Trauma & Airway Obstruction Flashcards

1
Q

What needs to be ruled out in nasal fracture?

A

Septal haematoma (will move with palpation; pure broken nose should not move)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which investigations are necessary in nasal trauma?

A

None, usually a pure clinical diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When should nasal fracture be “reviewed” in ENT clinic?

A

5-7 days post injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is nasal fracture treated?

A

Manipulation under Anaesthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The nose receives blood supply from which major arteries?

A

Internal and external carotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 3 anastamoses making up Little’s area?

A

Sphenopalatine, ethmoid, greater palatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is epistaxis managed acutely?

A

1) Arrest flow (vasoconstrictor like adrenaline, ice-packing). Rapid-rhino pack.
2) Remove clots if present
3) Cautery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A fracture of the cribiform plate gives a risk to what fluid leaking from nose

A

CSF - any potential fractures need prophylactic antibiotics for 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is pinna haematoma treated?

A

Aspiration and drainage, with pressure dressing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is ear laceration treated?

A

Debride infected tissue, reattach ear.

Do NOT use adrenaline local.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Temporal bone fractures will most commonly present at which site

A

Pterion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

“Battle sign” on the ear is indicative of what

A

Temporal fracutre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In temporal bone fracture, the status of which nerve must be assessed?

A

CN VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is more common: longitudinal or transverse temporal bone fracture?

A

Longitudinal (blow to the side of the head)

Can also cause conductive hearing loss, CSF otorrhoea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which injury represents a higher chance of injury to facial nerve; longitudinal or transverse fracture?

A

Transverse (also SNHL, vertigo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

TM perforation causes what type of hearing loss

A

Conductive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Stapes fixation/ “otosclerosis” causes what type of hearing loss

A

Conductive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Does otosclerosis follow trauma?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How is otosclerosis diagnosed?

A

CT

20
Q

How are most CSF leakages repaired?

A

Usually self-healing

21
Q

What constitutes a “zone 1” neck injury?

A

Any injury to: trachea, oesophagus, thoracic duct, thyroid or the great vessels.

22
Q

What constitutes a “zone 2” neck injury?

A

Any injury to the: larynx, hypopharynx, CN X, CN XI, CN XII, or vessels of the neck (i.e. carotid, internal jugular)

23
Q

What constitutes a “zone 3” neck injury?

A

Any injury to the: pharynx

24
Q

What are some indications for urgent surgical exploration in neck trauma?

A

Hypovolaemic shock, airway obstruction, blood in aerodigestive tract

25
Q

“Tear drop sign” is a buzz-word for what

A

Medial wall of orbit blow-out fracture

26
Q

What physics principle determines resistance to airflow

A

Poisueille’s Equation
(a reduction of radius size will give a ^4 increase in airflow resistance, i.e. 2mm radius reduced by 1mm will give 16x resistance in increase)

27
Q

What is stridor

A

High pitched sound on expiration

28
Q

What is stertor

A

Low pitched on inspiration

29
Q

Commonest organism causing acute epiglossitis in children

A

H. influenzae type B

30
Q

A foreign body will likely lodge itself where

A

Right lung (bronchus straight c.f. to left which is angled).

31
Q

Recurrent intubation can lead to what glottus change?

A

Sub-glottic stenosis

32
Q

What is mentoplasty

A

Chin implants

33
Q

Blepharoplasty should be considered after what 2 other anti-ageing procedures

A

Botox injections

Fillers

34
Q

What is healing by second intention?

A

Healing over a scar

35
Q

What is healing by third intention?

A

Healing with a wide-scar

36
Q

What is first intention healing?

A

Hairline scar

37
Q

Should a deep wound be sutured immediately?

A

No, may need debridement and cleaning

38
Q

Skin graft donor site

A

Anterior ear

39
Q

An SCC is removed from the lateral aspect of a patient’s nose (on the ala). Which cosmetic surgery should be used?

A

Skin flaps

40
Q

Barium swallows are useful in what suspected conditions (3)

A

1) Pharyngeal pouch
2) Oesophageal dysmotility
3) Strictures

41
Q

First-line investigation in a neck lump

A

USS

42
Q

Benign lymph nodes tend to have what

A

Elliptical shape, obvious central fatty hilum, organised vasculature supply.

43
Q

As a rule of thumb, which modality is used to image sensineural deafness?

A

MRI

44
Q

As a rule of thumb, which imaging modality is used to investigate conductive deafness?

A

CT

45
Q

Vestibular schwannoma leads to what hearing loss? What is the investigation of choice?

A

Sensineural.

MRI

46
Q

Foramen rotundum transmits which CN

A

CN V2

47
Q

Dental abscesses can invade which space? What CN is in this space?

A

Masticator space.

CN V