Tuesday 10th Flashcards

1
Q

High risk of developing pre-eclampsia

A
  • hypertensive disease during previous pregnancies
  • chronic kidney disease
  • autoimmune disorders such as SLE or antiphospholipid syndrome
  • type 1 or 2 diabetes mellitus
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2
Q

Blood pressure in pregnancy

A
  • blood pressure usually falls in the first trimester (particularly the diastolic), and continues to fall until 20-24 weeks
  • after this time the blood pressure usually increases to pre-pregnancy levels by term
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3
Q

Hypertension in pregnancy

A
  • systolic > 140 mmHg or diastolic > 90 mmHg
  • an increase above booking readings of > 30 mmHg systolic or > 15 mmHg diastolic
  • No proteinuria, no oedema
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4
Q

Pseudodementia depression

A

Severe depression can mimic dementia but gives a pattern of global memory loss rather than short-term memory loss

  • less than six months
  • rapid onset
  • biological symptoms e.g. weight loss, sleep disturbance
  • patient worried about poor memory
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5
Q

Evra patch is the only combined contraceptive patch licensed for use in the UK

A
  • The patch cycle lasts 4 weeks
  • For the first 3 weeks, the patch is worn everyday and needs to be changed each week.
  • During the 4th week, the patch is not worn and during this time there will be a withdrawal bleed.
  • Action required if delayed patch change over 48 hours: barrier protection for 7 days and emergency contraception if required
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6
Q

High-risk HPV (hrHPV)

A
  • If hrHPV positive, cytology is performed; if this shows normal cells then the cervical smear test is repeated in 12 months time.
  • If this repeat test is still positive for hrHPV but cytology normal, another repeat test in a further 12 months
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7
Q

Sepsis: RED FLAGs

A
  • Responds only to voice or pain/ unresponsive
  • Acute confusional state
  • Systolic B.P <= 90 mmHg (or drop >40 from normal)
  • Heart rate > 130 per minute
  • Respiratory rate >= 25 per minute
  • Needs oxygen to keep SpO2 >=92%
  • Non-blanching rash, mottled/ ashen/ cyanotic
  • Not passed urine in last 18 h/ UO < 0.5 ml/kg/hr
  • Lactate >=2 mmol/l
  • Recent chemotherapy
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8
Q

Sepsis: fluid resus over 16yr

A
  • use crystalloids that contain sodium in the range 130–154 mmol/litre with a bolus of 500 ml over less than 15 minutes
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9
Q

qSOFA score: Sepsis

A
  • Respiratory rate > 22/min
  • Altered mentation
  • Systolic blood pressure < 100 mm Hg
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10
Q

Sepsis: Amber flags

A
  • Relatives concerned about mental status
  • Acute deterioration in functional ability
  • Immunosuppressed
  • Trauma/ surgery/ procedure in last 6 weeks
  • Respiratory rate 21-24
  • Systolic B.P 91-100 mmHg
  • Heart rate 91-130 OR new dysrhythmia
  • Not passed urine in last 12-18 hours
  • Temperature < 36ºC
  • Clinical signs of wound, device or skin infection
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11
Q

SEPSIS SIX

A
  1. Administer oxygen: Aim to keep saturations > 94% (88-92% if at risk of CO2 retention e.g. COPD)
  2. Take blood cultures
  3. Give broad spectrum antibiotics
  4. Give intravenous fluid challenges: NICE recommend a bolus of 500ml crystalloid over less than 15 minutes
  5. Measure serum lactate
  6. Measure accurate hourly urine output
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12
Q

Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA)

A
  • PaO2 /FI O2 <400
  • Platelets x103 microlitres <150
  • Bilirubin µmol/L >20
  • Cardiovascular: MAP <70mmHg
  • GCS <15
  • Creatinine µmol/L > 110
  • Urine output ml/day <500
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13
Q

human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine

A

all 12- and 13-year-olds in school Year 8

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14
Q

Suxamethonium

A
  • Depolarising neuromuscular blocker
  • Inhibits action of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
  • Degraded by plasma cholinesterase and acetylcholinesterase
  • Fastest onset and shortest duration of action of all muscle relaxants
  • Produces generalised muscular contraction prior to paralysis
  • Adverse effects include hyperkalaemia, malignant hyperthermia and lack of acetylcholinesterase
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15
Q

Asthma: diagnosis

Patients >= 17 years

A
  • patients should be asked if their symptoms are better on days away from work/during holidays. If so, patients should be referred to a specialist as possible occupational asthma
  • all patients should have spirometry: FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70%
  • bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test: in adults, a positive test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and increase in volume of 200 ml or more- - all patients should have a FeNO test: >= 40 parts per billion (ppb)
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16
Q

Acute otitis externa

A
  • Boil in external auditory meatus
  • Acute pain on moving the pinna
  • Conductive hearing loss if lesion is large
  • When rupture occurs pus will flow from ear
  • Ear packs may be used
  • Topical antibiotics
  • Operative debridement may be needed in severe cases
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17
Q

Chronic otitis externa

A
  • Chronic combined infection in the external auditory meatus usually combined staphylococcal and fungal infection
  • Chronic discharge from affected ear, hearing loss and severe pain rare
  • Cleansing of the external ear and treatment with antifungal and antibacterial ear drops
18
Q

Acute suppurative otitis media

A
  • Viral induced middle ear effusions secondary to Eustacian tube dysfunction
  • Most common in children and rare in adults
  • May present with symptoms elsewhere (e.g. vomiting) in children
  • Severe pain and sometimes fever
  • May present with discharge if tympanic rupture occurs
  • Antibiotics (usually amoxycillin)
19
Q

Chronic suppurative otitis media

A

1) Those without cholesteatoma have a perforation of the pars tensa,
> may complain of intermittent discharge (non offensive),
> Simple pars tensa perforations may be managed non operatively or a myringoplasty considered if symptoms troublesome

2)Those with cholesteatoma have a perforation of the pars flaccida
> impaired hearing and foul smelling discharge
> Pars flaccida perforations will usually require a radical mastoidectomy

20
Q

Otosclerosis

A
  • Progressive conductive deafness
  • Secondary to fixation of the stapes in the oval window
  • Treatment is with stapedectomy and insertion of a prosthesis
21
Q

Acoustic neuroma

A
  • Symptoms of gradually progressive unilateral perceptive deafness and tinnitus
  • Involvement of the vestibular nerve may cause vertigo
  • Extension to involve the facial nerve may cause weakness and then paralysis.
22
Q

Pre auricular sinus

A
  • Common congenital condition in which an epithelial defect forms around the external ear
  • Small sinuses require no treatment
  • Deeper sinuses may become blocked and develop episodes of infection, they may be closely related to the facial nerve and are challenging to excise
23
Q

Risk factors for breech presentation

A
  • uterine malformations, fibroids
  • placenta praevia
  • polyhydramnios or oligohydramnios
  • fetal abnormality (e.g. CNS malformation, chromosomal disorders)
  • prematurity (due to increased incidence earlier in gestation)
24
Q

Delirium tremens - alcohol withdrawal

A
  • coarse tremor, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, tachycardia
  • oral Chlordiazepoxide
  • Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure
25
Q

Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol (CIWA) score

A

used for the management of alcohol withdrawal in hospital

26
Q

Alcohol withdrawal

A
  • Minor alcohol withdrawal symptoms such as tremor, anxiety and headache start approximately 6-12 hours after alcohol is stopped
  • alcoholic hallucinosis after 12-24 hours
  • withdrawal seizures and delirium tremens from 48 hours onwards
27
Q

IV levetiracetam

A

anti-seizure medication

28
Q

IV pabrinex

A

prevent the development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy

29
Q

drug-induced Parkinsonism

A
  • symmetrical tremour
  • antipsychotics can precipitate Parkinsonism
  • atypical presentation of a younger female
30
Q

idiopathic Parkinson’s disease

A
  • unilateral resting tremor
  • bradykinesia
  • other classic symptoms and signs
31
Q

Causes of Parkinsonism

A
  • Parkinson’s disease
  • drug-induced e.g. antipsychotics, metoclopramide*
  • progressive supranuclear palsy
  • multiple system atrophy
  • Wilson’s disease
  • post-encephalitis
  • dementia pugilistica (secondary to chronic head trauma e.g. boxing)
  • toxins: carbon monoxide, MPTP
32
Q

Antipsychotics: Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs)

A
  • Parkinsonism
  • acute dystonia: sustained muscle contraction (e.g. torticollis, oculogyric crisis)
  • akathisia (severe restlessness)
  • tardive dyskinesia (late onset of choreoathetoid movements, abnormal, involuntary, may occur in 40% of patients, may be irreversible, most common is chewing and pouting of jaw)
  • managed with procyclidine
33
Q

Antipsychotics: Other side-effects

A
  • antimuscarinic: dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation
  • sedation, weight gain
  • raised prolactin
    > may result in galactorrhoea
    > due to inhibition of the dopaminergic
    tuberoinfundibular pathway
  • impaired glucose tolerance
  • neuroleptic malignant syndrome: pyrexia, muscle stiffness
  • reduced seizure threshold (greater with atypicals)
  • prolonged QT interval (particularly haloperidol)
34
Q

Antipsychotics

A

dopamine D2 receptor antagonists, blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways

  • used in elderly patients:
    > increased risk of stroke
    > increased risk of venous thromboembolism
35
Q

clozapine

A

atypical antipsychotic

36
Q

Acute pancreatitis: causes

A

Gallstones
Ethanol
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps (other viruses include Coxsackie B)
Autoimmune (e.g. polyarteritis nodosa), Ascaris infection
Scorpion venom
Hypertriglyceridaemia, Hyperchylomicronaemia, Hypercalcaemia, Hypothermia
ERCP
Drugs (azathioprine, mesalazine*, didanosine, bendroflumethiazide, furosemide, pentamidine, steroids, sodium valproate)

37
Q

COPD should be suspected in anyone aged over 35, with any risk factors (eg smoking) with:

A
  • exertional dyspnoea
  • a chronic cough (3 months +)
  • regular sputum production
  • regular winter bronchitis
  • wheeze
38
Q

suspected renal colic

A

Non-contrast CT-KUB

  • calcification in the renal collecting system or ureter,
  • hydronephrosis
  • and/or perinephric stranding.
39
Q

renal colic

A
  • acute, severe, ‘loin-to-groin’ pain
  • nausea and or vomiting
  • Obesity risk factor for the development of renal calculi
40
Q

Renal colic: initial investigations

A
  • urine dipstick and culture
  • serum creatinine and electrolytes: check renal function
  • FBC / CRP: look for associated infection
  • calcium/urate: look for underlying causes
  • clotting if percutaneous intervention planned
  • blood cultures if pyrexial or other signs of sepsis