HYPERSENSITIVITY Flashcards

1
Q

What is hypersensitivity characterized by?

A) An appropriate response to antigens
B) A lack of response to antigens
C) An exaggerated response to typically harmless antigens
D) A complete lack of response to all antigens

A

C) An exaggerated response to typically harmless antigens

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2
Q

Who devised the four-classification system in immunology?

A) Peter G.H. Gell
B) Robert R.A. Coombs
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B

A

C) Both A and B

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3
Q

What is the key immunoglobulin involved in Type I hypersensitivity reactions?

A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgM
D) IgE

A

D) IgE

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4
Q

Which cells have receptors for IgE antibodies and play a central role in Type I hypersensitivity reactions?

A) T cells
B) B cells
C) Mast cells and basophils
D) Red blood cells

A

C) Mast cells and basophils

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5
Q

What is another common name for Type I hypersensitivity reactions?

A) Type IV hypersensitivity
B) Delayed hypersensitivity
C) Anaphylactic hypersensitivity
D) Autoimmune hypersensitivity

A

C) Anaphylactic hypersensitivity

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6
Q

What are the common allergic symptoms associated with Type I hypersensitivity reactions?

A) High fever and sore throat
B) Hives and anemia
C) Hay fever , allergic
asthma , hives & systemic
anaphylaxis
D) Skin rashes and joint pain

A

C) Hay fever , allergic
asthma , hives & systemic
anaphylaxis

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7
Q

How quickly do immediate reactions typically occur in Type I hypersensitivity?

A) Days
B) Weeks
C) Hours or minutes
D) Months

A

C) Hours or minutes

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8
Q

Which of the following can trigger Type I hypersensitivity reactions?

A) Bacterial infections
B) Peanuts, eggs, and pollen
C) Physical injuries
D) Excessive exercise

A

B) Peanuts, eggs, and pollen

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9
Q

Who are known for their contribution to understanding Type I hypersensitivity through passive cutaneous anaphylaxis?

A) Marie Curie and Albert Einstein
B) Carl Wilhelm Prausnitz and Heins Kustner
C) Thomas Edison and Nikola Tesla
D) Charles Darwin and Gregor Mendel

A

B) Carl Wilhelm Prausnitz and Heins Kustner

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10
Q

What are the principal effector cells of immediate hypersensitivity in Type I hypersensitivity?

A) Eosinophils
B) IgE regulation
C) Type 2 helper cells (TH2)
D) Mast cells

A

D) Mast cells

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11
Q

Which cytokines, when secreted, lead to the synthesis of epsilon heavy chains in IgE antibodies?

A) Eosinophils
B) IL-4, IL-13
C) Type 2 helper cells (TH2)
D) Mast cells

A

B) IL-4, IL-13

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12
Q

Which subset of T cells, also known as Type 2 helper cells, is associated with Type I hypersensitivity?

A) Eosinophils
B) IgE regulation
C) Type 2 helper cells (TH2)
D) Mast cells

A

C) Type 2 helper cells (TH2)

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13
Q

In Type I hypersensitivity reactions, which immune cells are primarily involved in the response?

A) T Cells
B) Eosinophils
C) Neutrophils
D) Macrophages

A

B) Eosinophils

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14
Q

What is the sequence of events in Type I hypersensitivity?

A

• IgE-> B CELLS & PLASMA CELLS->
LYMPHOID TISSUE- > RESPI & GIT

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15
Q

During the sensitization phase of an immune response, what binds to the fragment crystallizable region of the epsilon heavy chain on mast cells?

a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgE

A

D) IgE

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16
Q

Which process involves the cross-linking of adjacent cell-bound IgE molecules by a bivalent or multivalent antigen, leading to the aggregation of surface FcεRI receptors?

A) Phagocytosis
B) Endocytosis
C) Activation
D) Differentiation

A

C) Activation

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17
Q

What is the most abundant preformed mediator or primary mediator found in mast cells, comprising approximately 10% of the total weight of the granules?

A) Leukotrienes
B) Prostaglandins
C) Interleukins
D) Histamine

A

D) Histamine

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18
Q

What are some of the primary mediators involved in the process of activation?

A
  1. Heparin
  2. Eosinophil chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis (ECF-A)
  3. Neutrophil chemotactic factor, and proteases.
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19
Q

Which mediators are responsible for the late-phase allergic reaction that can occur 6 to 8 hours after exposure to an antigen?

A) Primary mediators
B) Tertiary mediators
C) Secondary mediators
D) Quaternary mediators

A

C) Secondary mediators

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20
Q

What are some of the cells that exit the circulation and infiltrate allergen-filled tissue during the late phase of the allergic response?

A

• Eosinophils, neutrophils, Th2 cells, mast cells, basophils, and macrophages are among the cells that infiltrate the tissue during the late phase of the allergic response.

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21
Q

Name some of the mediators released during the late phase of the allergic response.

A

• Platelet-activating factor (PAF)
• Prostaglandin (PG) D2
• Leukotrienes (LT) B4, C4, D4, and E4
• Cytokines 1,2,9

22
Q

Primary (Performed)
Mediator
Histamine

Actions
___________

A
  • Smooth muscle contraction, vasodilation, increased vascular permeability.
23
Q

Primary (Performed)
Mediator
Heparin

Actions
____________

A
  • Smooth muscle contraction, vasodilation, increased vascular permeability.
24
Q

Primary (Performed)
Mediator
Eosinophil chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis (ECF-A)

Actions
____________

A
  • Chemotactic for Eosinophils
25
Q

Primary (formed)
Mediator
Neutrophil chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis ( NCF-A)

Actions
______________

A
  • Chemotactic for Neutrophil
26
Q

Primary (Performed)
Mediator
Proteases (e.g., tryptase, chymase)

Actions
___________

A
  • Convert to C3 to C3b, stimulate mucus production, activate cytokines.
27
Q

Secondary (Newly Synthesized)
Mediator
Prostaglandin PGD2

Actions
____________

A
  • Vasodilation, increased vascular permeability.
28
Q

Secondary (Newly Synthesized)
Mediator
Leukotriene LTB4

Actions
___________

A
  • Chemotactic for neutrophils, eosinophils.
29
Q

Secondary (Newly Synthesized)
Mediator
Leukotrienes LTC4, LTD4, LTE4

Actions
_______________

A
  • Increased vascular permeability, bronchoconstriction, mucus secretion.
30
Q

Secondary (Newly Synthesized)
Mediator
Platelet activating factor (PAF)

Actions
_____________

A
  • Platelet aggregation
31
Q

Secondary (Newly Synthesized)
Mediator
Cytokines IL-1,IL-3,IL-4,IL-5,IL-6,IL-9,IL-13,IL-14,IL-16,TNF-α, GM-CSF

Actions
_____________

A
  • Increase inflammatory cells in area, and increase IgE production.
32
Q

Which term refers to an inherited tendency to develop classic allergic responses in Hypersensitivity Type 1?

a. Atopy
b. HLA class II genes
c. Anaphylaxis
d. None of the above

A

a. Atopy

33
Q

Which term is associated with allergy and asthma in the context of Hypersensitivity Type 1?

a. Atopy
b. HLA class II genes
c. Anaphylaxis
d. All of the above

A

b. HLA class II genes

34
Q

Which term describes a severe systemic response in Hypersensitivity Type 1?

a. Atopy
b. HLA class II genes
c. Anaphylaxis
d. Hypoxia

A

c. Anaphylaxis

35
Q

Which of the following is another term commonly used to describe Hypersensitivity Type 1, often affecting 10% to 30% of populations worldwide?

A) Asthma
B) Urticaria
C) Rhinitis
D) Eczema

A

C) Rhinitis

36
Q

In Hypersensitivity Type 1, what are some other terms that describe the symptoms of rhinitis?

A) Paroxysmal sneezing; rhinorrhea, or runny nose; nasal congestion; and itching of the nose and eyes.
B) Difficulty breathing; coughing; chest pain; and wheezing.
C) Nausea; vomiting; abdominal pain; and diarrhea.
D) Joint pain; muscle stiffness; fatigue; and skin rashes.

A

A) Paroxysmal sneezing; rhinorrhea, or runny nose; nasal congestion; and itching of the nose and eyes.

37
Q

Which of the following are other terms or associated conditions that can be noted in Hypersensitivity Type 1, apart from rhinitis?

A) Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)
B) Sinusitis, otitis media (ear infection), eustachian tube dysfunction, and sleep disturbances
C) Hypertension
D) Osteoporosis

A

B) Sinusitis, otitis media (ear infection), eustachian tube dysfunction, and sleep disturbances

38
Q

In Hypersensitivity Type 1, which term is used to describe a condition triggered by tree and grass pollens in the air during the spring in temperate climates, commonly known as “hay fever”?

A) Atopic dermatitis
B) Seasonal rhinitis
C) Contact dermatitis
D) Urticaria

A

B) Seasonal rhinitis

39
Q

Which condition is characterized by “panting” or “breathlessness” and is caused by the inhalation of small particles like pollen, dust, or fumes reaching the lower respiratory tract?

A) Food allergies
B) Atopic eczema
C) Wheal-and-flare reaction
D) Asthma

A

D) Asthma

40
Q

Can be caused by various allergens, including cow’s milk, eggs, nuts, soy, wheat, fish, and shellfish. What type of reaction might spread these allergens through the bloodstream and potentially lead to skin hives, asthma, rhinitis, or anaphylaxis?
A) Local inflammation of the skin
B) Dermatitis
C) Atopic eczema
D) Food allergies

A

D) Food allergies

41
Q

Which of the following terms describes a chronic, itchy skin rash that usually develops during infancy, persists during childhood, and is strongly associated with allergic rhinitis and asthma?

A) Local inflammation of the skin
B) Wheal-and-flare reaction
C) Atopic eczema
D) Acute urticaria

A

C) Atopic eczema

42
Q

Which skin condition can manifest as either acute urticaria or eczema?

A) Local inflammation of the skin
B) Whealand-flare reaction
C) Contact with allergens
D) Pet dander or insect venom

A

A) Local inflammation of the skin

43
Q

What triggers the release of vasoactive mediators from mast cells in the skin in the Whealand-flare reaction?

A) Acute urticaria
B) Eczema
C) Local inflammation of the skin
D) Contact with allergens such as pet dander or insect venom

A

D) Contact with allergens such as pet dander or insect venom

44
Q

What term describes the most severe type of allergic response that simultaneously involves multiple organs, was named by Paul Portier and Charles Richet in 1902, and is typically triggered by glycoproteins or large polypeptides?

A) Hypersensitivity
B) Immunodeficiency
C) Anaphylaxis
D) Autoimmunity

A

C) Anaphylaxis

45
Q

What is the recommended treatment for systemic anaphylaxis to quickly reverse potentially fatal symptoms?

A) Anti-IgE monoclonal antibody
B) Allergy immunotherapy (AIT)
C) Epinephrine
D) Omalizumab

A

C) Epinephrine

46
Q

Which of the following is composed of human IgG framework genes recombined with complementarity determining region genes from mouse anti-human IgE?

A) Systemic anaphylaxis
B) Anti-IgE monoclonal antibody
C) Allergy immunotherapy (AIT)
D) IL-10

A

B) Anti-IgE monoclonal antibody

47
Q

What is the primary goal of allergy immunotherapy (AIT)?

A) To administer epinephrine in case of anaphylactic reactions
B) To shift the patient’s immune response to a Th1-type response
C) To induce the development of B cells
D) To release complementarity determining region genes

A

B) To shift the patient’s immune response to a Th1-type response

48
Q

Which of the following tests involves using radiolabeled IgE to compete with patient IgE for binding sites on a solid phase coated with anti-IgE?

A) RADIOALLERGOSORBENT TEST (RAST)
B) Radioimmunosorbent RIST)
C) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
D) Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)

A

B) Radioimmunosorbent test (RIST)

49
Q

In which test is patient serum combined with a paper disk and various allergens?

A) RADIOALLERGOSORBENT TEST (RAST)
B) Western Blot
C) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
D) Complete Blood Count (CBC)

A

A) RADIOALLERGOSORBENT TEST (RAST)

50
Q

What is the purpose of the Radioimmunosorbent Test (RIST) and how does it work?

A
  • Relies on a “sandwich” technique, where patient serum is mixed with enzyme-labeled anti-IgE, and chemiluminescent substrate is used.
  • The resulting signal is directly proportional to the IgE levels in the patient’s serum.