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Part I Boards Question Bank > Trauma I & II > Flashcards

Trauma I & II Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following represents the most common type of glenohumeral dislocation?

A. Anterior dislocation, subglenoid type.

B. Anterior dislocation, subclavicular type.

C. Posterior dislocation, subacromial type.

D. Anterior dislocation, subcoracoid type.

A

D. Anterior dislocation, subcoracoid type.

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2
Q

In gamekeeper’s thumb, the criteria for surgical repair is…

A. Any avulsion fracture with a fragment displaced by more than 5 mm

B. Displaced intra-articular corner fracture involving more than 25% of the articular surface

C. Associated volar subluxation of the proximal phalanx

D. All of the above are indications for surgical repair

A

D. All of the above are indications for surgical repair

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3
Q

An individual with a fatigue fracture of the proximal pole of the patella is most likely a…

A. Ballet dancer

B. Hurdler

C. Parachutist

D. Bowler

A

B. Hurdler

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4
Q

Which of the following types of dislocation most commonly affect the coxofemoral joint?

A. Anterior

B. Posterior

C. Superior

D. Luxatio erecta

A

B. Posterior

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5
Q

The X-ray signs of child abuse can be mimicked by…

A. Scurvy

B. Caffey’s disease

C. Rickets

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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6
Q

This is the most common fracture of the atlas.

A. Horizontal fracture through the anterior arch

B. Jefferson fracture

C. Unilateral fractures of the neural arch

D. Bilateral vertical fracture through the neural arch

A

D. Bilateral vertical fracture through the neural arch

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7
Q

Which statement is true concerning Type I growth plate injuries?

A. Has a poor prognosis

B. Occurs generally in the late teens

C. The proximal portions of the humerus and femur and the distal portion of the radius are the most commonly affected

D. Includes a small corner of the metaphysis

A

C. The proximal portions of the humerus and femur and the distal portion of the radius are the most commonly affected

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8
Q

Which of the following conditions, seen on conventional radiography, is not frequently associated with an anterior cruciate ligament injury?

A. Deepening of the lateral femoral condylar notch (lateral notch sign).

B. Segond fracture

C. Anterior translation of the tibia in regards to the distal femur

D. Spontaneous osteonecrosis of the knee (SONK)

A

D. Spontaneous osteonecrosis of the knee (SONK)

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9
Q

The avulsion fracture seen at the base of the dorsal surface of the terminal phalanx is termed…

A. Volar plate fracture

B. Mallet fracture

C. Slip attachment fracture

D. Boxer’s fracture

A

B. Mallet fracture

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10
Q

A pseudoarthrosis may form with this complication.

A. Delayed union

B. Malunion

C. Nonunion

D. Synostosis

A

C. Nonunion

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11
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four bony landmarks that should be considered as fundumental to proper assessment of the extent of acetabular fractures?

A. The iliopubic column.

B. The anterior acetabular rim.

C. The symphysis pubis.

D. The ilioishial column.

A

C. The symphysis pubis

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12
Q

This fracture consists of a portion of a tubular bone isolated by proximal and distal transverse fracture lines.

A. Butterfly fracture

B. Tapping fracture

C. Teacup fracture

D. Segmental fracture

A

D. Segmental fracture

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13
Q

A compression fracture of the posterolateral aspect of the humeral head that is produced by impaction of the humerus against the glenoid fossa is known as:

A. A Bankart lesion.

B. A Hill-Sachs lesion.

C. The trough sign.

D. A reverse Hill-Sachs lesion.

A

B. A Hill-Sachs lesion.

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14
Q

This fracture is composed of more than two fragments.

A. Greenstick fracture

B. Lead pipe fracture

C. Tapping fracture

D. Comminuted fracture

A

D. Comminuted fracture

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15
Q

Which of the following is not an indicator of instability of a burst fracture?

A. Presence of translation component

B. Compression of greater than 50% of the vertebral body

C. Increased interpediculate distance

D. Horizontal fracture in the anterior aspect of the vertebral body

A

D. Horizontal fracture in the anterior aspect of the vertebral body

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16
Q

Frontal radiographs of the knee reveal a small, ovoid shaped fragment of bone adjacent to the lateral aspect of the proximal tibia, just inferior to the joint line. Coronal T1-weighted spin-echo MR images demonstrate a marginal defect in the lateral tibia and disruption of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). Which of the following best illustrates the diagnosis for the previously described findings?

A. Fender fracture

B. Segond fracture

C. Pes anserine avulsion

D. No correct answer listed

A

B. Segond fracture

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17
Q

Coronoid process fractures usually occur in association with…

A. Anterior dislocations of the elbow

B. Posterior dislocations of the elbow

C. Radial head fractures

D. Supracondylar fractures

A

B. Posterior dislocations of the elbow

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18
Q

A frontal radiograph demonstrates a dislocated hip joint where the femoral head is localized inferomedially in regards to the acetabulum. Which of the following is not typically associated with this injury?

A. Anterior dislocation

B. Posterior dislocation

C. Depression or flattening of the posterosuperior portion of the femoral head

D. Fracture of the acetabular rim

A

B. Posterior dislocation

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19
Q

Which one of the following statements concerning extension teardrop fractures are true?

A. The fracture usually is not associated with any neurologic deficit

B. The fracture is highly unstable

C. The anteroinferior teardrop fragment frequently is large and often involves one third to one half of the vertebral body

D. The fracture is usually associated with vertebral body displacement

A

A. The fracture usually is not associated with any neurologic deficit

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20
Q

The bony condensation seen with a fatigue fracture of the roof of the acetabulum is called the “sourcil” or_________sign.

A. Arched eyebrow

B. Eyelid

C. Winking owl

D. Acetabular rim

A

A. Arched eyebrow

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21
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a common characteristic regarding the activities resulting in fatigue fractures?

A. The activity is usually strenuous

B. The pain does not respond well to rest

C. The activity is often new or different

D. The activity is repeated with frequency

A

B. The pain does not respond well to rest

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22
Q

Stress fracture of the first rib may be caused by…

A. Back pack carrier

B. Chronic dyspnea

C. Baseball pitching

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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23
Q

Which one of the following is the most common type of growth plate injury?

A. Salter-Harris Type I

B. Salter-Harris Type II

C. Salter-Harris Type III

D. Salter-Harris Type V

A

B. Salter-Harris Type II

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24
Q

Which of the following most commonly occur in association with posterior dislocations of the shoulder? MARK ALL THAT APPLY

A. Trough fracture line.

B. Bankart lesion.

C. Reverse Bankart-type lesion.

D. Lesser tuberosity avulsion

E. Surgucal neck fracture

A

A. Trough fracture line. C. Reverse Bankart-type lesion.

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25
Q

A mortise view that shows separation of the lateral clear space of the ankle of more than ______ suggests syndesmosis rupture of the distal tibia-fibula.

A. 3.5-mm

B. 4.5-mm

C. 5.5-mm

D. 6.5-mm

A

C. 5.5-mm

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26
Q

Jones’ fractures and dancers fractures are commonly mistaken for the same entity. Choose the false statement about the Jones’ fractures.

A. These are avulsion injuries by the peroneus brevis tendon.

B. Clinically these fractures are easily mistaken for fracture of the lateral malleolus.

C. Radiographically the os vesalianum and the os peroneum may be mistaken for this fracture.

D. These fractures often undergo delayed union or even nonunion.

A

A. These are avulsion injuries by the peroneus brevis tendon.

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27
Q

Post-traumatic osteolysis can be distinguished from Gorham’s disease by…

A. Its progressive nature

B. Absence of angiomatosis

C. Absence of hyperlipidemia

D. Absence of amyloidosis

A

B. Absence of angiomatosis

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28
Q

Posterior/posterolateral dislocations account for which % of all elbow dislocations?

A. 10-20% .

B. 30-40%

C. 40-50%

D. 80-90%

A

D. 80-90%

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29
Q

Which of the following distal radius fractures is not associated with its correct description?

A. Colle’s fracture - fracture of the distal radius with dorsal angulation of the distal fragment

B. Barton’s fracture - fracture of the dorsal rim of the radius

C. Galeazzi fracture - fracture of the distal diaphysis of the radius with dislocation of the proximal ulna

D. Hutchinson’s fracture - Avulsion of the radial styloid process by the radial collateral

A

C. Galeazzi fracture - fracture of the distal diaphysis of the radius with dislocation of the proximal ulna

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30
Q

Choose the false statement concerning myositis ossificans traumatica?

A. The developing lesion contains three distinct zones

B. Biopsy of cellular inner and middle layers alone may result in an erroneous diagnosis of a sarcoma

C. It is the outer zone of the lesion that reveals the true benign nature of the process

D. Identification of myositis ossificans usually is not possible on the basis of the clinical and radiographic findings alone

A

D. Identification of myositis ossificans usually is not possible on the basis of the clinical and radiographic findings alone

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31
Q

A fatigue fracture within the femoral neck generally reveals…

A. Transverse radiolucent line

B. Fluffy periosteal callus

C. Line of endosteal sclerosis

D. Periosteal reaction over a prolonged segment

A

C. Line of endosteal sclerosis

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32
Q

The “die punch fracture” affects which of the following bones…

A. Scaphoid

B. Capitate

C. First metacarpal head

D. Lunate

A

D. Lunate

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33
Q

Fractures sustained by pure compressive force result in…

A. Transverse fracture

B. Spiral fracture

C. Oblique fracture

D. Comminuted fracture

A

C. Oblique fracture

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34
Q

Which one of the following is not an indirect sign of rib fracture?

A. Hemothorax

B. Pneumothorax

C. Callus formation

D. Interstitial emphysema

A

C. Callus formation

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35
Q

Which one of the following statements is false concerning the Hangman’s fracture?

A. These are also known as traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis

B. Hangman’s fractures are usually the result of acute hyperflexion

C. Most hangman’s fractures are type 1

D. An avulsion fracture of the anterior inferior margin of the axis or anterior superior margin at C3 is often present and identifies the site of rupture of the anterior longitudinal ligament

A

B. Hangman’s fractures are usually the result of acute hyperflexion

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36
Q

A child’s radiographs are brought into your office. She complained of knee pain following a fall from a bicycle. The knee is swollen and the pain is elicited directly inferior to the patella. A positive anterior drawer test was noted on clinical evaluation. Which fracture should be suspected?

A. Bumper fracture

B. Avulsion of the anterior tibial spine

C. Trampoline fracture

D. Avulsion of the tibial tuberosity

A

B. Avulsion of the anterior tibial spine

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37
Q

The trough sign represents:

A. Complete rupture of the anterior glenohumeral calsuple with visualized contrast exiting through the capsule on arthroscopy

B. A decrease in the resistance of the needle during arthroscopy after it perforated through the capsule

C. An impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head secondary to a posterior dislocation

D. A complete cartilaginous defect associated with a Bankart lesion

A

C. An impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head secondary to a posterior dislocation

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38
Q

Fractures sustained by angulation or bending of the bone result in…

A. Transverse fracture

B. Spiral fracture

C. Oblique fracture

D. Comminuted fracture

A

A. Transverse fracture

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39
Q

Identify the false statement about post-traumatic osteolysis.

A. It can be seen immediately following the traumatic event

B. It is self-limiting

C. It is not associated with any identifiable or apparent metabolic or infectious cause

D. Pain is mild to absent

A

A. It can be seen immediately following the traumatic event

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40
Q

Which one of the following statements is false concerning flexion teardrop fractures?

A. The characteristic neurological deficit seen is the anterior cord syndrome

B. The flexion teardrop injury typically involves the lower cervical spine, with C5 being the most common level of involvement

C. The most specific finding in this injury is posterior displacement of the inferior aspect of the larger posterior fragment of the fractured vertebral body relative to the vertebra below

D. The most commonly associated fracture affects the posterior arch

A

D. The most commonly associated fracture affects the posterior arch

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41
Q

Choose the correct statement about supracondylar fractures of the elbow.

A. Supracondylar fractures are common in adults

B. The extension type is most common

C. The flexion type is more likely associated with antecubital injury

D. Vascular injury is common in the flexion type

A

B. The extension type is most common

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42
Q

Choose the true statement about osteochondral fractures of the lateral talar dome.

A. It is slightly more common in females.

B. The lateral surface is usually fractured on its posterior aspect.

C. This injury is the result of inversion while the ankle is in plantar flexion.

D. The inversion strain usually results in associated rupture of the lateral collateral ligament

A

D. The inversion strain usually results in associated rupture of the lateral collateral ligament

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43
Q

Fractures sustained by tension forces are characteristically…

A. Transverse

B. Spiral

C. Oblique

D. Comminuted

A

A. Transverse

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44
Q

Approximately one half of posterior glenohumeral dislocations are associated with which of the following?

A. Cleidocranial dysplasia

B. Epileptic seziures

C. Decompression sickness

D. Multiple sclerosis

A

B. Epileptic seziures

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45
Q

Which one of the following statements is true concerning the type Ill odontoid process fracture?

A. They are diagnosed on the AP open mouth radiograph

B. They must be differentiated from the os odontoidium

C. They are the most common type of odontoid process fractures

D. Harris ring of C2 is disrupted on the lateral view

A

D. Harris ring of C2 is disrupted on the lateral view

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46
Q

Pronation-dorsiflexion injuries of the ankle most commonly result form a fall from a height that forces the talus into the tibial plafond, and are designated:

A. Dupuytren fractures.

B. Tillaux fractures.

C. Wagstaff-Lefort fractures.

D. Pilon (pestle) fractures.

A

D. Pilon (pestle) fractures.

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47
Q

Which of the following are used to differentiate an acute wedge compression fracture from an old healed wedge compression fracture? MARK ALL THAT APPLY.

A. Anterior wedge deformity

B. Step defect

C. Linear white band of condensation (zone of impaction)

D. Middle column disruption

E. No correct answer listed

A

B. Step defect C. Linear white band of condensation (zone of impaction)

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48
Q

Which of the following is false concerning shoulder girdle injuries?

A. Direct trauma accounts for most fractures of the medial end of the clavicle.

B. Acromioclavicular joint dislocation with posterior displacement of the clavicle represents a type IV AC joint injury.

C. A posterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint is usually seen in patients with inflammatory arthritides

D. A non displaced fracture of the greater tuberosity of the humerus represents a one-part fracture (Neer classification)

A

C. A posterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint is usually seen in patients with inflammatory arthritides

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49
Q

A 12 day old fatigue fracture of the 2nd to 5th metatarsals reveals which of the following? MARK ALL THAT APPLY

A. Transverse radiolucent line

B. Fluffy periosteal callus

C. Soft tissue swelling

D. No correct answer listed

A

A. Transverse radiolucent line B. Fluffy periosteal callus C. Soft tissue swelling

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50
Q

Which of the following tarsal bones is most commonly fractured?

A. Navicular

B. Calcaneous

C. Cuboid

D. Talus

A

B. Calcaneous

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51
Q

This is the most common form of ankle injury.

A. Supination-adduction

B. Supination-external rotation

C. Pronation-abduction

D. Pronation-external rotation

A

B. Supination-external rotation

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52
Q

This is the longest phase of fracture healing.

A. Inflammatory phase

B. Reparative phase

C. Remodeling phase

D. Metabolic phase

A

C. Remodeling phase

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53
Q

Which is the true statement concerning Type V growth plate injuries?

A. These occur mostly in the upper extremities

B. Shearing or avulsion causes these forces

C. This injury is more prominent in young children usually less than 10 years of age

D. Prematured osseous fusion of the injured portion of the plate may be identified

A

D. Prematured osseous fusion of the injured portion of the plate may be identified

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54
Q

Which of the following is not a good indicator of likely unilateral facet dislocation of the cervical spine when viewing the lateral projection?

A. Bow tie appearance

B. Spinous processes displaced toward the affected side at the level of injury

C. Rounded pedicle in the anterior superior margin of the rotated vertebral bodies above the level of injury

D. Reduction in the distance between the spinolaminar line and the posterior cortex of the articular pillars at the level of injury

A

B. Spinous processes displaced toward the affected side at the level of injury

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55
Q

The Thurston Holland, or “corner sign”, is used to describe_______.

A. The fragment of epiphysis and metaphysis seen in the Salter Harris type IV injury.

B. The epiphyseal fragment seen in the Salter Harris type II injury.

C. A fragment of the metaphysis seen in the Salter Harris type Il injury.

D. None of the above.

A

C. A fragment of the metaphysis seen in the Salter Harris type Il injury.

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56
Q

Which one of the following is the most common bone involved in an open fracture?

A. Femur

B. Tibia

C. Radius

D. Ulna

A

B. Tibia

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57
Q

This fracture is a buckling of the corlex produced by compression forces.

A. Greenstick fracture

B. Lead pipe fracture

C. Torus fracture

D. Tapping fracture

A

C. Torus fracture

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58
Q

From the standpoint of stability, this column remains intact in both flexion and extension injuries, whereas it is always disrupted and therefore inherently unstable in burst, distraction, and translation or dislocation injuries.

A. Anterior column

B. Middle column

C. Posterior column

D. Second column

A

B. Middle column

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59
Q

A traction apophysitis of the secondary ossification center at the medial epicondyle of the elbow, resultant from chronic valgus stress injuries, is know as:

A. Epicondylar osteochondritis

B. Lateral epicondylitis

C. Little leaguer’s elbow

D. Golfer’s elbow

A

C. Little leaguer’s elbow

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60
Q

Which one of the following statements is false concerning the Jefferson fracture?

A. The Jefferson fractures are the result of hyperflexion injuries

B. Most commonly there are two fractures in the posterior arch, one on each side, and a single fracture in the anterior arch off the midline

C. The most significant findings are on the frontal projections of the atlas and axis

D. An unstable fracture is one in which the transverse ligament is disrupted, as evidenced by lateral displacement in excess of 7-mm

A

A. The Jefferson fractures are the result of hyperflexion injuries

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61
Q

Which one of the following statements is false concerning slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

A. The occurrence of slipped capital femoral epiphysis in tall, thin children is unusual

B. Fewer than 50% of patients have a history of significant injury

C. Experimental observations have indicated that a deficit of sex hormones relative to growth hormone can produce widening of the growth plate and a reduction of the shearing force necessary to displace the epiphysis

D. The propensity for epiphyseal slippage appears to be greater in less active adolescents than those who are physically active

A

D. The propensity for epiphyseal slippage appears to be greater in less active adolescents than those who are physically active

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62
Q

Which statement is false about fractures of the patella?

A. May result from direct or indirect trauma

B. Patellar fractures are usually displaced

C. Transverse and oblique fractures are most frequent

D. Vertical fractures are least frequent

A

B. Patellar fractures are usually displaced

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63
Q

A fatigue fracture of the obturator ring is most likely caused by…

A. Marching

B. Bowling

C. Running

D. Golf

A

B. Bowling

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64
Q

A fatigue fracture of the tibial plateau reveals…

A. Transverse radiolucent line

B. Fluffy periosteal callus

C. Line of endosteal sclerosis

D. Periosteal reaction over a prolonged segment

A

C. Line of endosteal sclerosis

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65
Q

The malunion of a first metacarpal shaft fracture may have up to_______degrees of residual angular deformity before detectable limitation of motion occurs.

A. 10

B. 20

C. 30

D. 40

A

C. 30

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66
Q

Which of the following represents a fracture of the proximal fibular shaft that is associated with disruption of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis and medial malleolar fracture or tear of the deltoid ligament complex?

A. Maisonneuve fracture

B. Wagstaff-Lefort fracture

C. Dupuytren fracture

D. Lisfranc fracture

A

A. Maisonneuve fracture

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67
Q

Approximately 25% of fractures of C1 and C2 are associated with other fractures of the spine. The most common combination is fracture of the atlas associated with…

A. A second fracture of the axis

B. Fractures and fracture-dislocations of the lower cervical spine

C. Fractures and fracture-dislocations of the thoracolumbar junction

D. Fractures of the mid-dorsal spine

A

A. A second fracture of the axis

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68
Q

Which of the following fractures best represents a transverse fracture of the proximal portion of the diaphysis of the fifth metatarsal?

A. Dancer’s fracture

B. Bunk bed fracture

C. Lisfranc’s fracture

D. Jones fracture

A

D. Jones fracture

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69
Q

Fractures sustained by rotational forces are characteristically…

A. Transverse

B. Spiral

C. Oblique

D. Comminuted

A

B. Spiral

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70
Q

The most commonly dislocated joint in a child is…

A. The shoulder

B. The elbow

C. The hip

D. The interphalangeal joints

A

B. The elbow

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71
Q

Which of the following statements is false concerning myositis ossificans traumatica?

A. Usually appears in adolescents and young adults

B. In general, the frequency of myositis ossificans traumatica is greater in the distal than in the proximal portion of the extremity

C. Maturity is reached in 5 to 6 months

D. The recognition of a peripheral rim of calcification and ossification about a more lucent center is an important radiographic manifestation

A

B. In general, the frequency of myositis ossificans traumatica is greater in the distal than in the proximal portion of the extremity

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72
Q

A lateral radiograph of the wrist demonstrates a dorsal tilt of the lunate, a flexed scaphoid and a scapholunate angle greater than 70 degrees. Which condition is suspected?

A. Scapholunate dissociation

B. Volar intercalary segmental instability

C. Dorsal intercalary segmental instability

D. Rotatory subluxation of the scaphoid

A

C. Dorsal intercalary segmental instability

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73
Q

All of the following may be considered signs of intersegmental instability within the cervical spine except…

A. Acute kyphotic angulation at a single disc level

B. Smooth, arcuate kyphotic curve

C. Avulsion of the anterior corner of the vertebral body

D. Widening of the zygapophyseal joint more than 2mm

A

B. Smooth, arcuate kyphotic curve

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74
Q

Which one of the following statements is false concerning a burst fracture?

A. The most common location is L1

B. The posterior elements are involved in 25% of cases

C. This is a specific form of compression fracture caused by axial compression forces wherein a fragment arising from the posterior superior margin of the vertebral body is displaced into the spinal canal

D. A sagittal fracture of the vertebral body occurs in approximately 90% of cases

A

B. The posterior elements are involved in 25% of cases

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75
Q

This fracture is the result of bending or angulation forces that place the convex side of the bone in tension and the opposite cortex or concave side in compression resulting in an incomplete transverse fracture on the convex side of the deformity.

A. Greenstick fracture

B. Lead pipe fracture

C. Torus fracture

D. Tapping fracture

A

A. Greenstick fracture

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76
Q

Ten to 15% of anterior dislocations have which of the following associated fractures?

A. Hill-Sachs lesion.

B. Bankart lesion.

C. Trough fracture.

D. Avulsion fracture of the greater tuberosity.

A

D. Avulsion fracture of the greater tuberosity.

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77
Q

Fifty to 80% of patellar fractures are____ and result from____forces.

A. Vertical; direct

B. Comminuted; indirect

C. Longitudinal; direct

D. Transverse; indirect

A

D. Transverse; indirect

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78
Q

An individual with a stress fracture of the inferior glenoid lip is most likely a…

A. Golfer

B. Trap shooter

C. Clay shoveler

D. Baseball player

A

D. Baseball player

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79
Q

Fractures of the cuboid related to indirect compressive forces have been designated:

A. Nutcracker fractures.

B. Bohler’s fractures.

C. Tillaux fractures.

D. Lisfranc’s fractures.

A

A. Nutcracker fractures

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80
Q

All of the following projections can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of a posterior glenohumeral joint dislocation except…

A. Scapular “Y” view

B. Grashey view

C. Axillary view

D. Apical oblique

A

D. Apical oblique

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81
Q

Associate the fracture eponym and its location (an answer can be used more than once)

Aviator’s fracture

A. Distal tibial epiphysis

B. Tibial plateau

C. Neck of the talus

D. Capitellum

E. Greater tuberosity of the humerus

AB. Radial styloid process

AC. Lateral tibia at the insertion of the TFL-LCL

AD. Posterior rim of the acetabulum

AE. Ischium

BC. Proximal fibula

BD. First metacarpal base

BE. Ulnar shaft

CD. Tibial shaft

A

C. Neck of the talus

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82
Q

Associate the fracture eponym and its location (an answer can be used more than once)

Cough fracture

A. Distal tibial epiphysis

B. Tibial plateau

C. Neck of the talus

D. Capitellum

E. Greater tuberosity of the humerus

AB. Radial styloid process

AC. Lateral tibia at the insertion of the TFL-LCL

AD. Posterior rim of the acetabulum

AE. Ischium

BC. Proximal fibula

BD. First metacarpal base

BE. Ulnar shaft

CD. Tibial shaft

A

…

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83
Q

Associate the fracture eponym and its location (an answer can be used more than once)

Segond’s fracture

A. Distal tibial epiphysis

B. Tibial plateau

C. Neck of the talus

D. Capitellum

E. Greater tuberosity of the humerus

AB. Radial styloid process

AC. Lateral tibia at the insertion of the TFL-LCL

AD. Posterior rim of the acetabulum

AE. Ischium

BC. Proximal fibula

BD. First metacarpal base

BE. Ulnar shaft

CD. Tibial shaft

A

AC. Lateral tibia at the insertion of the TFL-LCL

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84
Q

Associate the fracture eponym and its location (an answer can be used more than once)

Dashboard fracture

A. Distal tibial epiphysis

B. Tibial plateau

C. Neck of the talus

D. Capitellum

E. Greater tuberosity of the humerus

AB. Radial styloid process

AC. Lateral tibia at the insertion of the TFL-LCL

AD. Posterior rim of the acetabulum

AE. Ischium

BC. Proximal fibula

BD. First metacarpal base

BE. Ulnar shaft

CD. Tibial shaft

A

AD. Posterior rim of the acetabulu

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85
Q

Associate the fracture eponym and its location (an answer can be used more than once)

Rider’s bone

A. Distal tibial epiphysis

B. Tibial plateau

C. Neck of the talus

D. Capitellum

E. Greater tuberosity of the humerus

AB. Radial styloid process

AC. Lateral tibia at the insertion of the TFL-LCL

AD. Posterior rim of the acetabulum

AE. Ischium

BC. Proximal fibula

BD. First metacarpal base

BE. Ulnar shaft

CD. Tibial shaft

A

AE. Ischium

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86
Q

Associate the fracture eponym and its location (an answer can be used more than once)

Maisonneuve’s fracture

A. Distal tibial epiphysis

B. Tibial plateau

C. Neck of the talus

D. Capitellum

E. Greater tuberosity of the humerus

AB. Radial styloid process

AC. Lateral tibia at the insertion of the TFL-LCL

AD. Posterior rim of the acetabulum

AE. Ischium

BC. Proximal fibula

BD. First metacarpal base

BE. Ulnar shaft

CD. Tibial shaft

A

BC. Proximal fibula

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87
Q

Associate the fracture eponym and its location (an answer can be used more than once)

Flap fracture

A. Distal tibial epiphysis

B. Tibial plateau

C. Neck of the talus

D. Capitellum

E. Greater tuberosity of the humerus

AB. Radial styloid process

AC. Lateral tibia at the insertion of the TFL-LCL

AD. Posterior rim of the acetabulum

AE. Ischium

BC. Proximal fibula

BD. First metacarpal base

BE. Ulnar shaft

CD. Tibial shaft

A

E. Greater tuberosity of the humerus

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88
Q

Associate the fracture eponym and its location (an answer can be used more than once)

Parry fracture

A. Distal tibial epiphysis

B. Tibial plateau

C. Neck of the talus

D. Capitellum

E. Greater tuberosity of the humerus

AB. Radial styloid process

AC. Lateral tibia at the insertion of the TFL-LCL

AD. Posterior rim of the acetabulum

AE. Ischium

BC. Proximal fibula

BD. First metacarpal base

BE. Ulnar shaft

CD. Tibial shaft

A

BE. Ulnar shaft

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89
Q

Associate the fracture eponym and its location (an answer can be used more than once)

Kocher’s fracture

A. Distal tibial epiphysis

B. Tibial plateau

C. Neck of the talus

D. Capitellum

E. Greater tuberosity of the humerus

AB. Radial styloid process

AC. Lateral tibia at the insertion of the TFL-LCL

AD. Posterior rim of the acetabulum

AE. Ischium

BC. Proximal fibula

BD. First metacarpal base

BE. Ulnar shaft

CD. Tibial shaft

A

D. Capitellum

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90
Q

Associate the fracture eponym and its location (an answer can be used more than once)

Chauffeur’s fracture

A. Distal tibial epiphysis

B. Tibial plateau

C. Neck of the talus

D. Capitellum

E. Greater tuberosity of the humerus

AB. Radial styloid process

AC. Lateral tibia at the insertion of the TFL-LCL

AD. Posterior rim of the acetabulum

AE. Ischium

BC. Proximal fibula

BD. First metacarpal base

BE. Ulnar shaft

CD. Tibial shaft

A

AB. Radial styloid process

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91
Q

Associate the fracture eponym and its location (an answer can be used more than once)

Rolando’s fracture

A. Distal tibial epiphysis

B. Tibial plateau

C. Neck of the talus

D. Capitellum

E. Greater tuberosity of the humerus

AB. Radial styloid process

AC. Lateral tibia at the insertion of the TFL-LCL

AD. Posterior rim of the acetabulum

AE. Ischium

BC. Proximal fibula

BD. First metacarpal base

BE. Ulnar shaft

CD. Tibial shaft

A

BD. First metacarpal base

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92
Q

Associate the fracture eponym and its location (an answer can be used more than once)

Juvenile Tillaux fracture

A. Distal tibial epiphysis

B. Tibial plateau

C. Neck of the talus

D. Capitellum

E. Greater tuberosity of the humerus

AB. Radial styloid process

AC. Lateral tibia at the insertion of the TFL-LCL

AD. Posterior rim of the acetabulum

AE. Ischium

BC. Proximal fibula

BD. First metacarpal base

BE. Ulnar shaft

CD. Tibial shaft

A

A. Distal tibial epiphysis

93
Q

Formation of a hematoma occurs during this phase of fracture healing.

A. Inflammatory phase

B. Reparative phase

C. Remodeling phase

D. Metabolic phase

A

A. Inflammatory phase

94
Q

A pitch-fork handler is likely to get a fatigue fracture of the…

A. Radial neck

B. Coronoid process

C. Olecranon process

D. Ulna shaft

A

D. Ulna shaft

95
Q

Which of the following classification systems of ankle fractures is based on the position of the fibular fracture with respect to the joint line?

A. Evans

B. Lauge-Hansen

C. Weber

D. Seinsheimer’s

A

C. Weber

96
Q

Which fracture predisposes to dislocation of the entire carpus?

A. Chauffers

B. Bartons

C. Colles

D. Essex-Lopresti

A

B. Bartons

97
Q

Which of the following of the Lauge-Hansen classification represents the most common ankle injuries?

A. SAD

B. PAB

C. SER

D. PDF

A

C. SER

98
Q

Sucky golfers will frequently develop fatigue fractures of what structure?

A. Upper ribs

B. Coracoid

C. Triquetrum

D. Lateral epicondyle

A

A. Upper ribs

99
Q

Bucket handle fractures of the knee are seen in which condition?

A. Osteogenesis imperfecta

B. Child abuse

C. Well diggers injury

D. Parachutists knee

A

B. Child abuse

100
Q

What is the best diagnostic imaging modality for the diagnosis of complex regional pain syndrome?

A. MRI

B. Conventional radiographs

C. 3 phase bone scan

D. CT myelography

A

C. 3 phase bone scan

101
Q

Which of the following eponyms represents a variation in SER stage I injuries in which an avulsion fracture of the anterior margin of the tibia occurs?

A. Wagstaff-Lefort

B. Reverse Tillaux

C. Tillaux

D. Sinding-Larsen-Johansson

A

C. Tillaux

102
Q

An individual with a stress fracture of the proximal fibula is most likely a…

A. Ballet dancer

B. Hurdler

C. Parachutist

D. Bowler

A

C. Parachutist

103
Q

What fracture is frequently found in conjunction with a hangmans fracture?

A. Teardrop

B. Clay shovelers

C. Articular pillar

D. Jefferson

A

A. Teardrop

104
Q

According to the Pipkin classification system of femoral head fractures associated with posterior hip dislocation, which of the following descriptions correctly illustrates a type II injury?

A. Femoral head fracture that is located inferior to the fovea centralis.

B. Femoral head fracture that is superior to or involving the fovea centralis.

C. Femoral head fracture with associated fracture of the femoral neck.

D. Femoral head fracture with associated fracture of the acetabulum.

A

B. Femoral head fracture that is superior to or involving the fovea centralis.

105
Q

Which of the following is not a good indicator of likely recurrent anterior glenohumeral joint dislocation?

A. Large Hill-Sachs lesion

B. Large Bankart fracture

C. Initial dislocation in an older individual

D. All of the above are good indications for recurrent dislocations

A

C. Initial dislocation in an older individual

106
Q

According to the Evans’ classification system of intertrochanteric fractures, Type I differs from Type Il by which of the following?

A. Comminuted versus non-comminuted.

B. The obliquity of the fracture line.

C. Involvement of the greater trochanter.

D. All of the above.

A

B. The obliquity of the fracture line.

107
Q

Which is a radiograhic finding of loosening of a prosthesis of the hip?

A. Widening of the cement-bone interface

B. Heterotopic bone

C. Periosteal scalloping

D. Metal fracture

A

A. Widening of the cement-bone interface

108
Q

A Duverney fracture has what Tile classification?

A. A

В. В

C. C

D. D

A

A. A

109
Q

Which is the most common type of anterior glenohumeral joint dislocation?

A. Subglenoid

B. Subcoracoid

C. Subclavicular

D. Intrathoracic

A

B. Subcoracoid

110
Q

In the Tile classification of pelvic injuries, a fracture of the superior and inferior pubic rami with associated contralateral sacroiliac joint separation is caused by which of the following forces…

A. Anterior compression injury

B. Lateral compression injury

C. Vertical shearing injury

D. None of the above

A

B. Lateral compression injury

111
Q

What is a “growing fracture”?

A. Leptomeningeal cyst

B. Aneurysmal bone cyst

C. Intracranial hypertension

D. Suture resorption from HPT

A

A. Leptomeningeal cyst

112
Q

T/F Rib fractures commonly occur from normal childhood trauma.

A

False

113
Q

This is the most frequently fractured long bone.

A. Radius

B. Ulna

C. Tibia

D. Fibula

A

C. Tibia

114
Q

Direct forces of low magnitude result in transverse or slightly oblique fractures. These have been termed…

A. Butterfly fracture

B. Teacup fracture

C. Tapping fracture

D. Segmental fracture

A

C. Tapping fracture

115
Q

A posterior dislocation of the hip with an associated posterior acetabular rim fracture is termed?

A. Dashboard

B. Dancers

C. Duverneys

D. Dichotamous

A

A. Dashboard

116
Q

Extension, rotation, and lateral flexion of the cervical spine during trauma result in what fracture?

A. Articular pillar

B. Clay shovelers

C. Transverse process

D. 1st rib

A

A. Articular pillar

117
Q

Your patient demonstrates pain at the AC joint. This is a remote history of trauma, but nothing in the last 3 months. Radiographs demonstrate widening of the acromioclavicular joint, and an irregular distal cortal margin of the clavicle. What do you suspect?

A. AC dislocation grade 2

B. Post-traumatic osteolysis

C. Osteitis condensans clavicle

D. Trapshooter shoulder

A

B. Post-traumatic osteolysis

118
Q

What percent of patients with growth plate injuries develop some degree of growth deformity?

A. 10 to 15 percent

B. 25 to 30 percent

C. 40 to 45 percent

D. 55 to 60 percent

A

B. 25 to 30 percent

119
Q

The most reliable indirect sign of a basal skull fracture on conventional radiographs is…

A. Air/fluid level in the sphenoid sinus

B. Pneumocephalus

C. Air/fluid in the maxillary sinus

D. Leptomeningeal cyst

A

A. Air/fluid level in the sphenoid sinus

120
Q

Shin splints is a term used to describe pain and tenderness in the lower leg that worsens with activity and abates with rest. MR findings in a patient with clinical evidence of acute shin splints includes which of the following. MARK ALL THAT APPLY, 1-4 CORRECT ANSWERS

A. Tibiofemoral joint edema

B. Periosteal edema

C. Bone marrow edema

D. Ankle mortise joint edema

E. All of the above

A

B. Periosteal edema

C. Bone marrow edema

121
Q

Surgical reduction is generally recommended for fractures of the tibial plateau that are depressed or displaced by more than:

A. 2mm

B. 4mm

C. 6mm

D. 10mm

A

D. 10mm

122
Q

Craniofacial dissociation describes what LeFort fracture?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

A

C. 3

123
Q

Which of the following classification systems describes intracapsular fractures, particularly those that are subcapital, according to the degree of displacement on prereduction radiographs?

A. Pauwels

B. Evans

C. Garden

D. Seinsheimer’s

A

C. Garden

124
Q

Which Weber classification injury would be associated with a Maisonneuve fracture?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

A

C. C

125
Q

A comminuted fracture of the radial head combined with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint is termed..

A. Piedmont fracture

B. Reverse Monteggia fracture

C. Galeazzi fracture

D. Essex-Lopresti fracture

A

D. Essex-Lopresti fracture

126
Q

According to the classic classification system for acromioclavicular joint dislocations, which of the following statements best describes a type IV injury?

A. Disruption of both the acromiocalvicular and coracoclavicular ligaments with displacement of the distal clavicle posteriorly into or through the trapezius.

B. Disruption of both the acromiocalvicular and coracoclavicular ligaments with 25-100% dislocation of the clavicle.

C. Disruption of both the acromiocalvicular and coracoclavicular ligaments, extensive clavicular detachment of the deltoid and trapezius muscles, and greater than 100% superior dislocation of the distal clavicle.

D. Disruption of both the acromiocalvicular and coracoclavicular ligaments, clavicular detachment of the deltoid and trapezius muscles, and displacement of the clavicle below the acromion or coracoid process.

A

A. Disruption of both the acromiocalvicular and coracoclavicular ligaments with displacement of the distal clavicle posteriorly into or through the trapezius.

127
Q

The most common fracture of the elbow in pediatric patients is what?

A. Supracondylar Fx of the humerus

B. Radial head chisel Fx

C. Coronoid process Fx of the ulna

D. Osteochondral Fx of the capitellum

A

A. Supracondylar Fx of the humerus

128
Q

Which of the following views will best demonstrate an air/fluid level in the sphenoid sinus? MARK ALL THAT APPLY. 1-5 CORRECT ANSWERS

A. Waters view

B. Horizontal-beam lateral (cross table lateral) radiograph of the skull

C. AP Towne’s radiograph

D. PA Caldwell

E. Submentovertex

A

B. Horizontal-beam lateral (cross table lateral) radiograph of the skull

129
Q

According to the Lauge-Hansen classification of ankle fractures, which of the following combinations cannot be distinguished radiographically.

A. SER stage I and SAD stage I.

B. PER stages I and II and PAB stages I and II.

C. PER stages III and IV and SER stages III and IV.

D. All of the stages are easily distinguished radiographically.

A

B. PER stages I and II and PAB stages I and II.

130
Q

A comminuted fracture of the base of the 1st metacarpal is termed?

A. Bennets

B. Bartons

C. Rolondos

D. Piedmonts

A

C. Rolondos

131
Q

A depressed skull fracture where the fragment is displaced greater than 5mm raises concern for what complication?

A. Dural tear

B. Ventricular displacement

C. Meningioma

D. Button sequestrum

A

A. Dural tear

132
Q

A valgus force through the knee results in which injury?

A. Segond Fx

B. Fender Fx

C. Posterior tibial spine Fx

D. Popliteus tendon avulsion Fx

A

B. Fender Fx

133
Q

A lateral clear space of the ankle that measures______or greater represents an unequivocal indication for syndesmotic rupture.

A. 2mm

B. 3.5mm

C. 4.5mm

D. 5.5mm

A

D. 5.5mm

134
Q

The criteria used by Neer to evaluate displacement of a fractured osseous fragment is…

A. Displacement of the fragment by more than 1 cm

B. Angulation of the fragment by more than 45 degrees

C. Superior migration of the humeral head by more than 1 cm

D. Both A and B are correct

A

D. Both A and B are correct

135
Q

Which of the following systems is used to classify subtrochanteric fractures?

A. Seinsheimer’s

B. Garden

C. Evans’

D. Pauwels

A

A. Seinsheimer’s

136
Q

A fracture seen in the calvarium of children and associated with no overt fracture, but rather an indentation deformity, is termed what?

A. Linear fracture

B. Depressed fracture

C. Lead pipe fracture

D. Ping pong fracture

A

D. Ping pong fracture

137
Q

This fracture is a combination of an incomplete transverse fracture of one cortex and buckling of the opposite side.

A. Greenstick fracture

B. Lead pipe fracture

C. Torus fracture

D. Tapping fracture

A

B. Lead pipe fracture

138
Q

Which pelvic injury is associated with vertical shearing?

A. Malgaigne

B. Bucket handle

C. Sprung pelvis

D. Duverney

A

A. Malgaigne

139
Q

A radial head fracture with associated dislocation of the elbow is which Mason classification?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

A

D. 4

140
Q

What view would best visualize a hamulus fatigue fracture?

A. Carpal tunnel

B. Merchants

C. Lateral oblique

D. PA radial deviation

A

A. Carpal tunnel

141
Q

The most commonly used classification system of subcapital femoral fractures is…

A. Pauwels

B. Mason

C. Boyd & Griffin

D. Garden

A

D. Garden

142
Q

Hamulus stress fractures are a component of what sport?

A. Raquet ball

B. Volley ball

C. Trap shooting

D. Bowling

A

A. Raquet ball

143
Q

Following fracture of the first rib, what is an indirect sign of subclavian artery injury?

A. Interstitial emphysema

B. Pneumothorax

C. Callus formation

D. Extrapleural mass

A

D. Extrapleural mass

144
Q

In regards to intracapsular fractures, the frequency of ischemic necrosis of the femoral head:

A. is about 5%.

B. varies from 60 - 75%.

C. is about 50%.

D. varies from 10 - 30%.

A

D. varies from 10 - 30%.

145
Q

Choose the false statement about fractures of the anterior process of the calcaneus.

A. This is the most common form of avulsion fracture of the calcaneus.

B. This fracture is more common in males.

C. Must be differentiated from the os calcaneus secondarius.

D. The fracture is the result of adduction of the forefoot while the foot is in the equinus position.

A

B. This fracture is more common in males.

146
Q

Mechanical failure of normal bone due to abnormal loading is termed?

A. Stress Fx

B. Fatigue Fx

C. Insufficiency Fx

D. Wuss Fx

A

B. Fatigue FX

147
Q

Which one of the following is a direct sign of cranial injury?

A. Soft tissue swelling overlying the cranium

B. Opacification of the sinuses

C. Fracture

D. Air in the cranial cavity

A

C. Fracture

148
Q

Choose all the synonyms for complex regional pain syndrome. MARK ALL THAT APPLY, 1-4 CORRECT ANSWERS

A. Causalgia

B. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome

C. Sudeks atrophy

D. Transient migratory osteoporosis

A

A. Causalgia

B. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome

C. Sudeks atrophy

149
Q

What is the hallmark of child abuse?

A. Multiple fractures of varying age

B. Epiphyseal corner fractures

C. Hand or foot injuries

D. Comminuted spinal or pelvic fractures

A

A. Multiple fractures of varying age

150
Q

T/F In patients over the age of 5 it is common to find acute fractures associated with child abuse.

A

False

151
Q

The overall incidence of fractures appearing on skull radiographs is less than…

A. 10%

B. 25%

C. 50%

D. 70%

A

A. 10%

152
Q

This fracture is sometimes known as a pyramidal fracture.

A. Tripod

B. LeFort l

C. LeFort II

D. LeFort III

A

C. LeFort II

153
Q

Select the fractures associated with anterior glenohumeral dislocation MARK ALL THAT APPLY, 1-4 CORRECT ANSWERS

A. Flap

B. Hill Sachs

C. Trough

D. Bankart

E. Piedmont

AB.Coracoid

A

A. Flap

B. Hill Sachs

D. Bankart

154
Q

With regards to the Salter-Harris classification system, which of the following is the most common type of growth plate injury?

A. Salter-Harris type III, which represents approximately 50% of injuries.

B. Salter-Harris type II, at 75% of physeal injuries.

C. Salter-Harris type IV, at 75% of all growth plate injuries.

D. Salter-Harris type I, which represents approximately 50% of injuries.

A

B. Salter-Harris type II, at 75% of physeal injuries.

155
Q

What classification scheme is used for fracture/dislocations of the hip?

A. Thompson-Epstein

B. Lauge-Hanson

C. Milch-Mason

D. Ottawa-Steill

A

A. Thompson-Epstein

156
Q

What percentage of fractures of the sternum are associated with wedge compression fractures?

A. 20%

B. 40%

C. 60%

D. 80%

A

B. 40%

157
Q

What fracture is associated with entrapment of the inferior rectus muscle of the eye?

A. LeFort 2

B. Tripod

C. Blow out

D. Naso-lacrimal

A

C. Blow out

158
Q

Which one of the following entities is part of the early stage of reflex sympathetic dystrophy?

A. Constant burning or aching pain in the extremity

B. Cold, glossy skin

C. Limited range of motion

D. Osteopenia

A

A. Constant burning or aching pain in the extremity

159
Q

Utilizing the Neer classification of proximal humeral fractures, which type is most common?

A. 1 part

B. 2 part

C. 3 part

D. 4 part

A

A. 1 part

160
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning linear skull fractures?

A. They do not cross sutures whereas vascular grooves do

B. They are the most common types of skull fracture

C. They are more lucent than vascular grooves

D. Linear skull fractures are most commonly found in the temporal and parietal bones

A

A. They do not cross sutures whereas vascular grooves do

161
Q

Which Neer classification has the greatest association with avascular necrosis of the humeral head?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

A

D. 4

162
Q

Children throwing curve balls in little league will often develop an injury of what structure?

A. Medial epicondyle

B. Lateral epicondyle

C. Radial head

D. Supracondular humerus

A

A. Medial epicondyle

163
Q

MRI imaging post patella dislocation demonstrates a number of findings, one in which should prompt the radiologist to recommend an arthroscopic evaluation. Which of the following findings is the key feature for further examination?

A. Missing cartilage

B. Retinacular disruption

C. Kissing lesion

D. Shallow trochlear notch

A

A. Missing cartilage

164
Q

A Mason type I elbow fracture is treated…

A. Conservatively

B. Surgically

C. By radial head excision

D. Internal fixation

A

A. Conservatively

165
Q

The most common facial bone fracture is?

A. Tripod

B. Nasal

C. Lefort 4

D. Zygoma

A

B. Nasal

166
Q

Pneumocephalus will most likely occur…

A. Following a fracture of the base of the skull

B. Following an orbital blow out fracture

C. Following a fracture of the mastoid process

D. Following a depressed fracture of the frontal sinus

A

D. Following a depressed fracture of the frontal sinus

167
Q

Your 70yo osteoporotic patient develops periosteal lifting of the 1st metatarsals bilaterally after a weekend gardening. What does this represent?

A. Fatigue Fx

B. March Fx

C. Insufficiency Fx

D. Loading Fx

A

C. Insufficiency Fx

168
Q

According to the Garden classification system, a complete fracture without osseous displacement is considered a:

A. Type I fracture.

B. Type Il fracture.

C. Type Ill fracture.

D. Type IV fracture.

A

B. Type Il fracture.

169
Q

In general, when is surgery for tibial plateau fractures indicated?

A. Local depression of a plateau by 10-mm or more, and displacement of split fractures by 5-mm or more

B. Local depression of a plateau by 5-mm or more, and displacement of split fractures by 10-mm or more

C. Depressed by more 3-mm or if there is more than 30 degrees of angulation

D. Displacement of fragments more than 10-mm or angulated more than 45 degrees

A

A. Local depression of a plateau by 10-mm or more, and displacement of split fractures by 5-mm or more

170
Q

The-anteversion of the femoral neck as visualized on the groin lateral view is normally…

A. 10 to 15 degrees

B. 15 to 20 degrees

C. 20 to 25 degrees

D. 25 to 30 degrees

A

D. 25 to 30 degrees

171
Q

A fracture of the lateral malleolus at the level of the ankle joint without widening of the distal tibiofibular joint indicates which Weber classifcation?

A. A

В. В

C. C

D. D

A

В. В

172
Q

The most common complication of a scaphoid fracture is…

A. AVN

B. Median nerve damage

C. Vascular injury

D. Non-union

A

D. Non-union

173
Q
  1. The most frequently injured region of the cervical spine in those younger than 12 years of age is which of the following?
    1. C0-C2
    2. C3-C4
    3. C4-C5
    4. C5-C6
    5. C6-C7
A

a. C0-C2

174
Q

Which of the following is the optimal scenario for viewing the cervical articular pillars from C3-C7?

  1. AP view utilizing a 20-30 degree caudad tube tilt
  2. AP view utilizing a 20-30 degree cephalad tube tilt
  3. AP view utilizing a 30-40 degree caudad tube tilt
  4. PA view utilizing a 20-30 degree caudad tube tilt
  5. PA view utilizing a 30-40 degree caudad tube tilt
A

a. AP view utilizing a 20-30 degree caudad tube tilt

175
Q

Which of the following is one of the most frequent sites of a butterfly fragment?

  1. Fibula
  2. Humerus
  3. Radius
  4. Tibia
  5. Ulna
A

b. Humerus

176
Q

Which of the following bones is the most frequent to result in an open fracture?

  1. Femur
  2. Fibula
  3. Radius
  4. Tibia
  5. Ulna
A

d. Tibia

177
Q

Which of the following is also known as a willow fracture?

  1. Greenstick
  2. Impaction
  3. Infraction
  4. Plastic
  5. Torus
A

a. Greenstick

178
Q
  1. Type I Salter-Harris fractures most frequently affect which of the following?
    1. Femur
    2. Humerus
    3. Phalanges
    4. Radius
    5. Ulna
A

c. Phalanges

179
Q

A fracture of the normal adult clavicle heals union in which of the following time frames?

  1. 1-2 weeks
  2. 3-4 weeks
  3. 6-8 weeks
  4. 8-10 weeks
  5. 12-14 weeks
A

b. 3-4 weeks

180
Q

The Stryker notch view is used as an ancillary view in the detection of which of the following?

  1. Bankart fracture
  2. Coracoid process fracture
  3. Flap fracture
  4. Glenoid neck fracture
  5. Hill-Sachs lesion
A

e. Hill-Sachs lesion

181
Q

Which acromioclavicular type injury is characterized by posterior dislocation of the clavicle with resultant buttonholing of the clavicle through the trapezius muscle?

  1. Type II
  2. Type III
  3. Type IV
  4. Type V
  5. Type VI
A

c. Type IV

182
Q

The fulcrum of flexion in the cervical spine in children is which of the following levels?

  1. C2/3
  2. C3/4
  3. C4/5
  4. C5/6
  5. C6/7
A

a. C2/3

183
Q

Which of the following is a most frequent vertebra to result in compression fracture in association with seizure activity in the absence of osteoporosis?

  1. C4
  2. C7
  3. L1
  4. T5
  5. T10
A

d. T5

184
Q

A vertically oriented fracture line is noted in the mid-cervical spine. Which of the following structures is likely also fractured?

  1. Lamina
  2. Larynx
  3. Spinous process
  4. Transverse process
  5. Uncinate process
A

a. Lamina

185
Q

Which of the following represents the most common location for an apophyseal ring fracture?

  1. L1
  2. L3
  3. L4
  4. L5
  5. S1
A

c. L4

186
Q
  1. Walther fracture is a fracture of the acetabulum as well as which of the following?
    1. Iliac wing
    2. Ischium
    3. Pubic body
    4. Sacrum
    5. Superior pubic ramus
A

b. Ischium

187
Q

Radiographic examination of the pelvis yields the presence of an impaction fracture of the anterior aspect of the sacrum in addition to sacroiliac joint dislocation on the contralateral side. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?

  1. Bucket handle fracture
  2. Duverney fracture
  3. Malgaigne fracture
  4. Walther fracture
  5. Windswept pelvis
A

e. Windswept pelvis

188
Q

A Wagstaffe-LeFort fracture is a fracture of which of the following bones?

  1. Calcaneus
  2. Fibula
  3. Maxilla
  4. Talus
  5. Tibia
A

b. Fibula

189
Q
  1. In the case of a Bosworth fracture/dislocation, the distal fibula relocates in which of the following directions?
    1. Anterior
    2. Lateral
    3. Medial
    4. Posterior
    5. Superior
A

d. Posterior

190
Q

Which of the following is characterized by the driving of the talus superiorly into the tibial plafond?

  1. Cedell fracture
  2. Dupuytren fracture
  3. Kleiger fracture
  4. Pilon fracture
  5. Snowboarder fracture
A

d. Pilon fracture

191
Q

Which of the following represents the most common metacarpal head to fracture?

  1. 1st
  2. 2nd
  3. 3rd
  4. 4th
  5. 5th
A

b. 2nd

192
Q

Which of the following fractures involves a large bony fragment of the capitulum?

  1. Die-Punch
  2. Essex-Lopresti
  3. Hahn-Steinthal
  4. Kocher-Lorenz
  5. Parry
A

c. Hahn-Steinthal

193
Q

Which of the following bones is the most frequent site of fracture in childhood?

  1. Clavicle
  2. Distal phalanx of the 3rd digit
  3. Femur
  4. Humerus
  5. Tibia
A

a. Clavicle

194
Q

Which of the following represents the most frequent site of myositis ossificans?

  1. Buttocks
  2. Calf
  3. Elbow
  4. Shoulder
  5. Thigh
A

c. Elbow

195
Q
  1. In the majority of cases, at which age to the greater cornua unite to the hyoid bone?
    1. 0-9 years
    2. 10-20 years
    3. 21-30 years
    4. 35-45 years
    5. 55-65 years
A

d. 35-45 years

196
Q
  1. Which of the following structures represents the most common fractures of C2?
    1. Body
    2. Dens
    3. Lamina
    4. Pedicles
    5. Spinous process
A

b. Dens

197
Q
  1. The overwhelming majority of cases of avulsion fracture of the anterior tibial spine in children occur with what clinical history?
    1. Fall from a bicycle
    2. Fall playing football
    3. Fall playing basketball
    4. Fall skateboarding
    5. Fall skiing
A

a. Fall from a bicycle

198
Q
  1. Which of the following ribs represents one of the most common ribs to fracture?
    1. 2nd
    2. 4th
    3. 7th
    4. 10th
    5. 12th
A

c. 7th

199
Q

Upon reading a computed tomography imaging study of a 35 years of age male presented with history of an all-terrain vehicle accident, a fracture is noted at the left 6th rib at the lateral aspect and a pneumothorax is additionally present. Clinically noted was paradoxical rib motion and flail chest was suspected. Which of the following is also most likely present creating flail chest?

  1. Costochondral junction fracture
  2. Costotransverse joint dislocation
  3. Costovertebral joint dislocation
  4. Sternal fracture
  5. Vertebral body fracture
A

a. Costochondral junction fracture

200
Q

A 19 years of age male baseball player was hit by a baseball at the left paramedian posterior cervicothoracic region during practice. He presents with pain localized to the region of trauma and pain on deep inspiration. Clinically noted is a slightly ptotic left eyelid which he reports is new. Which of following injuries is suspected?

  1. Anterior scalene muscle avulsion
  2. Clay-shoveler fracture
  3. Fracture of the neck of the 1st rib
  4. Fracture of the 1st rib at the subclavian groove
  5. Middle scalene muscle avulsion
A

c. Fracture of the neck of the 1st rib

201
Q

In which of the following locations is there a predilection for rib fractures in cases of child abuse?

  1. Anterior
  2. Chondrosternal junction
  3. Costochondral junction
  4. Lateral
  5. Posterior, near the costotransverse joints
A

e. Posterior, near the costotransverse joints

202
Q

Tussive fractures occur most frequently in which of the following locations?

  1. Anterior portion of a lower rib
  2. Anterior portion of a middle rib
  3. Anterior portion of an upper rib
  4. Posterior portion of a lower rib
  5. Posterior portion of a middle rib
A

a. Anterior portion of a lower rib

203
Q

What percent of fractures of the sternum have associated compression fractures of the spine?

  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 20
  4. 40
  5. 75
A

d. 40

204
Q

At the earliest, traumatic chylous effusion becomes radiographically evident ________ following injury?

  1. 1 hour
  2. 6 hours
  3. 24 hours
  4. 48 hours
  5. 72 hours
A

e. 72 hours

205
Q

What percent of fractures of the first rib are associated with fracture of the bronchus?

  1. 2
  2. 10
  3. 25
  4. 50
  5. 75
A

a. 2

206
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the designation of vanishing lung tumor?

  1. Pneumonia
  2. Pulmonary contusion
  3. Pulmonary hematoma
  4. Pulmonary laceration
  5. Traumatic pulmonary arteriovenous fistula
A

c. Pulmonary hematoma

207
Q

What percent of patients with bronchial fracture have subcutaneous emphysema?

  1. 10
  2. 25
  3. 50
  4. 75
  5. 95
A

c. 50

208
Q

The osseous pinch model of acute compression fracture is associated with which of the following visceral injuries?

  1. Aorta
  2. Bronchus
  3. Esophagus
  4. Spleen
  5. Trachea
A

a. Aorta

209
Q

On which radiographic projection is a blow-out fracture most easily demonstrated?

  1. Caldwell
  2. Lateral
  3. Submentovertex
  4. Towne
  5. Waters
A

e. Waters

210
Q

Which of the following fractures is characterized by osseous fracture fragments approximating the eyeball?

  1. Blow-in
  2. Blow-out
  3. LeFort II
  4. Ping-pong
  5. Tripod
A

a. Blow-in

211
Q

Which of the following fracture designations is most appropriate for craniofacial separation?

  1. Blow-in
  2. Blow-out
  3. LeFort I
  4. LeFort II
  5. LeFort III
A

e. LeFort III

212
Q

The threshold for indication for surgical repair of a depression skull fracture is characterized by at least ____ of internal displacement of the inner table?

  1. 1mm
  2. 3mm
  3. 5mm
  4. 8mm
  5. 10mm
A

c. 5mm

213
Q
  1. Which of the following fractures is more frequently seen in newborns due to the pliability of the skull during this period of life?
    1. Blow-in
    2. Blow-out
    3. Linear
    4. Ping-pong
    5. Tripod
A

d. Ping-pong

214
Q

An intertrochanteric fracture of the proximal femur is noted on conventional radiographs, which of the following is the appropriate classification scheme for this injury?

  1. Evans
  2. Garden
  3. Pipkin
  4. Seinsheimer
  5. Thompson-Epstein
A

a. Evans

215
Q

A posterior hip dislocation with associated fracture of the femoral head is noted on conventional radiographs, which of the following is the appropriate classification scheme for this injury?

  1. Evans
  2. Garden
  3. Pipkin
  4. Seinsheimer
  5. Thompson-Epstein
A

c. Pipkin

216
Q

Which of the following classification systems is most appropriate for subtrochanteric fractures?

  1. Evans
  2. Garden
  3. Pipkin
  4. Seinsheimer
  5. Thompson-Epstein
A

d. Seinsheimer

217
Q

Conventional radiographs of the shoulder yield a fracture of the proximal humerus. The Neer classification system is used and is determined that there is a two-part fracture involving the surgical neck. Which of the following directions of displacement of the humeral shaft is most common in this scenario?

  1. Anterior
  2. Anteromedial
  3. Medial
  4. Posterolateral
  5. Posteromedial
A

b. Anteromedial

218
Q

Which of the following represents the most common delayed complication of fractures of the proximal humerus?

  1. Frozen shoulder
  2. Heterotopic ossification
  3. Osteonecrosis
  4. Pseudoarthrosis
  5. Thoracic outlet syndrome
A

a. Frozen shoulder

219
Q

Which of the following mechanisms of injury is most common as classified by Lauge-Hansen?

  1. Pronation-abduction
  2. Pronation-dorsiflexion
  3. Pronation-external rotation
  4. Supination-adduction
  5. Supination-external rotation
A

e. Supination-external rotation

220
Q

Which of the following mechanisms according to the Lauge-Hansen classification is responsible for the Pilon fracture?

  1. Pronation-abduction
  2. Pronation-dorsiflexion
  3. Pronation-external rotation
  4. Supination-adduction
  5. Supination-external rotation
A

b. Pronation-dorsiflexion

221
Q

The Essex-Lopresti injury is most accurately classified as which of the following?

  1. Fernandez type III
  2. Fernandez type V
  3. Mason type I
  4. Mason type II
  5. Mason type III
A

e. Mason type III

222
Q

Which of the following growth plate injury types includes osteochondral fractures?

  1. V
  2. VI
  3. VII
  4. VIII
  5. IX
A

c. VII

223
Q

The diagnosis of a wedge compression fracture within the cervical spine can be assumed when the minimal dimensional difference between the anterior and posterior vertebral body height is…

a. 2-mm
b. 3-mm
c. 4-mm
d. 5-mm

A

b. 3-mm

224
Q

T/F: Gadolinium is utilized to distinguish cystic lesion from masses due to cystic lesion demonstrating only peripheral enhancement, while masses show more diffuse enhancement.

A

TRUE

225
Q

Transchondral fractures and osteochondritis dissecans are examples of which of the following types of Ozonoff-Ogden injuries?

a. Type VI
b. Type VII
c. Type VIII
d. Type IX

A

b. Type VII

226
Q

Which of the following represents an avulsion fracture in an adult that results from lateral rotation of the foot or medial rotation of the leg on a fixed foot and is the counterpart to the juvenile fracture of Tillaux.

a. Kleiger fracture.
b. Reverse Tillaux fracture.
c. Fracture of the tubercule of Chaput.
d. None of the above are correct.

A

c. Fracture of the tubercule of Chaput.

227
Q

Which of the following statements concerning trauma of the first rib is false?

a. The rib may be fractured by direct trauma or indirectly through sudden strong contraction of the scalene muscles
b. The neck of the rib is usually fractured in association with fracture of the clavicle or separation of the AC or SC joints
c. Direct blows that result in isolated fracture of the first rib have been frequently associated with brachial plexus injuries and Horner’s syndrome
d. Injuries to the subclavian artery are uncommon

A

d. Injuries to the subclavian artery are uncommon

228
Q

Fractures of the first rib typically occur at…

a. The subclavian groove
b. Costochondral junction
c. Neck of the rib
d. A & C

A

d. A & C

Part I Boards Question Bank (20 decks)

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