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Part I Boards Question Bank > *MOVED*Advanced Arthritis > Flashcards

*MOVED*Advanced Arthritis Flashcards

1
Q

Which one of the following statements is false regarding neuropathic osteoarthropathy? A. Primarily caused by alteration in sympathetic control of bone blood flow B. Most (90%) of patients suffering from neuropathic osteoarthropathy have pain as the initial complaint. C. There is a rapid destruction of the involved joint(s) D. May appear radiographically similar to septic arthritis

A

B. Most (90%) of patients suffering from neuropathic osteoarthropathy have pain as the initial complaint.

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2
Q

Which of the following best characterizes the erosions occurring in Reiter’s syndrome? A. Initially appearing at the center of the joint and later associated with osteophytes B. Initially appearing at the joint margin later progressing to the center of the joint C. Initially appearing at the subchrondral bone progressing to ankylosis D. Both A and C are correct

A

B. Initially appearing at the joint margin later progressing to the center of the joint

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3
Q

The primary etiologic agent that “licks the joints but bites the heart” that precipitates Jaccoud’s arthropathy is what? A. Mycoplasm B. Staph. Aureus C. Pseudomonas D. Beta-hemolytic strep.

A

D. Beta-hemolytic strep.

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4
Q

The most common location for a degenerative spondylolisthesis in the lumbar spine is which of the following levels? A. L2/L3 B. L3/L4 C. L4/L5 D. L5/S1

A

C. L4/L5

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5
Q

Calcification of the medial collateral ligament of the knee associated with trauma is called what? A. Haglund’s syndrome B. Pellegrini-Stieda disease C. Wee-knee disease D. Crystal lite

A

B. Pellegrini-Stieda disease

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6
Q

When present, what radiographic finding helps differentiate neuropathic osteoarthropathy caused by leprosy from other causes? A. Leprosy always presents in a hypertrophic presentation B. Lisfranc fractures are frequent in leprosy neuropathic osteoarthropathy C. Leprosy causes a large soft tissue mass D. Calcified nerves may be seen in leprosy

A

D. Calcified nerves may be seen in leprosy

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7
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a type of bony erosion seen in the hand in Rheumatoid Arthritis? A. Marginal erosion B. Compressive erosion C. Surface resorption D. Subperiosteal erosion

A

D. Subperiosteal erosion

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8
Q

Which one of the following arthritides does NOT have soft tissue calcification associated with it? A. Septic (Pyogenic) arthritis B. Scleroderma C. SLE D. Dermatomyositis E. Gout

A

A. Septic (Pyogenic) arthritis

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9
Q

Which one of the following radiographic findings characterizes Ochronotic arthropathy of the spine? A. Large spondylophytes B. Bamboo spine C. Calcification and ossification of the intervertebral discs D. Negative HLA-B27 serologic test

A

C. Calcification and ossification of the intervertebral discs

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10
Q

Which one of the following does NOT cause enlargement of the intercondylar notch of the distal femur? A. JCA B. Hemophilia C. CPPD D. Psoriatic E. Tuberculous arthritis

A

C. CPPD

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11
Q

Which one of the following skin disorders simulates psoriasis clinically and / or radiographically? A. Acne fulminans B. Pyoderma gangrenosum C. Sweet’s syndrome D. All the above may simulate psoriasis

A

D. All the above may simulate psoriasis

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12
Q

What clinical abnormality seen in patients with psoriasis has the strongest correlation with articular manifestations? A. Cutaneous lesions B. Pustular skin lesions C. Nail changes D. Eye changes

A

C. Nail changes

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13
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a theory of why hydroxyapatite crystals deposit within the supraspinatus tendon? A. Degeneration of the tendon fibers B. Necrosis of the tendon fibers C. Hypervascularity D. Trauma

A

C. Hypervascularity

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14
Q

What joints are commonly involved in scleroderma? A. Knee and hip B. Hip and elbow C. Cervical spine and shoulders D. Fingers and wrists

A

D. Fingers and wrists

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15
Q

The best description of bone sarcoidosis involving the distal phalanges is what? A. Lace-like or reticulated bone destruction B. Moth eaten appearance C. Peristeal deformans D. Running greyhound appearance

A

A. Lace-like or reticulated bone destruction

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16
Q

A significant association exists between osteoarthritis of the glenohumeral joint and what? A. Genetics B. Obesity C. Anteverted glenoid fossa D. Rotator cuff degeneration

A

D. Rotator cuff degeneration

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17
Q

Which one of the following diseases is not associated with superior displacement of the disc (Schmorl?s nodes)? A. IOC B. Scheuermann’s C. Spondylosis deformans D. Osteoporosis

A

C. Spondylosis deformans

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18
Q

What are the articular deformities seen in SLE related to? A. Capsular and ligament laxity B. Pannus formation C. Hapten complexes D. Cartilage degeneration

A

A. Capsular and ligament laxity

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19
Q

Widening of the intercondylar notch of the femur seen in hemophilia is related to what? A. Osteonecrosis B. Ligament laxity C. Intraosseous hemorrhage D. Hemorrhage about the cruciate ligaments

A

D. Hemorrhage about the cruciate ligaments

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20
Q

Which one of the following is not associated with scleroderma? A. Overlap syndrome B. Acro-osteolysis C. Erosive joint changes D. Osteonecrosis

A

D. Osteonecrosis

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21
Q

Which of the following is the least encountered type of osteophyte seen in DJD? A. Marginal B. Central C. Periosteal D. Capsular

A

B. Central

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22
Q

Neuropathic osteoarthropathy of the foot is most frequently associated with which systemic disorder? A. Hemophilia B. Diabetes C. Riley-Day syndrome D. Spinal cord trauma

A

B. Diabetes

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23
Q

What is the frequency of radiographically detectable peripheral manifestations in AS if all peripheral joints are considered? A. 75% B. 50% C. 25% D. 5%

A

B. 50%

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24
Q

Increased density, joint distention, bony debris, joint disorganization, and dislocation describe the classic radiographic manifestations of what type of neuropathic osteoarthropathy? A. Hypertrophic B. Atrophic C. Mixed D. Swirled

A

A. Hypertrophic

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25
Q

Pauciarticular or mono articular juvenile chronic arthritis most frequently involves which of the following joints? A. Cervical spine B. Lumbar spine C. Shoulder D. Knee

A

D. Knee

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26
Q

The patella “tooth” sign does not represent which of the following? A. Osteoarthritis B. D.I.S.H. C. Peritendinitis D. Both A and C

A

D. Both A and C

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27
Q

The hallmark of chronic gout is what? A. Hyperuricemia B. Tophi C. Longer recovery time between acute attacks D. Painful swelling of a joint

A

B. Tophi

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28
Q

“Hoarseness” in patients suffering from RA may be a result of what? A. Involvement of the TMJ B. Invovement of the cricoarytenoid joint C. Rheumatoid nodules occurring on the vocal cords D. Pannus formation within the peri-epiglotic region

A

B. Invovement of the cricoarytenoid joint

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29
Q

Taken individually, which one of the following is NOT a way to differentiate erosive osteoarthritis from rheumatoid arthritis on radiographs? A. Erosions B. Location of involved joints (pattern of involvement) C. Bony poliferative changes D. Intra-articular bony ankylosis

A

D. Intra-articular bony ankylosis

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30
Q

Which one of the following is not a characteristic manifestation of SLE? A. Skin manifestations B. Reversible deformities C. Hook erosions D. Positive HLA-B27 laboratory test

A

D. Positive HLA-B27 laboratory test

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31
Q

Which one(s) of the following represent differential diagnoses of degeneration occurring at the knee with prominent subchrondral cysts? A. Pyrophosphate arthropathy B. PVNS C. Gout D. Both A and B

A

D. Both A and B

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32
Q

Swan Neck deformities represent what? A. Hyperextension at the proximal interphalangeal joints and flexion at the distal interphalangeal joints B. Flexion at the distal interphalangeal joints and hyperextension at distal interphalangeal joints. C. Ulnar devulation of the metacarpals with radial deviation of the phalanges. D. Dislocation of the first metacarpal phalangeal joint with axial rotation of the digit.

A

A. Hyperextension at the proximal interphalangeal joints and flexion at the distal interphalangeal joints

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33
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a “lumpy bumpy” arthritis? (arthritis with soft tissue nodules) A. Gout B. Multicentric reticulohistocytosis C. Xanthamatosis D. Behcet’s

A

D. Behcet’s

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34
Q

What is the pathogenesis of uncovertebral joint arthrosis? A. Disc degeneration B. Facet degeneration leading to abnormal cervical motion C. Congenital hyperplasia of the uncinates D. Is always post-traumatic

A

A. Disc degeneration

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35
Q

The most common location for amorphous soft tissue calcification in patients with scleroderma is where? A. Dominate hand B. Dominate foot C. Mandible D. Paretic limbs

A

A. Dominate hand

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36
Q

Which one of the following does NOT have a plantar calcaneal spur associated with it? A. D.I.S.H. B. Reiter’s syndrome C. Psoriatic D. Hemophilia E. Ankylosing spondylitis

A

D. Hemophilia

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37
Q

What percentage of patients suffering from Henoch-Schonlein purpura develops articular manifestations consisting of pain, tenderness, and swelling? A. 90% B. 60% C. 30% D. 5%

A

B. 60%

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38
Q

Which of the following degenerative diseases is related to nutrition? A. Bull man’s hands B. Drillers disease C. Kashin-becks’ disease D. Kasaback-merrit syndrome

A

C. Kashin-becks’ disease

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39
Q

The main differential diagnosis for the articular manifestations of SLE is which one of the following? A. Psoriatic arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Jaccoud’s arthritis D. Hemochromatosis

A

C. Jaccoud’s arthritis

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40
Q

Which one of the following is not a feature of Reiter’s syndrome? A. Urethritis B. Arthritis C. Conjunctivitis D. Epidermolysis bullosa

A

D. Epidermolysis bullosa

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41
Q

Which one of the following best helps to differentiate psoriatic arthritis from Reiter’s syndrome? A. Both upper and lower extremity joints are affected in psoriatic arthritis. B. Psoriatic arthritis has para vertebral soft tissue calcification C. Erosion and proliferation of the posterior or inferior surface of the calcareous only occurs in Reiter’s syndrome D. Psoriatic arthritis is seronegitive

A

A. Both upper and lower extremity joints are affected in psoriatic arthritis.

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42
Q

What crystal deposition disorder features bronze pigmentation of the skin, cirrhosis, and diabetes? A. HADD B. CPPD C. Wilson’s D. Hemochromatosis

A

D. Hemochromatosis

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43
Q

Degenerative enthesopathy is most commonly seen at which one of the following locations? A. Pelvis B. Hand C. Shoulder D. Medial compartment of the knee

A

A. Pelvis

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44
Q

Patients with rheumatoid arthritis have increased intra-articular pressure. Which one of the following is not a mechanism of synovial joint “decompression”?) A. Marginal erosions B. Subchondral cyst formation C. Synovial cyst formation D. Sinus tract formation

A

A. Marginal erosions

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45
Q

What type of Juvenile chronic arthritis frequently involves the cervical spine? A. Polyarticular B. Pauciarticular C. Monoarticular D. All the above

A

A. Polyarticular

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46
Q

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus is most commonly found in what population? A. White females of childbearing age B. Middle aged white males C. Black females of child bearing age D. Middle aged black male

A

C. Black females of child bearing age

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47
Q

A disc herniation represents what abnormality on a myelogram? A. Extradural filling defect B. Intradural, extramedullary filling defect C. Intramedullary filling defect D. All the above

A

A. Extradural filling defect

48
Q

Which one of the following processes leads to the appearance of a ?bamboo spine? in AS? A. Disc calcification B. Osteitis C. Syndesmophytes D. Kyphosis

A

C. Syndesmophytes

49
Q

Which one of the following connective tissue disorders does NOT cause erosions on the superior surface of the ribs? A. Psoriatic B. RA C. SLE D. Scleroderma

A

A. Psoriatic

50
Q

The term “Pseudogout” refers to what? A. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystal-induced acute synovitis B. Cartilage calcification C. Structural joint abnormalities attributed to calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals D. Radiographically evident calcification in and around articulations Reference:

A

A. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystal-induced acute synovitis

51
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a differential diagnosis for Milwaukee shoulder? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. PVNS C. Neuropathic arthritis D. Both A and B are not

52
Q

The atrophic form of neuropathic osteoarthropathy closely resembles what other disease? A. Osteosarcoma B. Severe osteoarthropathy C. Septic arthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis

A

C. Septic arthritis

53
Q

Radial subluxation or dislocation at the interphalangeal joint of the thumb in paitents with dermatomyositis / polymyositis is called what? A. Hitchhikers thumb B. Caput digitalis C. Floppy thumb D. Broken Tom thumb

A

C. Floppy thumb

54
Q

Involvement of the axial skeleton in ulcerative colitis closely resembles what other inflammatory arthritis? A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Psoriatic spondylitis C. Idiopathic gouty spondylitis D. Ochronotic arthropathy

A

A. Ankylosing spondylitis

55
Q

Early manifestation of RA in the wrist includes which one(s) of the following? A. Erosions of the triquetrum and pisiform bones B. Erosion and swelling around the distal end of the ulnar styloid process C. Sinus tract rheumatism D. Both A and B are early manifestations

A

D. Both A and B are early manifestations

56
Q

What radiographic view of the hands shows erosions on the metacarpal heads, triquetrum, and pisiform to an advantage? A. Ball Catchers view B. Ball busters view C. Dave and busters view D. Carpal tunnel view

A

A. Ball Catchers view

57
Q

Which one of the following is not a frequent site of the articular manifestations in Reiter’s syndrome? A. Small articulations of the foot B. S.I. joints C. Symphysis pubis D. Hip

58
Q

Joint involvement seen in Sarcoidosis is best described as which one of the following? A. Chronic arthropathy with marked erosive changes B. Acute arthropathy with marked bony poliferative changes C. Transient, symmetrical arthropathy without radiographic findings D. Recurrent arthropathy without erosive changes, but with deformities

A

C. Transient, symmetrical arthropathy without radiographic findings

59
Q

In AS, what is the term applied in which three vertical radiopaque lines are seen on frontal radiographs related to ossification of the supraspinous and interspinous ligaments and apophyseal joint capsules? A. Bamboo spine B. Shiny coroner sign C. Trolley-track sign D. Dagger sign

A

C. Trolley-track sign

60
Q

The initial joint changes seen in AS are seen in what location? A. Upper cervical region (C1/C2) B. Upper thoracic disco vertebral junctions C. Mid lumbar Facet joints D. Sacroiliac joints

A

D. Sacroiliac joints

61
Q

Of the following articulations, which one is most frequently involved in hemophilia? A. Knee B. Cervical spine C. Hip D. Wrist

62
Q

Which one of these is the least likely cause of chondrocalcinosis? A. CPPD B. Alkaptonuria C. Hemochromatosis D. Gout E. Lymes disease

A

E. Lymes disease

63
Q

What is the pathogenesis of IVOC? A. Infection B. Dehydration and loss of tissue resiliency of the nucleus pulposus C. A.L.L. degeneration leading to a “sloppy” inter-body articulation D. Abnormalities in the peripheral fibers of the annulus fibrosis

A

B. Dehydration and loss of tissue resiliency of the nucleus pulposus

64
Q

What type of juvenile chronic arthritis has systemic or articular (or both) symptoms and signs in the absence of positive serologic test results for rheumatoid factor? A. Still’s Disease B. Juvenile onset adult RA C. Rheumatoid nodularis D. Adult onset juvenile RA

A

A. Still’s Disease

65
Q

Which one of the following HAS (or may have) a bilateral and asymmetrical sacroilitis associated with it? A. Whipples disease B. AS C. Osteitis condensans ilii D. Rheumatoid arthritis E. Crohn’s disease

A

D. Rheumatoid arthritis

66
Q

Which one of the following characterizes Alkaptonuria? A. Absence of homogentisic acid oxidase B. Complete deficiency of hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferace activity C. Abnormal pigmentation of connective tissues D. Lead nephropathy

A

A. Absence of homogentisic acid oxidase

67
Q

Which one of the following joint disorders does NOT have a periosteal reaction associated with it? A. Hemochromatosis B. JCA C. Psoriatic D. Reiter’s

A

A. Hemochromatosis

68
Q

In RA of the heel, what is the most frequent abnormality? A. Plantar fasciitis B. Achilles tendinitis C. Retrocalcaneal bursitis D. Achilles tendon rupture

A

C. Retrocalcaneal bursitis

69
Q

Syringomyelia frequently causes neuropathic osteoarthropathy of what joint? A. Hip B. Ankle C. Wrist D. Shoulder

A

D. Shoulder

70
Q

What radiographic sign is strongly suggestive of gouty arthritis? A. Erosions B. Non uniform loss in joint space C. Overhanging edge D. Hook erosions

A

C. Overhanging edge

71
Q

What disorder features episodic inflammation of cartilaginous tissue and organs of special sense? A. Tietze’s syndrome B. Bechet’s disease C. Relapsing polychondritis D. SAPHO

A

C. Relapsing polychondritis

72
Q

In what location is the atrophic type of neuropathic osteoarthropathy the most common presentation? A. Knee B. Spine C. Shoulder D. Ankle

A

C. Shoulder

73
Q

What is the name given to the situation in which fraying of the extensor tendons of the wrist occurs by an eroded head of the ulna that abnormally projects into the dorsal compartments of the wrist. A. Radiocarpal Malaignment B. Zig Zag deformity C. Caput Ulnae syndrome D. Ulnar impaction syndrome

A

C. Caput Ulnae syndrome

74
Q

What is the etiology of saturnine gout? A. Glycogen storage disease B. Complete deficiency of hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferace activity C. Lead nephropathy D. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

A

C. Lead nephropathy

75
Q

Disc degeneration as seen on a T2-weighted MRI reveals what? A. High signal intensity B. Low signal intensity C. Decreased disc height D. Both B and C

A

D. Both B and C

76
Q

What is the best-accepted pathogenesis of sponylosis deformans? A. Infection B. Dehydration and loss of tissue resiliency of the nucleus pulposus C. A.L.L. degeneration leading to a “sloppy” inter-body articulation D. Abnormalities in the peripheral fibers of the annulus fibrosis

A

D. Abnormalities in the peripheral fibers of the annulus fibrosis

77
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a DDX for hemochromatosis of the hand? A. CPPD B. Kashin-Beck’s disease C. Ochronosis D. Both A and B are NOT a DDX for hemochromatosis

A

C. Ochronosis

78
Q

Ankylosis as a complication of DJD is most commonly seen in which of the following joints? A. Knee B. Shoulder C. Sacroiliac D. Wrist

A

C. Sacroiliac

79
Q

Which one of the following does NOT progress to main-en-lorgnette? (Arthritis mutilans or opera glass hand) A. RA B. Psoriatic C. Osteoarthrosis D. JCA

A

C. Osteoarthrosis

80
Q

Which of the following is NOT a radiographic characteristic of Intervertebral (Osteo) Chondrosis? A. Disc space narrowing B. Vacuum phenomena C. Well-defined sclerotic vertebral margins D. Large spondylophytes

A

D. Large spondylophytes

81
Q

What is the initial manifestation of Reiter’s syndrome? A. Urethritis B. Arthritis C. Conjunctivitis D. Epidermolysis bullosa

A

A. Urethritis

82
Q

Which one of the following statements about polymyositis / dermatomyositis is false? A. Raynaud’s phenomena may be seen as a clinical sign B. Radiographic abnormalities seen in joints is common C. May be associated with malignancy D. Periarticular osteopenia is a frequent finding

A

B. Radiographic abnormalities seen in joints is common

83
Q

Which one of the following is not a factor in the development of degenerative disease of extraspinal locations? A. Genetics B. Geography and environment C. Age and sex D. Omega fatty acids in the blood

A

D. Omega fatty acids in the blood

84
Q

What is the frequency in which patients with psoriatic skin lesions develop articular manifestations? A. 100% B. 50% C. 25% D. 5%

85
Q

What portion of the foot is commonly involved in psoriatic arthritis? A. Forefoot B. Midfoot C. Hindfoot D. Both B and C are correct

A

A. Forefoot

86
Q

Which one of the following arthritides does NOT have destruction of the distal tuft as a possible finding? A. Scleroderma B. Psoriatic C. Raynaud’s D. Leprosy E. AS

87
Q

In AS, focal destructive areas along the anterior margin of the discovertebral junction at the superior and inferior portions of the vertebral body, called “Romanus lesions” may be present. What is the pathological mechanism for this? A. Osteitis B. Syndesmophytes C. Anderson erosions (resnick) D. Burned out AS

A

A. Osteitis

88
Q

The pathologic condition of the synovial lining in hemophilia is best described as what? A. Non-inflammatory hypertrophy B. Non-inflammatory atrophy C. Inflammatory hypertrophy D. Inflammatory atrophy

A

C. Inflammatory hypertrophy

89
Q

What is the most frequent soft tissue lesion in rheumatoid arthritis? A. Sinus tract rheumatism B. Rheumatoid Nodules C. Baker cysts D. Retrocalcaneal bursitis

A

B. Rheumatoid Nodules

90
Q

Which of one of the following is a pathogenesis of subchondral cyst formation seen in DJD? A. Subchondral ganglion cyst rupture B. Bony contusion C. Increased intra-articular joint pressure from a central osteophyte D. Hypertrophied synovium

A

B. Bony contusion

91
Q

The radiographic abnormalities seen in AS involving the hands may be classified as which one of the following? A. Asymmetrically distributed B. Unilateral, Polyarticular, C. Monoarticular D. Symmetrically distributed

A

A. Asymmetrically distributed

92
Q

The most characteristic site of abnormality seen in gouty arthritis of the foot is where? A. DIPs B. 1st metatarsophalangeal joint C. Hind foot (talocalcaneal) D. Fore foot (talonavicular)

A

B. 1st metatarsophalangeal joint

93
Q

What type of juvenile chronic arthritis may mimic leukemia or lymphoma? A. Still’s disease B. Juvenile onset adult RA C. Rheumatoid nodularis D. Adult onset juvenile RA

A

A. Still’s disease

94
Q

Which arthritis does NOT have diffuse terminal phalangeal sclerosis as an associated finding? A. Kashin-Beck’s disease B. RA C. Scleroderma D. SLE E. Sarcoidosis

A

A. Kashin-Beck’s disease

95
Q

What is the vector in Lymes disease? A. Reduvid beetle B. Mosquito C. Flea D. Tick

96
Q

On an external rotational view of the shoulder, a small calcific density is seen projected over the lateral aspect of the humeral head. On internal rotation of the shoulder, the calcification, (clearly within the soft tissues) is projected just lateral to the humeral head. In what tendon does this collection of calcium reside? A. Supraspinatus B. Infraspinatus C. Teres minor D. Subscapularis

A

B. Infraspinatus

97
Q

What portion of the sacroiliac joint is predominately affected in AS? A. llium B. Sacrum C. Sacroiliac ligament D. Lumbosacral ligament

98
Q

Which one of the following joints is not commonly involved in DJD? A. Ankle B. Hip C. Knee D. Hand

99
Q

What type of lumbosacral transitional segment has the highest prevalence of discal herniation above the transition and at the level of the transition? A. Type I or dysplastic transverse processes B. Type II or incomplete lumbarization or sacralization C. Type III or complete lumbarization or sacralization D. Type IV or mixed E. Foshang’s pustular postulate

A

B. Type II or incomplete lumbarization or sacralization

100
Q

A 56 year old female presents with a small, pliable soft tissue mass seen on the dorsal aspect of the 2nd distal interphalangeal joint. This mass is moveable upon palpation. Radiographs of the hand reveal non-uniform loss in joint space, osteophytosis, and subchrondral sclerosis in all the DIPs and the 2-4 digit?s PIPs. This soft tissue mass most likely represents what? A. Heberden’s node B. Mucous cyst C. Rheumatoid nodule D. Lipoma

A

B. Mucous cyst

101
Q

In AS, which one of the following is not a mechanism by which localized central lesions seen at the discovertebral junction forming cartilaginous nodes are formed? A. Osteoporosis B. Instability due to apophyseal joint disease C. Increased intradiscal pressure by hyperkyphosis D. Intraosseous inflammatory changes

A

C. Increased intradiscal pressure by hyperkyphosis

102
Q

What joint is most commonly involved in Lymes disease? A. Knee B. Cervical spine C. Sacroiliac joints D. Hand E. All the above have the same frequency of occurrence

103
Q

Which one of the following terms is not associated with the bony and joint changes seen in psoriatic arthritis? A. Beak-like bony proliferation B. Tumoral enthesopathy C. Pencil-and-a-cup deformity D. Whiskering

A

A. Beak-like bony proliferation

104
Q

The joint deformity seen in severe osteoarthritis of the knee is most commonly of what form? A. Varus B. Valgus C. Impaction D. All the above

105
Q

Jaccoud’s arthropathy simulates what other disorder(s)? A. SLE B. Scleroderma C. Ehler’s Danlos D. Both A and C

A

D. Both A and C

106
Q

Which one of the following is NOT an arthritis associated with osteoporosis? A. RA B. JCA C. Hemophilia D. Gout

107
Q

What blood test(s) are frequently abnormal in patients with active ankylosing spondylitis? Select all correct answers. A. Sedimentation rate B. Western blot C. HLA-B27 D. Kveim test

A

A. Sedimentation rate C. HLA-B27

108
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a common feature of gouty arthritis? A. Eccentric nodular soft tissue prominence B. Relatively well maintained joint spaces C. Bony erosions D. Regional osteoporosis

A

D. Regional osteoporosis

109
Q

Which one of the findings seen in DJD is most strongly linked to hereditary factors? A. Nonuniform loss in joint space B. Subchondral cysts C. Heberden’s nodes D. Eggar’s cysts

A

C. Heberden’s nodes

110
Q

The association of rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly, and leukopenia is called what? A. Sjogren’s Syndrome B. Felty’s Syndrome C. Jaccoud’s D. Meigs Disease

A

B. Felty’s Syndrome

111
Q

Extensive central and peripheral discovertebral lesions seen in AS are related to what? A. Osteoporosis B. Hyperkyphosis C. Improper fracture healing D. Discal herniation

A

C. Improper fracture healing

112
Q

A 45-year-old man presents with fever, weight loss, brown pigmentation of the skin, and knee and ankle joint arthralgia. A previous visit to his internist revealed accumulation of periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) positive inclusions in the macrophages of the lamina propria of his small intestine. What is the most likely diagnosis is what? A. Wilson’s disease B. Hemophilia C. Whipple’s disease D. Ochronosis

A

C. Whipple’s disease

113
Q

Which one of the following is false regarding the characteristics of psoriatic arthritis? A. Has bony erosions with adjacent proliferation B. Asymmetric distribution more common than symmetric distribution C. Intra-articular bony ankylosis D. Osteoporosis is a prominent feature

A

D. Osteoporosis is a prominent feature

114
Q

What type of calcium is seen within the soft tissues in patients with scleroderma? A. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate B. Hydroxyapatite C. Calcitonin D. Calcium Oxalate

A

B. Hydroxyapatite

115
Q

Syndesmophytes represent ossification of what? A. Paravertebral tissues B. Anulus fibrosis C. Nucleus pulposus D. Anterior longitudinal ligament

A

B. Anulus fibrosis

Part I Boards Question Bank (20 decks)

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