Sunday 15th Flashcards

1
Q

Hepatitis A

A
  • incubation period: 2-4 weeks, RNA picornavirus
  • transmission is by faecal-oral spread, often in institutions
  • doesn’t cause chronic disease
  • flu-like symptoms,
  • RUQ pain
  • tender hepatomegaly
  • cholestatic LFTs: significantly raised ALT
  • jaundice
  • an effective vaccine is available
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2
Q

Ascending cholangitis

A
  • fever
  • right upper quadrant pain
  • jaundice
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3
Q

Acute coronary syndrome

A

All patients should receive:

  • aspirin 300mg
  • nitrates or morphine to relieve chest pain if required
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4
Q

ECG there is deep ST depression in I-III, aVF, and V3-V6

A

Deep and widespread ST depression is associated with very high mortality because it signifies severe ischemia usually of LAD or left main origin

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5
Q

Fondaparinux

A

patients who are not at a high risk of bleeding and who are not having angiography within the next 24 hours

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6
Q

unfractionated heparin

A

angiography is likely within 24 hours or a patients creatinine is > 265 µmol/l

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7
Q

Ticagrelor and Prasugrel

A

patient is going to have a percutaneous coronary intervention

  • They should generally be given to all patients and continued for 12 months, although this may vary according to bleeding and ischaemic risk
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8
Q

Intravenous glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists (eptifibatide or tirofiban)

A

patients who have an intermediate or higher risk of adverse cardiovascular events (predicted 6-month mortality above 3.0%), and who are scheduled to undergo angiography within 96 hours of hospital admission

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9
Q

Coronary angiography

A
  • considered within 96 hours of first admission to hospital to patients who have a predicted 6-month mortality above 3.0%
  • It should also be performed as soon as possible in patients who are clinically unstable.
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10
Q

Coronary angiography

A
  • considered within 96 hours of first admission to hospital to patients who have a predicted 6-month mortality above 3.0%
  • It should also be performed as soon as possible in patients who are clinically unstable
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11
Q

Cullens sign

A

Severe acute peri-umbilical bruising in the setting of acute pancreatitis

  • when there has been intra-abdominal haemorrage
  • seen in cases of severe haemorrhagic pancreatitis and is associated with a poor prognosis
  • also seen in other cases of intra-abdominal haemorrhage (such as ruptured ectopic pregnancy)
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12
Q

Boas’ sign

A

In acute cholecystitis there is hyperaesthesia beneath the right scapula

  • because the abdominal wall innervation of this region is from the spinal roots that lie at this level
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13
Q

Rovsing’s sign

A

In appendicitis palpation of the left iliac fossa causes pain in the right iliac fossa

  • because the deep palpation induces shift of the appendix (which is inflamed) against the peritoneal surface. This has somatic innervation and will therefore localise the pain
  • It is less reliable in pelvic appendicitis and when the appendix is truly retrocaecal
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14
Q

Murphys sign

A

Asking the patient to take in and hold a deep breath while palpating the right subcostal area&raquo_space; If pain occurs on inspiration, when the inflamed gallbladder comes into contact with the examiner’s hand

  • Typically, it is positive in cholecystitis, but negative in choledocholithiasis, pyelonephritis, and ascending cholangitis.
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15
Q

Grey-Turners sign

A

bruising of the flanks

  • Severe, acute pancreatitis due to subcutaneous tracking of inflammatory, peripancreatic exudate from the pancreatic area of the retroperitoneum
  • Pancreatic hemorrhage
  • Retroperitoneal hemorrhage
  • Blunt abdominal trauma
  • Ruptured / haemorrhagic ectopic pregnancy
  • Ruptured ovarian cyst
  • Ruptured spleen
  • Spontaneous bleeding secondary to coagulopathy (congenital or acquired)
  • Aortic rupture, from ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm or other causes
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16
Q

Yellow Card scheme

A
  • standard way to report adverse reactions to medications

- Run by the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA).

17
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis

A
  • spondyloarthropathy
  • HLA-B27 associated
  • typically presents in males (sex ratio 3:1) aged 20-30 years old
  • Plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints:
    &raquo_space; sacroiliitis: subchondral erosions, sclerosis
    &raquo_space; squaring of lumbar vertebrae
    &raquo_space; ‘bamboo spine’ (late & uncommon)
    &raquo_space; syndesmophytes: due to ossification of outer
    fibers of annulus fibrosus
    &raquo_space; chest x-ray: apical fibrosis
  • MRI: Signs of early inflammation involving sacroiliac joints (bone marrow oedema) confirm the diagnosis of AS and prompt further treatment
  • Spirometry: may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints
  • encourage regular exercise
  • NSAIDs are the first-line treatment: ibruprofen, naproxen
  • physiotherapy
  • Steroids in flares
  • Anti-TNF therapy: etanercept, adalimumab, infliximab, certolizumab
  • Anti-IL-7: secukinumab
18
Q

bacterial vaginosis

A
  • overgrowth of predominately anaerobic organisms such as Gardnerella vaginalis > This leads to a consequent fall in lactic acid producing aerobic lactobacilli resulting in a raised vaginal pH
  • vaginal discharge: ‘fishy’, offensive
  • asymptomatic in 50%
  • Amsel’s criteria for diagnosis of BV - 3 of the following 4 points should be present:
    &raquo_space; thin, white homogenous discharge
    &raquo_space; clue cells on microscopy: stippled vaginal
    epithelial cells
    &raquo_space; vaginal pH > 4.5
    &raquo_space; positive whiff test (addition of potassium
    hydroxide results in fishy odour)
  • oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, 70-80% initial cure rate
  • relapse rate > 50% within 3 months
  • topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin as alternatives

In pregnancy:
- results in an increased risk of preterm labour, low
birth weight and chorioamnionitis, late miscarriage
- Recent guidelines however recommend that oral
metronidazole is used throughout pregnancy but
advises against the use of high dose metronidazole
regimes

19
Q

Electrical alternans

A

Alternating QRS amplitude that is seen in any or all leads on an electrocardiogram (ECG) with no additional changes to the conduction pathways of the heart
- pathognomic for cardiac tamponade
- typically associated with pericardial effusion via the
“swinging heart” from the fluid surrounding the heart

20
Q

Cardiac tamponade

A

Classical features - Beck’s triad:

1) hypotension
2) raised JVP
3) muffled heart sounds
- dyspnoea
- tachycardia
- an absent Y descent on the JVP - this is due to the limited right ventricular filling
- pulsus paradoxus - an abnormally large drop in BP during inspiration
- Kussmaul’s sign = rare
- ECG: electrical alternans

Urgent pericardiocentesis

21
Q

Constrictive pericarditis

A
  • JVP: X + Y present
  • Pulsus paradoxus: absent
  • Kussmaul’s sign: paradoxical rise in jugular venous pressure (JVP) on inspiration, or a failure in the appropriate fall of the JVP with inspiration
  • Pericardial calcification on CXR
22
Q

Acute pancreatitis

A

may cause hypocalcemia

  • Lipase from pancreatic cells breaks down mesenteric and peripancreatic fat&raquo_space; liberation of free fatty acids that bind calcium, decreasing the circulating concentration