Trigger 10 - Revision, Consolidation and Application of Knowledge Flashcards
Would measuring epigenetic changes in saliva give a good representation of what is happening in other organs?
No, while saliva-based liquid biopsy is cost-effective and non-invasive, it may not provide a comprehensive representation of epigenetic changes in specific organs due to variations in epigenetic modifications among different tissues and cell types.
How would you analyze the data obtained from measuring DNA methylation levels?
The DNA methylation pattern of specific genomic regions is examined, typically using techniques like Illumina DNA methylation arrays. Hypermethylation of certain genes can indicate disease states, such as hypermethylated oestrogen receptor genes for cardiovascular disease.
The technique used to measure DNA methylation levels is ______________.
Illumina DNA methylation arrays are commonly used to measure DNA methylation levels, allowing for highly multiplexed measurements of DNA methylation at individual CpG islands.
Which of the following is NOT a type of epigenetic modification?
A) DNA Methylation
B) Histone Acetylation
C) RNA Splicing
D) Chromatin Remodeling
C) RNA Splicing
True or False:
Statement: A change in mRNA expression always leads to a corresponding change in protein levels/activity.
False. Post-transcriptional and post-translational regulations can affect protein levels/activity independently of mRNA expression changes.
How could genetic risk scores be used to determine who would benefit most from lifestyle interventions?
Genetic risk scores can categorize individuals based on their genetic predisposition to certain diseases, allowing for targeted lifestyle interventions for those at higher risk, potentially optimizing the effectiveness of interventions.
What drugs are available to target epigenetic changes?
Methylation inhibiting drugs such as 5-Azacytidine and Guadecitabine, as well as histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitors like valproic acid, are among the drugs used to target epigenetic changes
True or False:
Statement: Epigenetic information availability does not raise ethical concerns related to privacy and discrimination.
False. Epigenetic information availability raises significant ethical concerns regarding privacy, discrimination by insurance companies or employers, and informed consent.
What is the gold standard technique for quantifying genome-wide DNA modification levels?
Whole genome bisulfite sequencing is considered the gold standard technique for quantifying genome-wide DNA modification levels, providing single-base resolution information about DNA methylation patterns.
How does chromatin remodeling influence gene expression regulation?
Chromatin remodeling involves altering the positioning and accessibility of nucleosomes, thereby regulating gene expression by controlling the accessibility of DNA to transcription factors and regulatory proteins.
Which of the following is NOT a type of epigenetic modification?
A) DNA Methylation
B) Histone Methylation
C) mRNA Splicing
D) Chromatin Remodeling
C) mRNA Splicing
True or False:
Statement: CRISPR-based gene editing allows for the precise modification of gene expression patterns by introducing specific sequence alterations.
True. CRISPR-based gene editing can precisely modify gene expression patterns by directing the Cas nuclease to specific DNA sequences.
What is the role of RNA interference (RNAi) in gene expression regulation?
RNA interference involves the post-transcriptional silencing of specific genes by introducing small interfering RNA (siRNA) or microRNAs (miRNAs) to target and degrade complementary mRNA molecules.
True or False:
Statement: Workplace discrimination based on epigenetic information is not a concern as it does not provide accurate predictions of life expectancy or chronic illness.
False. Workplace discrimination based on epigenetic information, such as predictions of life expectancy or chronic illness, is a significant ethical concern.
How does alternative splicing contribute to gene expression regulation?
Alternative splicing allows for the inclusion/exclusion of different exons during pre-mRNA processing, leading to the production of multiple mRNA isoforms from a single gene, thereby regulating gene expression by generating different protein variants or isoforms.
True or False:
Statement: The spatial organization of chromatin within the nucleus has no impact on gene expression regulation.
False. The spatial organization of chromatin within the nucleus can affect gene expression by facilitating interactions between regulatory elements and target genes.
What is the significance of post-translational modifications in regulating protein activity?
Post-translational modifications, such as phosphorylation, acetylation, ubiquitination, and glycosylation, can alter protein activity, stability, and localization, thereby regulating various cellular processes and pathways.
Which of the following techniques allows for the precise editing of gene expression patterns at the genomic level?
A) RNA Interference
B) Small Molecule Inhibitors
C) Chromatin Remodeling
D) CRISPR-based Gene Editing
D) CRISPR-based Gene Editing
How does RNA interference (RNAi) differ from CRISPR-based gene editing in terms of gene regulation mechanisms?
RNA interference (RNAi) involves the post-transcriptional silencing of specific genes by degrading complementary mRNA molecules using small interfering RNA (siRNA) or microRNAs (miRNAs), whereas CRISPR-based gene editing allows for the precise modification of gene expression patterns by introducing specific sequence alterations at the genomic level.
True or False:
Statement: Epigenetic changes, such as DNA methylation, only occur in somatic cells and do not impact germline cells.
False. Epigenetic changes, including DNA methylation, can occur in both somatic and germline cells, potentially influencing gene expression in subsequent generations.
What is the role of histone modification in gene expression regulation?
Histone modification involves post-translational modifications to histone proteins, such as methylation, acetylation, phosphorylation, and ubiquitination, which can either activate or repress gene transcription by altering chromatin structure and accessibility to transcription factors.
True or False:
Statement: Genetic risk scores are solely based on environmental factors and lifestyle choices.
False. Genetic risk scores are calculated based on genetic variants associated with certain traits or diseases, in addition to considering environmental factors and lifestyle choices.
How does methylation of promoter regions influence gene expression?
Methylation of promoter regions can lead to gene silencing by blocking the binding of transcription factors and recruiting proteins involved in gene repression, thereby reducing or preventing gene transcription.
Which of the following is NOT a method used to measure DNA methylation levels?
A) Methylated DNA Immunoprecipitation Sequencing (MeDIP-seq)
B) CRISPR-based Gene Editing
C) Reduced Representation Bisulfite Sequencing
D) Whole Genome Bisulfite Sequencing
B) CRISPR-based Gene Editing
True or False:
Statement: Histone modification refers only to changes in the amino acid sequence of histone proteins.
False. Histone modification includes various post-translational modifications to histone proteins, such as methylation, acetylation, phosphorylation, and ubiquitination.
How does the technique of reduced representation bisulfite sequencing (RRBS) work in quantifying DNA methylation levels?
Reduced representation bisulfite sequencing (RRBS) selectively sequences regions of the genome that are enriched for CpG sites, allowing for the quantification of DNA methylation levels at specific genomic loci with reduced sequencing costs compared to whole-genome bisulfite sequencing.
Which of the following techniques allows for the quantification of DNA modification levels at many or all cytosines in the genome?
A) Chromatin Immunoprecipitation Sequencing (ChIP-seq)
B) Methylated DNA Immunoprecipitation Sequencing (MeDIP-seq)
C) Reduced Representation Bisulfite Sequencing (RRBS)
D) Whole Genome Bisulfite Sequencing (WGBS)
D) Whole Genome Bisulfite Sequencing (WGBS)
How does the technique of methylated DNA immunoprecipitation sequencing (MeDIP-seq) work in quantifying DNA methylation levels?
MeDIP-seq involves immunoprecipitation of methylated DNA fragments using specific antibodies, followed by sequencing to determine the locations of methylated regions in the genome, providing information about DNA methylation patterns.
True or False:
Statement: DNA methylation occurs exclusively at cytosine residues in CpG dinucleotides.
False. While DNA methylation predominantly occurs at cytosine residues in CpG dinucleotides, it can also occur at non-CpG sites, albeit at lower frequencies, particularly in certain cell types such as embryonic stem cells.
How do DNA methyltransferase inhibitors, such as 5-Azacytidine, function in modulating DNA methylation levels?
DNA methyltransferase inhibitors interfere with the activity of DNA methyltransferase enzymes, preventing the addition of methyl groups to cytosine residues, thereby leading to DNA demethylation and alterations in gene expression patterns.
What is hypoxia signaling?
Hypoxia signaling involves the activation of Hypoxia-Inducible Factors (HIFs) under low oxygen conditions, leading to the transcriptional regulation of genes involved in various physiological responses.
How does hypoxia response affect cellular physiology?
Hypoxia response leads to increased vascularization, enhanced ventilation and cardiac output, metabolic shift from aerobic to anaerobic, and promotion of improved oxygen carrying capacity.
In hypoxic conditions, the enzymatic activity of PHD is inhibited, preventing HIF-a hydroxylation and ubiquitin-mediated proteasome degradation, thus stabilizing HIF-a proteins and allowing them to translocate to the nucleus and induce the expression of downstream genes containing ______________.
Hypoxia-responsive elements (HREs).
True or False:
Statement: Increased cardiac output is one of the major physiological effects of hypoxia response.
True
What is a major physiological effect of hypoxia response?
A) Decreased ventilation
B) Reduced vascularization
C) Increase in blood oxygen carrying capacity
D) Shift from anaerobic to aerobic metabolism
C) Increase in blood oxygen carrying capacity
How can animal models be used to study human diseases?
Animal models are used for studying human diseases through techniques such as cell transplantation, transgenesis, and injection, allowing researchers to simulate disease conditions and study disease mechanisms in vivo.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of in vivo model systems?
In vivo models allow the study of entire organ systems, provide control over experimental conditions, and enable longitudinal studies, but may not always replicate human symptoms accurately and raise ethical concerns.
In vitro models are more ethically suitable compared to in vivo models, but they only represent the response of specific cells or tissues used in the experiment, thus limiting the ______________.
Generalizability of results.
True or False:
Statement: In vitro models are cheaper and quicker than in vivo models, but their findings may need confirmation using in vivo models.
True
Which of the following is NOT a method used to model human diseases in animals?
A) Cell transplantation
B) Transgenesis
C) In vitro culture
D) Injection
C) In vitro culture
What hurdles are associated with oxygen availability in islet transplantation, and how does cotransplantation with MSCs address these hurdles?
Islet transplantation faces challenges such as poor islet graft revascularization and hypoxia, leading to islet death. Cotransplantation with MSCs can increase oxygenation, induce revascularization, and enhance islet function.
Cotransplantation of MSCs with islets can lead to enhanced mitochondrial function and improved islet function by increasing glucose-stimulated oxygen consumption rate and reducing ______________.
Hypoxia-related islet death.
True or False:
Statement: Hypertension can increase the risk of dementia by causing brain damage due to oxidative stress and DNA damage.
True
How can hypertension affect oxygen distribution in the brain and promote the development of dementia?
A) By reducing blood perfusion to capillaries
B) By increasing neurogenesis
C) By decreasing white matter hyperintensities
D) By promoting endothelial function
A) By reducing blood perfusion to capillaries
How does hypoxia contribute to the development of sarcopenia?
Hypoxia disrupts mitochondrial function, induces oxidative stress, and inhibits the mTOR pathway, leading to muscle atrophy and sarcopenia.
Hypoxia-induced inhibition of the mTOR pathway can lead to reduced muscle protein synthesis (MPS), contributing to ______________.
Muscle atrophy.
True or False:
Statement: Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is used in clinical settings to treat sarcopenia by enhancing muscle strength and function.
False. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is not commonly used to treat sarcopenia.
What is a potential therapeutic strategy for addressing sarcopenia associated with hypoxia?
A) Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
B) Stem cell transplantation
C) Gene therapy
D) Chemotherapy
B) Stem cell transplantation
What is hypoxia?
Hypoxia is a condition characterized by a deficiency in the amount of oxygen reaching the tissues, leading to cellular stress and adaptive responses.
How do Hypoxia-Inducible Factors (HIFs) mediate cellular responses to hypoxic conditions?
HIFs are transcription factors that, under hypoxic conditions, stabilize and translocate to the nucleus, where they bind to hypoxia-responsive elements (HREs) on target genes, regulating their expression and promoting adaptive responses to hypoxia.
In normoxic conditions, HIF-a proteins undergo rapid ubiquitination and degradation by the proteasome through hydroxylation of prolyl residues mediated by ______________.
Prolyl hydroxylase enzymes (PHDs).
True or False:
Statement: HIF-a proteins contain an oxygen-dependent degradation domain utilized by the proline hydroxylase family (PHDs) and von Hippel-Lindau protein (pVHL) for ubiquitin-mediated proteasomal degradation under normoxic conditions.
True
What is the primary function of HIFs under hypoxic conditions?
A) Promoting ubiquitination of target proteins
B) Inducing mitochondrial biogenesis
C) Regulating gene expression to adapt to low oxygen levels
D) Inhibiting angiogenesis
C) Regulating gene expression to adapt to low oxygen levels
What is in vitro modeling?
In vitro modeling involves studying biological processes or disease mechanisms using isolated cells or tissues cultured outside their natural environment, typically in laboratory settings.
How do in vivo model systems allow for the study of human diseases?
In vivo model systems involve studying disease conditions in living organisms, such as animals, allowing researchers to observe physiological responses, disease progression, and treatment outcomes in a complex biological context.
In vitro models are useful for studying specific cellular responses but may lack ______________ seen in living organisms.
The complexity and interactions of multiple organ systems.
True or False:
Statement: In vivo models offer greater physiological relevance compared to in vitro models but are generally more cost-effective and quicker to conduct.
False
Which of the following is NOT a method used for modeling human diseases in animals?
A) Cell culture
B) Transgenesis
C) Xenotransplantation
D) Injection of disease-inducing agents
A) Cell culture
What are mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs)?
Mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) are multipotent stromal cells that can differentiate into various cell types and play a role in tissue repair and regeneration.
How do mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) aid in islet transplantation?
MSCs can enhance islet survival, promote revascularization, and improve oxygenation by releasing factors that stimulate angiogenesis and reduce inflammation in the transplant site.
What is semaglutide?
Semaglutide is a glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist used for the treatment of diabetes and obesity.
How does semaglutide aid in weight loss?
Semaglutide promotes weight loss by binding to GLP-1 receptors in the brain, reducing appetite, and causing individuals to eat less.
Semaglutide stimulates insulin release by binding to receptors in the ______________.
Pancreas
True or False:
Statement: Semaglutide can only bind to receptors in the pancreas.
False
In addition to reducing appetite, semaglutide promotes weight loss by:
A) Increasing blood glucose levels
B) Decreasing myocardial contractility
C) Stimulating neurogenesis
D) Inhibiting insulin biosynthesis
C) Stimulating neurogenesis
What are some barriers in the production and delivery of new drugs?
Barriers may include regulatory challenges, availability of materials, and distribution issues.
How might limited production affect the availability of drugs like semaglutide?
Limited production of drugs like semaglutide can lead to high demand, pushing up prices and restricting access, especially for those with lower economic status.
Due to high demand, limited production can result in increased prices, limiting access to drugs to those of higher ______________.
economic status
True or False:
Statement: Limited production of drugs ensures equitable access for all individuals.
False
What is a potential consequence of limited drug production and high demand?
A) Decreased prices
B) Increased access
C) Restricted availability
D) Lower demand
C) Restricted availability
What are social prescriptions?
Social prescriptions involve non-medical interventions, such as exercise programs or cooking classes, prescribed to promote health and well-being.
How can social prescriptions be paired with pharmacological interventions for weight loss?
Social prescriptions, such as physical activity programs or cooking classes, complement pharmacological interventions by addressing social determinants of health and supporting individuals in achieving sustainable weight loss.
Social prescriptions like exercise options or cooking classes can support ______________ treatments.
Weight-loss
True or False:
Statement: Social prescriptions do not play a role in promoting holistic well-being alongside pharmacological interventions.
False
Which of the following is an example of a social prescription for weight loss?
A) Prescription medication
B) Surgery
C) Exercise program
D) Dietary supplement
C) Exercise program
What is the primary mechanism of action of semaglutide?
Semaglutide primarily works as a glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist.
How does semaglutide affect insulin release?
Semaglutide binds to GLP-1 receptors in the pancreas, stimulating insulin release and lowering blood glucose levels.
Semaglutide promotes weight loss by reducing appetite through binding to GLP-1 receptors in the ______________.
Brain
True or False:
Statement: Semaglutide binds exclusively to GLP-1 receptors in the pancreas.
False
In addition to weight loss, semaglutide is associated with:
A) Increased blood glucose levels
B) Decreased heart rate
C) Enhanced insulin biosynthesis
D) Reduced neurogenesis
C) Enhanced insulin biosynthesis
What are some regulatory challenges in the production and delivery of new drugs?
Regulatory challenges may include obtaining approvals from regulatory agencies and complying with legal requirements.
How might regulatory challenges impact the availability of new drugs?
Regulatory challenges can delay the production and distribution of new drugs, affecting their availability to patients.
Regulatory challenges can result in delays in ______________ of new drugs.
Production and delivery
True or False:
Statement: Regulatory challenges do not affect the availability of new drugs.
False
What is a consequence of regulatory challenges in drug production?
A) Expedited distribution
B) Increased accessibility
C) Delayed availability
D) Reduced demand
C) Delayed availability
What are social prescriptions in healthcare?
Social prescriptions involve non-medical interventions prescribed to address social determinants of health and improve overall well-being.
How can social prescriptions complement pharmacological interventions?
Social prescriptions, such as exercise programs or mental health support, can enhance the effectiveness of pharmacological treatments by addressing underlying social factors contributing to health outcomes.
Social prescriptions promote holistic well-being by addressing ______________ determinants of health.
social
True or False:
Statement: Social prescriptions are solely focused on medical interventions.
False
Which of the following is an example of a social prescription?
A) Prescription medication
B) Surgical procedure
C) Exercise program
D) Dietary supplement
C) Exercise program
What is bisulfite conversion used for in DNA methylation analysis?
Bisulfite conversion is used to analyze DNA methylation patterns by converting unmethylated cytosines to uracil while leaving methylated cytosines unchanged.
How does bisulfite conversion differentiate between methylated and unmethylated cytosines?
Bisulfite conversion treats unmethylated cytosines to convert them to uracil, whereas methylated cytosines remain unchanged. PCR amplification is then used to differentiate between the converted and unchanged cytosines.
Bisulfite conversion is advantageous for its high resolution and ______________ coverage.
Genome-wide.
True or False:
Statement: Bisulfite conversion relies on specialized protocols and PCR amplification bias.
True
Which technique does not rely on bisulfite treatment for DNA methylation analysis?
A) Bisulfite conversion
B) Methylated DNA Immunoprecipitation Sequencing (MeDIP-Seq)
C) Methylation-specific PCR (MSP)
D) Chromatin Immunoprecipitation Sequencing (ChIP-Seq)
B) Methylated DNA Immunoprecipitation Sequencing (MeDIP-Seq)
What is the principle behind Methylated DNA Immunoprecipitation Sequencing (MeDIP-Seq)?
MeDIP-Seq involves immunoprecipitating methylated DNA fragments using antibodies specific to 5-methylcytosine, followed by sequencing to identify methylated regions in the genome.
How does Methylation-specific PCR (MSP) determine DNA methylation patterns?
MSP uses primers specific to methylated or unmethylated DNA sequences for PCR amplification, allowing the detection of methylation at specific CpG sites.
Methylation-specific PCR (MSP) is advantageous for its simplicity, cost-effectiveness, and suitability for ______________.
Small number of CpG sites.
True or False:
Statement: Chromatin Immunoprecipitation Sequencing (ChIP-Seq) requires high-quality antibodies and is not affected by cross-link bias.
False
What is the primary goal of RNA-Seq in epigenetic analysis?
A) Analyzing DNA methylation patterns
B) Quantifying histone modifications
C) Identifying coding and non-coding RNA transcripts
D) Sequencing immunoprecipitated DNA fragments
C) Identifying coding and non-coding RNA transcripts
What is the purpose of Chromatin Immunoprecipitation Sequencing (ChIP-Seq)?
ChIP-Seq is used to analyze protein-DNA interactions by cross-linking proteins to DNA, immunoprecipitating specific histone modifications, and then sequencing the immunoprecipitated DNA fragments.
How does Chromatin Immunoprecipitation Sequencing (ChIP-Seq) provide genome-wide analysis?
ChIP-Seq provides genome-wide analysis by identifying and mapping protein-DNA interactions and histone modifications across the entire genome, offering insights into chromatin states and regulatory elements.
Chromatin Immunoprecipitation Sequencing (ChIP-Seq) requires the use of high-quality antibodies and may be affected by ______________ bias
Cross-link
True or False:
Statement: RNA-Seq is primarily used to directly measure DNA methylation patterns.
False
What is the advantage of using Microarray Analysis in studying non-coding RNA?
A) High sensitivity and resolution
B) Simple and cost-effective
C) Direct quantification of gene expression levels
D) Prevention of RNA sample degradation
B) Simple and cost-effective
What is RNA-Seq used for in epigenetic analysis?
RNA-Seq is used to sequence RNA transcripts using high-throughput sequencing, allowing for the identification and quantification of coding and non-coding RNAs.
How does Methylated DNA Immunoprecipitation Sequencing (MeDIP-Seq) simplify the procedure compared to bisulfite conversion?
MeDIP-Seq simplifies the procedure by immunoprecipitating methylated DNA fragments using antibodies specific to 5-methylcytosine, eliminating the need for bisulfite treatment.
RNA-Seq provides high sensitivity and resolution for the identification and quantification of coding and non-coding ______________.
RNAs
True or False:
Statement: Microarray Analysis is associated with false-positive results and requires complex data analysis.
True
What is the disadvantage of Methylation-specific PCR (MSP) compared to other DNA methylation analysis techniques?
A) Limited predeterminant analysis
B) High resolution
C) Genome-wide coverage
D) Quantitative analysis of methylation status
A) Limited predeterminant analysis
What are gene-environment interactions?
Gene-environment interactions refer to situations where the impact of an environmental exposure on disease risk varies based on individuals’ genotypes.
How do gene-environment interactions affect disease risk?
Gene-environment interactions can obscure environmental effects that are only evident in genetically susceptible individuals and genetic effects that are only evident in individuals with specific exposure histories.
Environmental exposures like diet, stress, and toxins can induce ________________ that may increase disease risk.
Epigenetic changes.
True or False:
Statement: Epigenetic modifications involve alterations to the underlying DNA sequence.
False
Which biological mechanisms are involved in gene-environment interactions?
A) DNA sequencing
B) Protein synthesis
C) Epigenetic modification
D) Cellular respiration
C) Epigenetic modification
What is the Mendelian approach used for in the context of understanding disease genetics?
The Mendelian approach is used to identify individual genes with variations that give rise to simple Mendelian patterns of disease inheritance.
How does the Mendelian approach contribute to understanding genetic susceptibility to diseases?
It helps identify specific genes associated with diseases and assesses their role in disease inheritance and risk.
Twin studies and family studies are used to estimate the ________________ of disease.
Heritability
True or False:
Statement: Gene-environment interactions are solely dependent on genetic factors and not influenced by environmental exposures.
False
Which approach is primarily used for understanding the genetics of birth defects and common diseases?
A) Mendelian approach
B) Epigenetic modification
C) Genome-wide association studies
D) RNA sequencing
A) Mendelian approach
What are epigenetic modifications?
Epigenetic modifications are changes in gene expression that do not involve alterations to the underlying DNA sequence but can be influenced by environmental exposures.
How do lifelong exposures to environmental factors impact gene expression patterns?
Lifelong exposures to environmental factors can lead to changes in gene expression patterns, influencing disease trajectories and increasing disease risk.
Gene-environment interactions may vary depending on the timing, duration, intensity, and ________________ of exposures.
Frequency
True or False:
Statement: Mendelian approach is primarily used for understanding the genetics of complex diseases.
False
Which environmental exposures can induce epigenetic changes?
A) UV radiation
B) Air pollution
C) Diet
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
What is the primary purpose of Mendelian approach in genetic studies?
The Mendelian approach is used to identify individual genes responsible for simple Mendelian patterns of disease inheritance.
How do twin studies contribute to understanding the heritability of diseases?
Twin studies compare disease concordance between monozygotic and dizygotic twins to estimate the heritability of diseases based on genetic similarity.
Family studies are used to assess the ________________ of disease within families.
Aggregation
True or False:
Statement: Environmental exposures have no impact on gene expression patterns.
False
Which biological mechanisms are influenced by gene-environment interactions?
A) DNA replication
B) Protein folding
C) Epigenetic modification
D) Cell division
C) Epigenetic modification
What are some advantages of using in vivo models of disease for testing new drugs and therapies?
a) More cost-effective than in vitro testing
b) Allows for rapid translation of findings to clinical applications
c) Animals always replicate human symptoms accurately
d) Provides a degree of control similar to clinical trials
b) Allows for rapid translation of findings to clinical applications
True or False
Statement: In vivo models of disease involve manipulating genes to induce specific conditions.
True
One method of modeling a disease in an animal is through _______.
Surgical models
What does “transgenesis” refer to in the context of modeling diseases in animals?
Transgenesis is the process of introducing a foreign gene into an organism’s genome to study its effects.
List two disadvantages of using in vivo models of disease for testing new drugs and therapies.
Animals do not always replicate the same symptoms as humans, making it hard to extrapolate results.
There are ethical concerns associated with the use of animals in research.
Match the modeling method with its description.
a) Single-gene knock-outs/knock-ins
b) Surgical models
c) Gene modifications
- Introducing a specific mutation into a single gene.
- Inducing disease-like conditions through surgical procedures.
- Altering the genetic makeup of an organism to study disease mechanisms.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
