Trauma & Airway Obstruction Flashcards

1
Q

What needs to be ruled out in nasal fracture?

A

Septal haematoma (will move with palpation; pure broken nose should not move)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which investigations are necessary in nasal trauma?

A

None, usually a pure clinical diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When should nasal fracture be “reviewed” in ENT clinic?

A

5-7 days post injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is nasal fracture treated?

A

Manipulation under Anaesthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The nose receives blood supply from which major arteries?

A

Internal and external carotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 3 anastamoses making up Little’s area?

A

Sphenopalatine, ethmoid, greater palatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is epistaxis managed acutely?

A

1) Arrest flow (vasoconstrictor like adrenaline, ice-packing). Rapid-rhino pack.
2) Remove clots if present
3) Cautery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A fracture of the cribiform plate gives a risk to what fluid leaking from nose

A

CSF - any potential fractures need prophylactic antibiotics for 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is pinna haematoma treated?

A

Aspiration and drainage, with pressure dressing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is ear laceration treated?

A

Debride infected tissue, reattach ear.

Do NOT use adrenaline local.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Temporal bone fractures will most commonly present at which site

A

Pterion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

“Battle sign” on the ear is indicative of what

A

Temporal fracutre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In temporal bone fracture, the status of which nerve must be assessed?

A

CN VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is more common: longitudinal or transverse temporal bone fracture?

A

Longitudinal (blow to the side of the head)

Can also cause conductive hearing loss, CSF otorrhoea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which injury represents a higher chance of injury to facial nerve; longitudinal or transverse fracture?

A

Transverse (also SNHL, vertigo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

TM perforation causes what type of hearing loss

A

Conductive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Stapes fixation/ “otosclerosis” causes what type of hearing loss

A

Conductive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Does otosclerosis follow trauma?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How is otosclerosis diagnosed?

20
Q

How are most CSF leakages repaired?

A

Usually self-healing

21
Q

What constitutes a “zone 1” neck injury?

A

Any injury to: trachea, oesophagus, thoracic duct, thyroid or the great vessels.

22
Q

What constitutes a “zone 2” neck injury?

A

Any injury to the: larynx, hypopharynx, CN X, CN XI, CN XII, or vessels of the neck (i.e. carotid, internal jugular)

23
Q

What constitutes a “zone 3” neck injury?

A

Any injury to the: pharynx

24
Q

What are some indications for urgent surgical exploration in neck trauma?

A

Hypovolaemic shock, airway obstruction, blood in aerodigestive tract

25
"Tear drop sign" is a buzz-word for what
Medial wall of orbit blow-out fracture
26
What physics principle determines resistance to airflow
Poisueille's Equation (a reduction of radius size will give a ^4 increase in airflow resistance, i.e. 2mm radius reduced by 1mm will give 16x resistance in increase)
27
What is stridor
High pitched sound on expiration
28
What is stertor
Low pitched on inspiration
29
Commonest organism causing acute epiglossitis in children
H. influenzae type B
30
A foreign body will likely lodge itself where
Right lung (bronchus straight c.f. to left which is angled).
31
Recurrent intubation can lead to what glottus change?
Sub-glottic stenosis
32
What is mentoplasty
Chin implants
33
Blepharoplasty should be considered after what 2 other anti-ageing procedures
Botox injections | Fillers
34
What is healing by second intention?
Healing over a scar
35
What is healing by third intention?
Healing with a wide-scar
36
What is first intention healing?
Hairline scar
37
Should a deep wound be sutured immediately?
No, may need debridement and cleaning
38
Skin graft donor site
Anterior ear
39
An SCC is removed from the lateral aspect of a patient's nose (on the ala). Which cosmetic surgery should be used?
Skin flaps
40
Barium swallows are useful in what suspected conditions (3)
1) Pharyngeal pouch 2) Oesophageal dysmotility 3) Strictures
41
First-line investigation in a neck lump
USS
42
Benign lymph nodes tend to have what
Elliptical shape, obvious central fatty hilum, organised vasculature supply.
43
As a rule of thumb, which modality is used to image sensineural deafness?
MRI
44
As a rule of thumb, which imaging modality is used to investigate conductive deafness?
CT
45
Vestibular schwannoma leads to what hearing loss? What is the investigation of choice?
Sensineural. | MRI
46
Foramen rotundum transmits which CN
CN V2
47
Dental abscesses can invade which space? What CN is in this space?
Masticator space. | CN V