Past papers 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Components of cell walls

  • NAG
  • Lipid A
  • Ergosterols
  • Mycolic acid
  1. LPS
  2. Mycobacteria
  3. Fungi
  4. Peptidoglycan
A
  1. LPS
    Lipid A - endotoxin
  2. Mycobacteria
    Mycolic acid
  3. Fungi
    Ergosterol
  4. Peptidoglycan
    The sugar component consists of alternating residues of β-(1,4) linked N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Identification of organisms

  • Modified Zn stain
  • Thin blood film – Giemsa stain
  • Concentrated iodine
  • Calcofluor white stain
  1. Filamentous fungi on BAL
  2. Cryptosporidium
  3. Ova in stool
  4. Malaria
A
  1. Filamentous fungi on BAL
    Calcofluor white stain - used to stain yeasts
  2. Cryptosporidium
    Modified Zn stain
  3. Ova in stool
    Concentrated iodine
  4. Malaria
    Thin blood film – Giemsa stain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

patient with HIV cryptococcal meningitis was treated with caspofungin. Why is this is bad choice?

poor CSF penetration
too expensive
crypto resistant
contradicted in AIDS

A

Echinocandins are ineffective against cryptococcal

Another similar question exists with answer:
- cryptococcus is resistant to echinocandins as it does not contain 1,3 beta-d-glucan synthase

Cryptococcus does contain 1,3 beta-d-glucan synthase, but resistance is intrinsic by other means

Correct answer in that example is poor CSF penetration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Match the following organisms with the clinical pictures

Neisseria gonorrhea
chlamydia trachomatis
candida albicans
treponema pallidum
haemophilus ducreyi
calymmobacterium granulomatis
ureaplasma urealyticum
trichomonaas vaginalis
  1. A 20 year old man presents with dysuria and uretheral discharge.A gram stained smear of a uretheral swab shows numerous pus calls but no organisms were detected
  2. A 34 year old man returning from Thailand where he had unprotected sex presents with a painless ulcer on his penis
  3. A 24 year old woman presents with arthritis and skin rash
  4. A 30 year old pregnant woman presents with itch and soreness and a thick white discharge
  5. A recent immigrant from Africa presents with a painful ulcer on his penis which bleeds on touch associated with tender enlarged inguinal lymph nodes, bacteriologic smear and culture were done but they were not helpful.
A
  1. A 20 year old man presents with dysuria and uretheral discharge.A gram stained smear of a uretheral swab shows numerous pus calls but no organisms were detected
    Chlamydia trachomatis
  2. A 34 year old man returning from Thailand where he had unprotected sex presents with a painless ulcer on his penis
    treponema pallidum
  3. A 24 year old woman presents with arthritis and skin rash
    Neisseria gonorrhoea
  4. A 30 year old pregnant woman presents with itch and soreness and a thick white discharge
    trichomonas vaginalis - thick white discharge
    candida albicans - usually cottage cheese
    Bacterial Vaginosis - Gardnerella. Usually fishy smell
  5. A recent immigrant from Africa presents with a painful ulcer on his penis which bleeds on touch associated with tender enlarged inguinal lymph nodes, bacteriologic smear and culture were done but they were not helpful.
    haemophilus ducreyi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

32wks pregnant lady with confirmed rubella.

Advice:
termination of pregnancy
child likely to be born with severe deformities
no risk of infection to fetus
risk of infection present, but deformities rare

A

risk of infection present, but deformities rare

No risk of documented abnormalities if infection occurs after 20 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Woman develops rubella infection 8 days into pregnancy – what are the consequences for the foetus?

A

Miscarriage/ stillbirth

microcephaly

cardiac disease

visual problems e.g cataracts

Deafness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pregnant woman is both HBV and HCV positive. Her newborn baby should receive the following treatment?

  • Zidovudine
  • Human Hep B immune globulin and full Hep B vaccination
  • Human immune globulin only
  • Interferon
A

Human Hep B immune globulin and full Hep B vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Congenital infections.

  • Toxoplasma gondii
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Rubella
  • Listeria monocytogenes
  • CMV
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Parvovirus B19
  1. Pregnant woman had flu-like illness which is followed by a septic abortion. Autopsy of infant shows granulomas in liver
  2. A baby born with IUGR and hepatosplenomegaly
  3. A pregnant woman develops fetal hydrops on ultrasound
  4. A 2 month old infant presents with conjunctivitis and pneumonia
A
  1. Pregnant woman had flu-like illness which is followed by a septic abortion. Autopsy of infant shows granulomas in liver
    Toxoplasma
  2. A baby born with IUGR and hepatosplenomegaly
    CMV
  3. A pregnant woman develops fetal hydrops on ultrasound
    Parvovirus B19
  4. A 2 month old infant presents with conjunctivitis and pneumonia
    Chlamydia trachomatis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. A pregnant woman, 12 weeks gestation, is picked up at antenatal screening as HIV+ve. CD4 count is 500, viral load is 9000, the patient is asymptomatic and clinically well. Which of the following is the most correct?

a) Perform amniocentesis to detect whether the baby is infected
b) Do nothing and treat the baby after birth
c) Commence short-term antiretroviral therapy from the second trimester
d) A Ceasarian section is virtually unavoidable

A

Commence short-term antiretroviral therapy from the second trimester

Mother should then continue long term ARV - new evidence that should be on ARV regardless of CD4 count

Baby should get ARV e.g zidovudine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
HBIG
HBIG and hep B vaccination
High dose hep B vaccination
VZIG
VZIG plus vaccination
VZV vaccination
HNIG
Do nothing
  1. Baby of hep B eAg positive mother
  2. Neonate whose mother developes chickenpox 2 days post delivery
  3. Non-immune pregnant woman in contact with measles
  4. CRF patient, not currently on dialysis but who will be commencing dialysis in the near future
  5. Non-pregnant paediatric nurse, is not varicella immune, who has been looking after her mother with ophthalmic zoster
A
  1. Baby of hep B eAg positive mother
    HBIG and hep B vaccination
  2. Neonate whose mother develops chickenpox 2 days post delivery
    VZIG - no cross-placenta antibody transfer. Give up to 7 days old
  3. Non-immune pregnant woman in contact with measles
    HNIG
  4. CRF patient, not currently on dialysis but who will be commencing dialysis in the near future
    High dose hep B vaccination
  5. Non-pregnant paediatric nurse, is not varicella immune, who has been looking after her mother with ophthalmic zoster
    VZV vaccination - occupational exposure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pregnant woman 14 weeks, concerned re risk of toxoplasma and present to GP for testing. Results show weak positive IgM, positive IgG, predominantly
high avidity. What should she be advised?

Pregnancy likely to be severely affected and advise termination

Baby should receive sulphadiazine and pyrimethamine after delivery

Mother should receive sulphadiazine and pyrimethamine for duration of pregnancy

Mother should receive spiramycin for duration of pregnancy, baby is unlikely to be affected

A

spiramycin is recommended for women whose infections were acquired and diagnosed before 18 weeks gestation and infection of the fetus is not documented or suspected. Spiramycin acts to reduce transmission to the fetus and is most effective if initiated within 8 weeks of seroconversion. 40% of primary infection in pregnancy will infect foetus

Congenitally infected newborns are generally treated with pyrimethamine, a sulfonamide, and leucovorin for 12 months.

spiramycin is a macrolide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pregnant woman tests positive for toxoplasma in pregnancy.

May present with flu-like illness, lymhadenopathy

What are risks to foetus?

A

Miscarriage
hydrocephalus
retinchoroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pregnant woman tests positive for toxoplasma in pregnancy.

What is treatment?

A

If diagnosed before 18 weeks gestation - Spiramycin to reduce risk of transmission.

USS/ choriamniocentesis - assess if baby affected. If affected, start pyremethamine/ sulphadiazine/ folinic acid for treatment (stop spiramycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Does toxoplasma infection always need treated?

A

Treat if immunocompromised, or pregnant

If otherwise well, after flu-like illness, toxoplasma will form cysts, and symptoms will resolve. Will only reactivate if become immunocompromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pregnant women 18 weeks, brings child who has
chickenpox to GP. Mother is
sure she has not had VZV. What should the GP do?

a. Issue prophylactic acyclovir
b. Issue VZIG
c. Test for VZV IgM
d. Test for VZV IgG

A

Test for VZV IgG ??

If non-immune, offer VZIG within 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A pregnant woman returns from India and dies shortly after her return of an acute illness. Which of the following is most likely the cause?

	Brucella
	Typhus
	Hep A
	Hep D
	Hep E
A

HEV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. A baby born to mother with primary CMV infection in pregnancy is detected to have 20000 copies/ml CMV in urine 2 days after birth. The most appropriate management strategy is:

a. Reassure and do nothing
b. Treat with IV Aciclovir for 2 weeks
c. Treat with IV Ganciclovir for 2 weeks
d. Refer for audiology assessment
e. Check CMV IgM in baby

A

Refer for audiology

If baby is well, and audiology/ brain imaging normal, then likely do not need to treat.

Aciclovir incorrect
Ganciclovir - should be for 6 months
IgM incorrect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A 24 week pregnant staff nurse sustains a needlestick from a HBSag positive patient who is HbEag positive. She has received 3 HBV immunisations in the past, and anti HBS level is < 10. The correct management is:

a. Give HBV vaccine dose and HBIG
b. Give infant HBIG at birth
c. Do nothing
d. Treat with Lamivudine

A

Give HBV vaccine dose and HBIG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
Pregnant woman (36 weeks) suffers a rash illness, then presents to GP. 
Blood taken shows: Rubella IgG positive, IgM negative, Parvovirus IgG positive, IgM positive. What is the most likely outcome?

a. Normal healthy child
b. intra-uterine death
c. congenital rubella syndrome,
d. Hydropsfetalis

A

normal healthy baby

No risk of documented abnormalities if infection occurs after 20 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A pregnant woman (32 weeks gestation) present with painful ulcer on her vagina. HSV2 PCR comes back positive. What would be you action?

Treat with acyclovir and treat baby
tell her all will be fine
treat with acyclovir and consider elective caesarian
measure HSV2 antibody to see if it is primary infection deliver by emergency section

A

treat with aciclovir, and consider elective caesarian section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

45yrs old male,travels to Mexico, presenting with a rash followed by pneumonia

CXR: cavitating lesion.

Cause?

A

Coccidioides

22
Q

Child with rash on face and shoulders. Then develops desquamation of palms /soles

what is cause?

A

GAS - Scarlet fever

23
Q

Child with conjunctivitis, then develops pneumonia.

What are potential causes?

A

Chlamydia trachoamtis - neonatal

Measles

24
Q

Scaly rash with skin depigmentation, microscopy shows yeasts and small hyphae:

Trichophyton
Microsporum
candida
M. furfur

A

M furfur - pityriasis versicolor

25
Q

What is pediculus humanus?

A

Human louse

26
Q
A. Herpes zoster
B. Herpetic whitlow
C. Hot tub folliculitis
D Cat scratch
E. Kawasaki 
F. Lyme Disease 
G. Erysipelothroid
H. Sporothricosis 
I. Herpangina 

Which is the most accurate presentation:

  1. Large salmon coloured lesion of erythema migrans with central clearing due to tick bite
  2. Disease of childhood, lesions in mouth which become vesicular with a grey base and punched out edge
  3. Desquamation and prominent papillations on the tongue
  4. Vesicular rash with pustular lesions, erythema and painful swelling of the digits
  5. Migrating lymphacutaneous lesions in thigh of young man following dirt bike accident
A
  1. Large salmon coloured lesion of erythema migrans with central clearing due to tick bite
    Lyme disease
  2. Disease of childhood, lesions in mouth which become vesicular with a grey base and punched out edge
    Herpangina - also called mouth blisters. Coxsackie virus
  3. Desquamation and prominent papillations on the tongue
    Kawasaki
  4. Vesicular rash with pustular lesions, erythema and painful swelling of the digits
    Herpetic whitlow
  5. Migrating lymphacutaneous lesions in thigh of young man following dirt bike accident
    Sporotrichosis
27
Q
A. Herpes zoster 
B. Herpetic whitlow
C. Hot tub folliculitis 
D Cat scratch 
E. Kawasaki 
F. Lyme Disease 
G. Erysipelothroid
H. Sporothricosis 
I. Herpangina 
  1. Vesicular rash with dermatomal distribution
  2. Acute self limiting infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  3. Maculopapular lesions on fingers after cleaning fish
  4. Prominent cervical lymphadenopathy and primary inoculation lesion
A
  1. Vesicular rash with dermatomal distribution
    Herpes Zoster
  2. Acute self limiting infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    Hot tub folliculitis
  3. Maculopapular lesions on fingers after cleaning fish
    Erysipelothroid
  4. Prominent cervical lymphadenopathy and primary inoculation lesion
    Cat scratch disease
28
Q

Fisherman’s wife presents with cellulitis of one finger.

What is possible cause?

A

Eryispelothrix

Gram pos bacilli

Infection in humans is often occupationally related, occurring most frequently in people whose jobs are closely related to contaminated animals, their products, wastes, or soil. Butchers, abattoir workers, veterinarians, farmers, fishermen, and fish-handlers are at highest risk of infection.

29
Q
Rashes
a-	Roseola infantum 
b-	Erythema infectiosum
c-	Scarlet fever 
d-	Molluscum contagiosum 
e-	Measles
f-	Herpangina 
g-	German measles
  • A 10 year old girl presents with pinkish umblicated warty lesions on her buttocks
  • A 7 year old boy presents with high fever,sore throat ,enlarged painful cervical lymph nodes ,strawberry tongue and a diffuse erythematous rash
  • A 3 year old boy presents with fever and painful vesicles in his mouth
  • A seven year old boy presents with fever and intense erythema of the cheeks followed by spread of the rash to the trunk for only one day

A 9 month infant presents with fever and wide spread macular rash. Tests were +ve for human herpes virus 6

A
  • A 10 year old girl presents with pinkish umblicated warty lesions on her buttocks
    molluscum contagiosum
  • A 7 year old boy presents with high fever,sore throat ,enlarged painful cervical lymph nodes ,strawberry tongue and a diffuse erythematous rash
    Scarlet fever - GAS
  • A 3 year old boy presents with fever and painful vesicles in his mouth
    Herpangina - Coxsackie

-A seven year old boy presents with fever and intense erythema of the cheeks followed by spread of the rash to the trunk for only one day
erythema infectiosum

A 9 month infant presents with fever and wide spread macular rash.tests were +ve for human herpes virus 6
Roseola infantum

German measles also know as rubella
Erythema infectiosum - also known as Parvovirus B19

30
Q

What are other names for these infections?

German measles

Erythema infectiosum

Exanthem subitum

A

German measles - Rubella

Erythema infectiosum - Parvo B19/ 5th disease

Exanthem subitum - Roseola/ 6th disease

31
Q

Which of the following viruses are not associated with a vesicular rash -

Rubella Virus
Measles Virus
Parvovirus 
HSV-1
VZV
A

Rubella Virus
Measles Virus
Parvovirus

32
Q

A 19 year old man presents with flu-like illness, lymphadenopathy, fleeting
macular rash and sore throat. History of unprotected sex over last 6
months. HIV testing positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Acute retroviral illness

33
Q

Farmer’s wife presents with dark lesion/ purple nodule on finger. What are possible causes?

A

Orf - pox virus

34
Q
A. Dark lesion on farmer’s wife’s finger
B. Umbilical lesions on boy’s face
C. Lesion on fishmonger’s hand
D. Hot-tub folliculitis
E. Depigmentation of trunk and arms
  1. Malassezia furfur
  2. Molloscum contagiosum
  3. Orf
  4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  5. Erysipelothrix
  6. Staph aureus
A

A. Dark lesion on farmer’s wife’s finger
Orf

B. Umbilical lesions on boy’s face
Molluscum contagiosum

C. Lesion on fishmonger’s hand
Erysipelothrix

D. Hot-tub folliculitis
Pseudomonas

E. Depigmentation of trunk and arms
Malassezi furfur

35
Q
  • Clostridium tetani
  • Corynebacterium diphtheriae
  • Clostridium botulinum
  • Staph aureus
  • Clostridium perfringens
  • Vibrio cholera
  1. Produces elastase
  2. Produces Lecithinase
  3. Toxin production induces flaccid paralysis
A
  1. Produces elastase
    Staph aureus
  2. Produces Lecithinase
    Clostridium perfringens
  3. Toxin production induces flaccid paralysis
    Clostridium botulinium
36
Q

Toxins

A. Shiga toxin
B. SPE-C
C. Diptheria toxin
D. Cholera toxin 
E. Alpha toxin of Clostridium perfringes
F.  Tetanus toxin
G. Endotoxin 
H. Botulinum toxin 
  1. Its lipid component induces fever and shock by inducing TNF
  2. Blocks release of acetylcholine
  3. It inhibits protein synthesis by ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2
  4. It increases cyclic AMP by ADP-ribosylation of G protein
A
  1. Its lipid component induces fever and shock by inducing TNF
    Endotoxin - Lipid A
  2. Blocks release of acetylcholine
    Botulinum toxin
  3. It inhibits protein synthesis by ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2
    Diptheria toxin
  4. It increases cyclic AMP by ADP-ribosylation of G protein
    Cholera toxin?
37
Q
A. Shiga toxin
B. SPE-C 
C. Diptheria toxin
D. Cholera toxin 
E. Alpha toxin of Clostridium perfringens 
F.  Tetanus toxin 
G. Endotoxin 
H. Botulinum toxin 
  1. Action is via phospholipase C hydrolysis of phosphorylcholine in cell membrane
  2. Inactivates protein synthesis by degrading 28s rRNA
  3. Superantigen which binds directly to MHC II, and interacts with -chain of TCR to release cytokine cascade
  4. A-B subunit toxin binds ganglioside receptors to interfere with synaptic transmission
A
  1. Action is via phospholipase C hydrolysis of phosphorylcholine in cell membrane
    Alpha toxin of Clostridium perfringens
  2. Inactivates protein synthesis by degrading 28s rRNA
    Shiga toxin
  3. Superantigen which binds directly to MHC II, and
    interacts with -chain of TCR to release cytokine cascade
    SPE-C - Streptococcal Pyrogenic Exotoxin C is a super-antigen with wide cross-reactivity
  4. A-B subunit toxin binds ganglioside receptors to interfere with synaptic transmission
    Tetanus toxin
38
Q

What are examples of polyoma viruses?

A

BK
JC
SV40

39
Q

Match the bacteria and their toxins

a-adenylate cyclase
b-shiga like toxin 
c-cholera toxin
d-oedema factor 
e-heat stable and heat labile toxin 
f-pyrogenic exotoxin 
E coli O157
pertussis
ETEC
Streptococcus pyogenes
Bacillus anthracis
A

E coli O157
shiga like toxin

pertussis
adenylate cyclase

ETEC
heat stable and heat labile toxin

Streptococcus pyogenes
pyrogenic exotoxin - SPE

Bacillus anthracis
oedema factor

40
Q

i. Presence of P fimbriae
ii. Presence of type 4 pili
iii. Stimulation of T lymphocytes
iv. Inhibits formation of phagolysosome
v. Inhibition of acetylcholine receptors
vi. Presynaptic inhibition of GABA receptors

A.	Cystitis
B.	Toxic shock syndrome
C.	Tetanus
D.	Botulism
E.	Meningococcal carriage
F.     M TB
A

A. Cystitis
P fimbriae - E. coli

B. Toxic shock syndrome
Stimulation of T lymphocytes

C. Tetanus
Presynaptic inhibition of GABA receptors

D. Botulism
Inhibition of acetylcholine receptors

E. Meningococcal carriage
Type 4 pili - assumed to play a key role in the initial adherence to human epithelial cells by virtue of the associated adhesin protein PilC

F. M TB
Inhibition of phagolysosome

41
Q

Toxins

A. Increase in cAMP leading to fluid loss
B. Includes lethal factor, oedema factor and protective antigen
C. Elongation factor 2
D. Produces neurotoxin that leads to spastic paralysis
E. Produces neurotoxin that leads to flaccid paralysis

  1. C. diphtheria
  2. C. botulinum
  3. V. cholera
  4. C. tetani
  5. B. anthracis
  6. B. pertussis
  7. S.aureus
A

A. Increase in cAMP leading to fluid loss
V cholera

B. Includes lethal factor, oedema factor and protective antigen
B anthracis

C. Elongation factor 2
C diptheria

D. Produces neurotoxin that leads to spastic paralysis
C tetani

E. Produces neurotoxin that leads to flaccid paralysis
C botulinum

42
Q

What is the most important component of endotoxin leading to septic shock?

A

Lipid A

43
Q

Classifying streptococci

What are examples of alpha haemolytic streptococci?

How to differentiate them?

A

Strep pneumo - optochin S

Strep viridans - optochin R

44
Q

Strep viridans group is wide group of bacteria, which live in oral cavity.

Can cause IE/ neonatal sepsis/ gingivitis

What are examples?

A

Strep milleri/ anginosus – abscesses brain/ liver/ GI
S sanguinis
S mutans
S mitis

45
Q

Classifying streptococci

beta haemolytic streptococci classified by Lancefield groups A/B/C/E, depending on carbohydrate expressed

GAS and GBS are two of most important streptococci.

GPC in chains seen on agar. How to rule out these two pathogens?

A

Latex agglutination of Lancefield groupings

Strep pyogenes - bacitracin S, PYR pos

Strep agalactiae - bacitracin R, PYR neg, CAMP pos, Hippurate hydrolysis pos

46
Q

What are GAS virulence factors?

A
GAS virulence factors
M protein
Lipoteichoic acid
Hyaluronic acid 
Streptolysins
Streptodrnase. DNA
47
Q

What are examples of gamma haemolytic streptococci?

They cause UTI/ GI/ biliary/ IE infection

A

enterococci - AKA group D strep

Strep bovis (gallolyticus)

48
Q

GPC in chains seen on blood agar. Gamma haemolytic. How to distinguish between these organisms?

enterococci - AKA group D strep
Strep bovis (gallolyticus)
A

Bile esculin positive.
Bile esculin agar contains oxgall (bile salts) to inhibit the growth of gram positive organisms other than enterococci and group D streptococci- confirms gamma haemolysis

Enterococci - PYR pos

Strep bovis - PYR neg

49
Q

What are uses for Hippurate hydrolysis test?

A

Tests for -

GBS

Campylobacter jejuni (coli is neg)

50
Q

Baby with early onset sepsis. Suspect GBS

What is treatment?

A

Benzylpenicillin 7 days

Lumbar puncture - if meningitis
Benzylpenicillin 14 days, gentamicin 5 days

51
Q

48 AML 15 day chemo via Hickman line. Treated Taz + gent.

Blood cultures grow GPC in long chains – alpha strep, optochin R

What is possible causative organism?

Does treatment need changed?

A

S viridans group – Strep oralis/ mitis

Add vancomycin

Source - either oral (mucositis) or line related
Blood cultures from line/ consider remove line
TTE

52
Q

48 trauma patient – base of skull fracture/ SAH/ IVH.

Blood culture GPC in pairs and chains

What are possible causative organisms

A

Alpha strep - Strep pneumoniae causing meningitis

Gamma strep - Enterococcus

Blood culture seems more likely to be streptococci than staphylocci. Possible other causes -
Staph aureus
Staph epidermidis