Tropical Medicine 3 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Thalidomide is used in the treatment of

a. HIV-associated peripheral neuropathy
b. hyperemesis gravidarum
c. erythema nodosum leprosum
d. Behcet’s disease
e. HIV-associated mouth ulcers

A
False a. HIV-associated peripheral neuropathy
False b. hyperemesis gravidarum
True c. erythema nodosum leprosum
True d. Behcet's disease
True e. HIV-associated mouth ulcers
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2
Q
  1. Hepatitis A vaccination (Havrix):

a. is a live vaccine
b. is teratogenic
c. has >75% protective efficacy
d. causes mild hepatitis in some patients
e. should be offered to haemophiliacs who are hepatitis A antibody negative

A

False a. is a live vaccine
False b. is teratogenic
True c. has >75% protective efficacy
False d. causes mild hepatitis in some patients
True e. should be offered to haemophiliacs who are hepatitis A antibody negative

Two doses four weeks apart result in seroconversion in nearly all cases and protection lasts about five years. It may be given with human normal immunoglobulin or other live or inactivated vaccines.
Vaccination is aimed primarily at frequent travellers, military personnel and aid workers. It should also be considered for sewage workers, staff in mental handicap institutions, haemaphiliacs and for those with chronic liver disease.
Use in post-exposure prophylaxis is not yet established nor is it of proven efficacy.

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3
Q
  1. Yellow fever

a. has an incubation period of 3-6 days
b. has a case fatality rate of about 50%
c. is caused by a flavivirus
d. is spread by anopheline mosquitoes
e. epidemics should be controlled by strict isolation of cases

A

True a. has an incubation period of 3-6 days
False b. has a case fatality rate of about 50%
True c. is caused by a flavivirus
False d. is spread by anopheline mosquitoes
False e. epidemics should be controlled by strict isolation of cases

Yellow fever is spread by culicine mosquitoes: Aedes aegypti (peri-domestic) and Aedes haemogogus (sylvatic)

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4
Q
  1. Tuberculosis control:

a. Sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are of more public health importance than sputum positive cases because they are more likely to remain undiagnosed.
b. Children with tuberculosis have usually acquired their disease from a child contact.
c. Close contacts of a sputum positive case should be offered immediate BCG.
d. BCG is at least 50% effective in preventing pulmonary tuberculosis.
e. Twice weekly supervised treatment regimens have comparable efficacy to standard daily regimens.

A

Tuberculosis control:
False a. Sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are of more public health importance than sputum positive cases because they are more likely to remain undiagnosed.
False b. Children with tuberculosis have usually acquired their disease from a child contact.
False c. Close contacts of a sputum positive case should be offered immediate BCG.
False d. BCG is at least 50% effective in preventing pulmonary tuberculosis.
True e. Twice weekly supervised treatment regimens have comparable efficacy to standard daily regimens.

The main thrust of public health policy in the control of tuberculosis is the identification and treatment of sputum positive cases. These are the most infectious patients

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5
Q
  1. Strep. pyogenes

a. is the most common bacterial cause of tonsillitis
b. asymptomatic pharyngeal carriage occurs in about 10% of children
c. septicaemia carries a mortality similar to meningococcal septicaemia
d. pharyngitis may be complicated by suppurative cervical adenitis
e. causes scarlet fever

A

All true

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6
Q
  1. Amphotericin B is used in the treatment of:

a. visceral leishmaniasis
b. dermatophyte infections of the nails
c. azole resistant oral candida
d. primary amoebic meningoencephalitis caused by Naegleria species
e. cryptococcal meningitis

A

True a. visceral leishmaniasis
False b. dermatophyte infections of the nails
True c. azole resistant oral candida
True d. primary amoebic meningoencephalitis caused by Naegleria species
True e. cryptococcal meningitis

Amphotericin B is a polyene antifungal which is not absorbed orally but which can be given parenterally for the treatment of severe systemic fungal infections.

Amphotericin B also has activity against Trichomonas, Entamoeba, Naegleria, Leishmania and trypanosomes.

Griseofulvin or terbinafine can be used in the treatment of dermatophyte nail infections.

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7
Q
  1. Typical features of tropical pulmonary eosinophilia include:

a. lymphadenopathy
b. absolute eosinophilia
c. microfilaraemia
d. raised serum Ig E
e. rapid response to mebendazole

A
True a. lymphadenopathy
True b. absolute eosinophilia
False c. microfilaraemia
True d. raised serum Ig E
False e. rapid response to mebendazole
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8
Q
  1. The following drugs are used in the treatment of Legionnaires’ disease:]
    a. rifampicin
    b. gentamicin
    c. erythromycin
    d. ciprofloxacin
    e. azithromycin
A
True a. rifampicin
False b. gentamicin
True c. erythromycin
True d. ciprofloxacin
True e. azithromycin
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9
Q
  1. Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis of childhood:

a. occurs after cellulitis but not pharyngitis
b. should be treated with steroids
c. is fatal in about half of all cases
d. is usually crescentic on microscopy
e. usually presents with acute renal failure

A

True a. occurs after cellulitis but not pharyngitis
False b. should be treated with steroids
False c. is fatal in about half of all cases
False d. is usually crescentic on microscopy
False e. usually presents with acute renal failure

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10
Q
  1. Suppurative lymphadenopathy may be caused by:

a. cat scratch fever
b. lymphogranuloma venereum
c. tuberculosis
d. sarcoidosis
e. plague

A
True a. cat scratch fever
True b. lymphogranuloma venereum
True c. tuberculosis
False d. sarcoidosis
True e. plague
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11
Q

What are causes of suppurative lymphadenopathy?

A
Strep. pyogenes
tuberculosis
plague
chancroid
cat scratch fever
tularaemia
lymphogranuloma venereum
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12
Q
  1. Legionnaires’ disease:

a. can be acquired by drinking infected water
b. smokers are more susceptible
c. most cases are sporadic
d. hyponatraemia is typical
e. may cause rigors

A
False a. can be acquired by drinking infected water
True b. smokers are more susceptible
True c. most cases are sporadic
True d. hyponatraemia is typical
True e. may cause rigors

Laboratory features include leucocytosis, hyponatraemia and raised liver transaminases.

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13
Q
  1. Typical features of botulism include:

a. circumoral parasthaesia
b. extensor plantars
c. diarrhoea
d. fever
e. post-tetanic potentiation on EMG (electromyography)

A
False a. circumoral parasthaesia
False b. extensor plantars
False c. diarrhoea
False d. fever
True e. post-tetanic potentiation on EMG (electromyography)

Botulism usually results from ingestion of pre-formed botulinum toxin in canned or smoked food. The toxin is produced by Clostridium botulinum. It is heat labile. It acts pre-synaptically at neuromuscular junctions preventing the release of acetylcholine.

Features include ptosis, dry mouth, diplopia, blurred vision, bulbar palsy and muscular weakness. Sensory signs are not a feature. (Circumoral parasthesia is typical of hyperventilation.) Nausea and vomiting may occur but not usually diarrhoea. Symptoms occur 12-72 hours after ingestion of the toxin.

Diagnosis is by animal tests: mice are injected with small samples of serum, urine or gastric contents from the patient and watched for signs of botulism. EMG shows post tetanic potentiation.

Treatment. Respiratory support and polyvalent horse antiserum.

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14
Q
  1. Concerning anti-tuberculous chemotherapy:

a. pyrazinamide causes hyperuricaemia
b. isoniazid causes a lupus-like syndrome
c. twice weekly regimens should be continued for at least 12 months
d. pyridoxine is only needed by slow acetylators
e. rifampicin can only be given orally

A

True a. pyrazinamide causes hyperuricaemia
True b. isoniazid causes a lupus-like syndrome
False c. twice weekly regimens should be continued for at least 12 months
False d. pyridoxine is only needed by slow acetylators
False e. rifampicin can only be given orally

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15
Q

What are common side effects of:

Rifampicin

isoniazid

pyrazinamide

A

Rifampicin can be given orally or intravenously. Transient elevation of transaminases is common. Six toxicity syndromes have been described: influenzal, abdominal, respiratory, shock, renal and thrombocytopaenic.

Compliance is a major problem in the developing world. Expense, cultural beliefs, the need to travel to get the drugs, drug side effects and variable drug supply all contribute towards poor compliance
Isoniazid is generally safe. The most common side effect is peripheral neuropathy. This is more common in diabetes and alcoholics. Pyridoxine should always be given to such patients. Slow acetylator status increases risk of neuropathy and of lupus-like syndrome. Other side effects include psychosis, fever and hepatitis.

Pyrazinamide is bactericidal and penetrates the meninges well. Its side effects include fever, liver failure and hyperuricaemia.

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16
Q
  1. The following are recognised complications of meningococcal infection:

a. deafness
b. reactive polyarthritis
c. purulent monoarthritis
d. alopecia
e. pericarditis

A

All true

The rash in meningococcal infection is characteristically purpuric but may initially be maculopapular.

17
Q
  1. The following may cause pulmonary cavitation

a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Aspergillus fumigatus
c. Staph. aureus
d. Klebsiella ssp
e. Strep. pneumoniae

A

All true

Paragonimus Westermani is another cause of cavitating lung lesion

18
Q
  1. The paralysis of polio virus infection

a. is upper motor neurone type
b. is asymmetrical
c. usually affects the lower limbs more severely than the upper limbs
d. is more severe if strenuous physical exercise occurred in the incubation period
e. may be caused by polio vaccination

A

False a. is upper motor neurone type
True b. is asymmetrical
True c. usually affects the lower limbs more severely than the upper limbs
True d. is more severe if strenuous physical exercise occurred in the incubation period
True e. may be caused by polio vaccination

Poliomyelitis is caused by three types of polio virus. Type 1 polio virus is the most virulent and prior to immunization was responsible for major epidemics.
Polio virus is an enterovirus and is spread by the feacal-oral route.
Other factors associated with paralysis are: pregnancy, tonsillectomy and prophylactic injections. The incubation period is 3-21 days (usually 7-14 days).

19
Q
  1. Rickettsiae:

a. cannot be cultured on artificial media
b. may cause an eschar
c. are spread by arthropods
d. are usually sensitive to tetracyclines
e. cause melioidosis

A

True a. cannot be cultured on artificial media
True b. may cause an eschar
True c. are spread by arthropods
True d. are usually sensitive to tetracyclines
False e. cause melioidosis

20
Q
  1. Concerning cholera:

a. it has an incubation period of 1-5days.
b. it causes an inflammatory cell infiltrate in the lamina propria of the mucosa of the small intestine
c. it causes muscle cramps
d. the diagnosis is confirmed by dark field microscopic examination of the stool
e. compared to the classical biotype, the El Tor strain produces more severe illness

A

True a. it has an incubation period of 1-5days.
False b. it causes an inflammatory cell infiltrate in the lamina propria of the mucosa of the small intestine
True c. it causes muscle cramps
True d. the diagnosis is confirmed by dark field microscopic examination of the stool
False e. compared to the classical biotype, the El Tor strain produces more severe illness

histology normal, as disease cause by toxin

21
Q
  1. The following are recognised features of onchocerciasis:

a. keratitis
b. diarrhoea
c “hanging groin”
d. Calabar swelling
e. eosinophilia

A
True a. keratitis
False b. diarrhoea
True c "hanging groin"
False d. Calabar swelling
True e. eosinophilia

treatment is with ivermectin

calabar swelling associated with loa loa

22
Q
  1. The following conditions and drug treatments are correctly paired:

a. onchocerciasis: ivermectin
b. schistosomiasis: praziquantel
c. visceral leishmaniasis: suramin
d. Rhodesian trypanosomiasis: pentavalent antimony
e. hydatid disease: albendazole

A
True a. onchocerciasis: ivermectin
True b. schistosomiasis: praziquantel
False c. visceral leishmaniasis: suramin
False d. Rhodesian trypanosomiasis: pentavalent antimony
True e. hydatid disease: albendazole

visceral leishmaniasis sodium stibogluconate
Rhodesian trypanosomiasis suramin

23
Q
  1. Fever, diarrhoea and eosinophilia in a returned traveller may be due to each of the following as the sole causative agent:

a. Strongyloides stercoralis
b. Aeromonas hydrophila
c. Schistsoma mansoni
d. Capillaria philippinensis
e. Plasmodium falciparum

A
True a. Strongyloides stercoralis
False b. Aeromonas hydrophila
True c. Schistsoma mansoni
True d. Capillaria philippinensis
False e. Plasmodium falciparum
24
Q
  1. Diphtheria:

a. “bull neck” is diagnostic
b. it is caused by Gram positive bacilli
c. toxin absorption is greatest in pharyngeal disease
d. palatal paralysis is a recognised complication
e complete heart block is a manifestation of toxin-induced myocarditis

A

False a. “bull neck” is diagnostic
True b. it is caused by Gram positive bacilli
True c. toxin absorption is greatest in pharyngeal disease
True d. palatal paralysis is a recognised complication
True e complete heart block is a manifestation of toxin-induced myocarditis

Corynebacterium diptheriae is a Gram positive, toxin-producing bacillus. the toxin is responsible for the manifestations of the disease and diphtheria toxoid immunisation, usually given in childhood, protects against the dangerous effects of infection.

Of the three strains, gravis and intermedius produce more severe infection, and mitis milder infection.

25
Q
  1. Leptospirosis:

a. usually causes a self-limiting disease
b. is caused by Gram positive bacilli
c causes leucopaenia
d. causes jaundice
e. causes meningitis

A

True a. usually causes a self-limiting disease
False b. is caused by Gram positive bacilli
False c causes leucopaenia
True d. causes jaundice
True e. causes meningitis

26
Q
  1. Praziquantel is used in the treatment of:

a. amoebiasis
b. toxocariasis (visceral larva migrans)
c. paragonimiasis (lung fluke)
d. trypanosomiasis (African sleeping sickness)
e. schistosomiasis

A

False a. amoebiasis
False b. toxocariasis (visceral larva migrans)
True c. paragonimiasis (lung fluke)
False d. trypanosomiasis (African sleeping sickness)
True e. schistosomiasis

27
Q
  1. Loa loa

a. is confined to Central and West Africa
b. is spread by the vector Aedes aegypti
c. may cause a high eosinophilia (>10x10^9/L)
d. is diagnosed by histological examination of skin snips
e. is treated with DEC

A

True a. is confined to Central and West Africa
False b. is spread by the vector Aedes aegypti
True c. may cause a high eosinophilia (>10x10^9/L)
False d. is diagnosed by histological examination of skin snips
True e. is treated with DEC

skin snip diagnostic for onchocerciasis
loa loa test is blood microfilariae taken during day

28
Q
  1. Genital ulcers:

a. may be due to herpes simplex virus
b. are associated with an increased incidence of HIV
c. if painful and associated with lymphadenopathy, are likely to be due to chancroid
d are found in gonorrhoea
e. if well-defined and beefy red, are likely to be due to granuloma inguinale

A

True a. may be due to herpes simplex virus
True b. are associated with an increased incidence of HIV
True c. if painful and associated with lymphadenopathy, are likely to be due to chancroid
False d are found in gonorrhoea
True e. if well-defined and beefy red, are likely to be due to granuloma inguinale

29
Q
  1. HIV in Africa:

a. Circumcision is associated with lower rates of HIV infection amongst African men.
b. Infection rates are generally higher in rural populations.
c. Pneumocystis pneumonia is a more common presentation of AIDS than in Europe.
d. The provision of HIV testing kits is a priority for good case management.
e. Pulmonary tuberculosis is often associated with HIV infection.

A

True a. Circumcision is associated with lower rates of HIV infection amongst African men.
False b. Infection rates are generally higher in rural populations.
False c. Pneumocystis pneumonia is a more common presentation of AIDS than in Europe.
False d. The provision of HIV testing kits is a priority for good case management.
True e. Pulmonary tuberculosis is often associated with HIV infection.

30
Q
  1. The World Health Organisation’s Expanded Programme for Immunisation (EPI) includes immunisation against:

a. cholera
b. hepatitis A
c. rubella
d. smallpox
e. typhoid

A

All true

BCG at birth
oral polio at birth, 6 weeks, 10 weeks, 14 weeks
Hepatitis B at birth, 6 weeks, 9 months
diphtheria/pertussis/tetanus (DPT) at 6, 10, and 14 weeks
measles at 9 months

31
Q
  1. The following infectious agents cause dementia:
    a. gonococcus

b. HIV
c. Brucella abortus
d. Borrelia burgdorferi
e. HTLV-1

A
False a. gonococcus
True b. HIV
False c. Brucella abortus
True d. Borrelia burgdorferi
False e. HTLV-1
32
Q

Fever, diarrhea, eosinophilia, is suggestive of helminth infection.

What are possible causes?

A

Strongyloides stercoralis
Capillaria philippinensis
Fasciola hepatica
Schistosomiasis

33
Q

What is management of suspected diptheria case?

A

Management:

  1. watch airway
  2. benzylpenicillin for 2 weeks
  3. antitoxin
  4. observe for complications
  5. contact tracing
  6. isolation.
34
Q

What are causes of genital ulcers?

A
herpes simplex
syphilis
chancroid
granuloma inguinale
lymphogranuloma venereum
35
Q

What are infectious causes of dementia?

A

measles or rubella subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

HIV

Treponema pallidum

Borrelia burgdorferi

Prions - CJD