimmune hemolytic anemia triggered by cold exposure?
A) Infectious mononucleosis
B) Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
C) Mycoplasma pneumonia
D) Acrocyanosis

A

B) Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria

34
Q

What medical conditions or diseases are associated with monoclonal cold agglutinins?

A
  • B-cell or plasma cell lymphoproliferative disorders
  • Including B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
  • B-cell lymphomas
  • Hodgkin disease
  • Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
  • As well as autoimmune diseases like systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
35
Q

What condition is characterized by a blue coloration, becoming numb, stiff, and slightly painful?

A) Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
B) Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)
C) Cold agglutination
D) Acrocyanosis

A

D) Acrocyanosis

36
Q

Which term represents autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A) Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
B) Polyspecific anti-human globulin
C) Indirect Coombs’ test
D) Clinically significant

A

A) Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria

37
Q

Which term refers to a mixture of antibodies used for initial testing and may yield a positive result, prompting a repeat test with monospecific antibodies?

A) Acrocyanosis
B) Polyspecific anti-human globulin
C) Indirect Coombs’ test
D) Cold agglutination

A

B) Polyspecific anti-human globulin

38
Q

Which of the following terms is associated with detecting transfusion reactions, Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN), and autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A) Acrocyanosis
B) Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
C) Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)
D) Polyspecific anti-human globulin

A

C) Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)

39
Q

What test is used for crossmatching to prevent transfusion reactions in vitro?

A) Acrocyanosis
B) Indirect Coombs’ test
C) Cold agglutination
D) Clinically significant

A

B) Indirect Coombs’ test

40
Q

What term refers to patient serum being diluted and incubated at 4°C?

A) Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)
B) Polyspecific anti-human globulin
C) Cold agglutination
D) Clinically significant

A

C) Cold agglutination

41
Q

What titer is considered clinically significant in these contexts?

A) 64 or higher titer
B) Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
C) Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)
D) Indirect Coombs’ test

A

A) 64 or higher titer