Tuberculosis Flashcards

1
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a facultative intracellular pathogen that causes chronic pneumonia; it is transmitted via _

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a facultative intracellular pathogen that causes chronic pneumonia; it is transmitted via aerosols

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2
Q

(T/F) Of individuals exposed, about 70% of individuals will be able to eliminate the pathogen

A

True; Of individuals exposed, about 70% of individuals will be able to eliminate the pathogen
* It is an opportunistic pathogen

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3
Q

The 30% of individuals exposed to TB will have a primary infection characterized by _

A

The 30% of individuals exposed to TB will have a primary infection characterized by mild symptoms, ghon complex

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4
Q

Primary TB involves caseating necrosis in the _ lobe and _ lymph node

A

Primary TB involves caseating necrosis in the lower lung lobe and hilar lymph nodes

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5
Q

Most individuals with primary TB will next go into a _ phase

A

Most individuals with primary TB will next go into a latent infection phase
* Primary phase: macrophages have phagocytosed the bacteria; bacteria grew intracellularly
* Latent phase: granuloma formation walls off infection

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6
Q

TB has a virulence factor called _ that inhibits _ and allows the bacteria to replicate inside the phagosome of the macrophages

A

TB has a virulence factor called sulfatides that inhibit phagosome-lysosomal fusion and allow the bacteria to replicate inside the phagosome of the macrophages

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7
Q

Macrophages recognize the PAMPs and release cytokines such as _

A

Macrophages recognize the PAMPs and release cytokines such as IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha

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8
Q

_ is the cytokine responsible for causing aggregation of macrophages and walling off the infection

A

TNF-alpha is the cytokine responsible for causing aggregation of macrophages and walling off the infection

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9
Q

Both _ cells and cord factor are releasing TNF-alpha

A

Both macrophages and cord factor are releasing TNF-alpha

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10
Q

Fibrocaseous cavitary lesions are associated with _ stage of TB

A

Fibrocaseous cavitary lesions are associated with reactivated TB

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11
Q

In a minority of patients, they are not able to wall of the primary infection and go into _

A

In a minority of patients, they are not able to wall of the primary infection and go into progressive primary TB
* Immune system fails to control
* Bateria replicating in the macrophage burst out and release the bacteria
* Granulomas enlarg and bacteria is draining into hilar lymph (ghon complex)

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12
Q

If progressive primary TB travels into the blood, we can see _ stage

A

If progressive primary TB travels into the blood, we can see miliary TB

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13
Q

Classic symtoms of TB are those seen in reactivation like _

A

Classic symtoms of TB are those seen in reactivation like fever, night sweats, fatigue, productive cough, blood-tinged sputum

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14
Q

During reactivation, the enlarged granulomas can liquefy in the center (central necrosis) causing _

A

During reactivation, the enlarged granulomas can liquefy in the center (central necrosis) causing lung cavities with replicating bacteria –> highly infectious

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15
Q

Explain the steps of the initial MTB immune response

A
  1. Macrophages have TLR that recognize the PAMPs
  2. Macrophages secrete IL-12
  3. IL-12 activates Th1 cells
  4. The T cells secrete IFN-gamma that activate the macrophages
  5. Macrophages secrete TNF-alpha
  6. Granuloma formation controls the infection
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16
Q

Granulomas are formed by macrophages, T cells, and multi-nucleated _ cells

A

Granulomas are formed by macrophages, T cells, and multi-nucleated Langhan cells

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17
Q

_ and _ are TB virulence factors that detoxify oxygen radicals and hydrogen peroxide to stay alive

A

Catalase and Peroxidase are TB virulence factors that detoxify oxygen radicals and hydrogen peroxide to stay alive
* We actually rely on the action of catalase to activate the drug isoniazid from its prodrug form

18
Q

TB that carries mutations in _ or _ gene may be resistant to isoniazid

A

TB that carries mutations in KatG or InhA gene may be resistant to isoniazid

19
Q

The Tuberculin Skin Test works by looking for a _

A

The Tuberculin Skin Test works by looking for a delayed-type hypersensitivity response to antigens from M.bovis
* May get a falsely positive test if previously vaccinated against TB

20
Q

Quantiferon-Gold TB test measures _

A

Quantiferon-Gold TB test measures interferon gamma produced by T cells
* Does not cross react with the BCG vaccine (those vaccinated should not have false positives)

21
Q

Isoniazid works by inhibiting _

A

Isoniazid works by inhibiting mycolic acid synthesis
* Specifically targeting the InhA enzyme

22
Q

Isoniazid is ineffective against strains of TB with mutated _ or _ genes

A

Isoniazid is ineffective against strains of TB with mutated KatG or InhA genes
* KatG is required to activate the prodrug
* InhA is the enzyme that is targeted so altering it makes the drug ineffective

23
Q

Rifampin is a TB drug that works by inhibiting _

A

Rifampin is a TB drug that works by inhibiting mRNA synthesis
* Blocks RNA polymerase

24
Q

The P drug in RIPE stands for _ ; its mechanism is unknown

A

The P drug in RIPE stands for pyrazinamide ; its mechanism is unknown

25
Q

Ethambutol is a TB drug that works by inhibiting _ enzyme

A

Ethambutol is a TB drug that works by inhibiting arabinosyl transferase
* It inhibits arabinoglycan synthesis
* This is a component of the cell wall

26
Q

The most classic drug regimen for treating latent TB is the combination of _ + _

A

The most classic drug regimen for treating latent TB is the combination of rifampin + isoniazid

27
Q

When treating latent TB, rifampin and isoniazid must be combined for _ months or Rifampin alone for _ months, isoniazid alone for _ months

A

When treating latent TB, rifampin and isoniazid must be combined for 3 months or Rifampin alone for 4 months or Isoniazid alone for 9 months

28
Q

For active TB we most commonly use _ drugs for the first 2 months, followed by _ for 6 months

A

For active TB we most commonly use all 4 RIPE drugs for the first 2 months, followed by 2-3 RIPE drugs for 6 months
* Alternatively we can use 9 months of Rifampin + Isoniazid

29
Q

To treat drug resistant TB we must use _ drugs for the first 8 months followed by _ for the following months

A

To treat drug resistant TB we must use 5 drugs for the first 8 months followed by 3-4 drugs for the following 12 months

30
Q

Amikacin is a common second line drug used against TB that _ (MOA)

A

Amikacin is a common second line drug used against TB that binds 30S ribosomal subunit (aminoglycoside)

31
Q

_ is a second line drug for TB that works by inhibiting topoisomerase/gyrase

A

Ciprofloxacin is a second line drug for TB that works by inhibiting topoisomerase/gyrase

32
Q

Ethionamide is a second line drug for TB that works via _

A

Ethionamide is a second line drug for TB that works via inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis

33
Q

Cycloserine is a second line TB drug that works by inhibiting _

A

Cycloserine is a second line TB drug that works by inhibiting cell wall synthesis

34
Q

Multidrug resistant TB has resistance against _

A

Multidrug resistant TB has resistance against Isoniazid + Rifampin

35
Q

XDR TB means _

A

XDR TB means extensively resistant TB
* Resistant to isoniazid, rifampin, any fluoroquinolone, and at least one aminoglycoside

36
Q

_ is a TB drug that can turn the skin, urine, feces, saliva, or tears orange/yellow

A

Rifampin is a TB drug that can turn the skin, urine, feces, saliva, or tears orange/yellow

37
Q

Rifampin has _ effect on CYP 450 enzymes

A

Rifampin induces CYP450
* Means that it will make other drugs less effective
* Specifically problematic for HIV patients because RT inhibitors and protease inhibitors will be less effective

38
Q

Many individuals have polymorphisms in the host _ enzyme that causes variable response to isoniazid

A

Many individuals have polymorphisms in the host NAT2 enzyme that causes variable response to isoniazid
* If N-acetyltransferase does not function properly, we can get a build up of toxic metabolites that lead to increased toxicities
* Lots of Americans are “slow acetylators”

39
Q

A patient on Isoniazid should be given _ supplements due to the risk of _ side effects

A

A patient on Isoniazid should be given B6 supplements due to the risk of neurological side effects
* Isoniazid inhibits the synthesis of B6 which can lead to peripheral neuropathy

40
Q

_ is a TB drug that is known to cause Red/Green colorblindness

A

Ethambutol is a TB drug that is known to cause Red/Green colorblindness