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DipIMC > Trauma > Flashcards

Trauma Flashcards

1
Q

We are the liver and spleen so susceptible to injury via blunt forces? (3)

A
  1. Heavy and relatively free to move which leads to tearing
  2. Soft so when starts bleeding it is propagated
  3. Very vascular
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2
Q

How much of traumatic pelvic bleeding is venous?

A

Around 80%

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3
Q

What is the mortality of an open pelvic fracture?

A

50%

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4
Q

Which patients does the FPHC consensus statement suggest may not need a binder? (5)

A
  1. Mechanism not suggestive of pelvic injury and
  2. Haemodynamically stable (HR<100, SBP >90)
  3. GCS >13
  4. no distracting injury
  5. no pain in pelvis
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5
Q

What does FPHC consensus statement say about type of pelvic binder used? (2)

A
  1. No good evidence for one device over another
  2. Best evidence currently is for SAM Splint or T-POD device
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6
Q

What is the FPHC consensus statement with regards to femoral fractures and suspected unstable pelvic fractures and haemodynamically unstable patients?

A
  • if traction of legs will delay transfer +/- worsen instability of patient (via pelvic disruption), they should be pulled to length and then tied together at knees and a figure of 8 around ankle
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7
Q

What does JRCALC recommend with regards to transporting the distal part of of an amputation? (4)

A
  1. Remove any gross contamination
  2. Cover the part with a moist dressing
  3. Secure in plastic bag
  4. place bag in a container with ice
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8
Q

What are the protective layers of the skull from outer layer inwards

A
  1. Skull
  2. Dura mater
  3. Arachnoid mater
  4. Pia mater
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9
Q

What is the Monro-Kellie Doctrine?

A

The sum of the volumes of brain/CSF/blood is constant. A rise in 1 will therefore precipitate a drop in 1 or both of the others.

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10
Q

What 2 syndromes are associated with hyperacute head injury?

A
  1. Neuroventilatory syndrome
  2. Neuro-cardiac syndrome
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11
Q

What is neuroventilatory syndrome?

A

Impact brain apnoea

Concussive force to Pre-Botzinger complex of medulla oblongata

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12
Q

What is neurocardiac syndrome?

A
  • Cardiogenic failure secondary to locally released noradrenaline from myocardial sympathetic nerve terminals leading to neurogenic stunned myocardium.
  • creates reverse-Takusubo picture (intact apical contraction/ impaired heart base contracticility)
  • pump failure may decrease further secondary to systemic cathecolamine induced afterload +/- impact brain apnoea
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13
Q

How is cerebral perfusion pressure calculated?

A

CPP = MAP - ICP

assume ICP >20cmH20 so aim MAP >80 mmHg

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14
Q

How much % decrease in effect does each 20mins delay in TXA cause?

A

10%

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15
Q

At what GCS does nice recommend giving TXA?

A

12 or less

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16
Q

What does JRCALC states about anti-platelet tx nd HI?

A

Should be conveyed unless aspirin monotherapy

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17
Q

What does JRCALC recommend for agitated head injuries?

A

Cautious use of midazolam

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18
Q
A
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19
Q

What are the indications for immediate CTH in children? (8)

A
  1. ? NAI
  2. Seizure
  3. GCS <14 at presentation
  4. GCS <15 at 2 hours
  5. ? skull # / tense fontanelle
  6. Basal skull # signs
  7. Focal neurological deficit
  8. Bruising/swelling >5cm in <1years
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20
Q

What are the risk factors that may require observation in paeds head injurys? (5)

A
  1. LOC >5mins
  2. Amnesia > 5 mins
  3. Abnormal drowsiness
  4. 3 or more vomits
  5. Dangerous MOI
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21
Q

If a child has one risk factor following head injury what should be their management?

A

4 hours observation

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22
Q

If a child has more than one risk factor following head injury what should be done?

A

CTH < 1hour

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23
Q

What are the increased risk factors needing imagine in the Canadian c-spine rules? (3)

A
  1. Over 65years
  2. Dangerous MOI
  3. Parasthesia in the extremities
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24
Q

What constitutes a dangerous MOI in the Canadian C-spine rules? (5)

A
  1. Fall over 3 foot or 5 stairs
  2. Axial load to head
  3. High speed MVC (>100kmph)/rollover/ejection
  4. Motorised recreational vehicles
  5. Bicycle collision
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25
Q

What are the low risk factors in the Canadian C-Spine rules? (5)

A
  1. Simple rear end shunt
  2. Sitting position in ED
  3. Walking at any point
  4. Delayed onset neck pain
  5. Absence of midline tenderness
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26
Q

How many low risk factors do you need to avoid imaging in the Canadian C-spine rules?

A

1

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27
Q

What is the final step in the Canadian C-Spine rules?

A

Can they rotate their neck 45 degrees left to right

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28
Q

What are the indications for immediate CTH in adults? (7)

A
  1. GCS <13
  2. GCS <15 after 2 hours
  3. Open/suspected skull #
  4. Signs basal skill #
  5. Seizure
  6. Focal neurology
  7. More than 1 vomit
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29
Q

Within what period should patients on anticoagulation have a CTH according to NICE?

A

8 hours

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30
Q

If an adult patient has no indication for CTH immediately and is not on anticoagulation, what is the next question to be asked?

A

Any LOC or amnesia - if no then no imaging
If yes move onto risk factors

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31
Q

What are the risk factors used to determine whether an adult patient needs a CTH within 8 hours who have had a LOC or amnesia? (4)

A
  1. Over 65years
  2. Hx bleeding/clotting disorder
  3. Dangerous MOI
  4. > 30mins retrograde amnesia (events before injury)
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32
Q

Describes the myotomes in the upper limb (6)

A

C5 - deltoid
C5/6 - biceps jerk
C6 - wrist extensors
C7 - elbow extensor/triceps jerk
C8 - finger flexors
T1 - little finger abductors

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33
Q

Describe the lower limb myotomes (5)

A

L2 - hip flexors
L4 - knee extensors
L5 - ankle dorseflexors
S1 - ankle plantar flexors
S5 - anal reflex

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34
Q

What dermatome is the thumb?

A

C6

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35
Q

Where is the dermatone C7?

A

Middle finger

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36
Q

What dermatone is the little finger?

A

C8

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37
Q

What dermatone is the:
1. nipple
2. xyphoid process
3. Umbilicus

A
  1. T4
  2. T6
  3. T10
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38
Q

Describe the dermatomes of the lower limbs (4)

A
  1. L3 = medial knee
  2. L4 = lateral knee
  3. L5 = dorsum foot + 1st-3rd toes
  4. S1 = lateral malleolus
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39
Q

What spinal levels to the sympathetic fibres extend from?

A

T1 - L3

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40
Q

What spinal levels do the parasympathetic fibres extend from?

A

S2-4

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41
Q

At what spinal level can a SCI lead to neurogenic shock?

A

T6 or above

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42
Q

What causes neurogenic shock?

A

Loss of sympathetic autonomic outflow

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43
Q

What neurology is associated with central cord syndrome?

A

Arms weaker than legs

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44
Q

What neurology is associated with anterior cord syndrome? (4)

A
  1. Complete motor loss below lesion
  2. Loss of pain/temp below lession
  3. Preserved sensation/vibration
  4. Autonomic dysfunction
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45
Q

What neurology is associated with Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A
  1. Weakness/paralysis on 1 side
  2. Loss on sensation on the other
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46
Q

What is the mechanism for acid burns?

A

Coagulative necrosis

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47
Q

What is the mechanism for alkali burns?

A

Liquefactive necrosis

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48
Q

What are alkali burns worse than acid?

A

Acid burns form a barrier which prevents deep penetration into the skin, alkalis cause liquefactive necrosis which means it can penetrate deeper into the skin

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49
Q

What is are the voltage cut off of:
- low voltage
- high voltage

A
  1. <1000V
  2. > 1000V
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50
Q

What type of current is normal low voltage and can it lead to?

A
  1. AC domestic current
  2. Arrhythmia
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51
Q

What does high voltage electricity normally cause? (3)

A
  1. Full thickness burns at both entry and exit sites (internal damage can be far worse than appears externally)
    - Tissue damage secondary to heat generated by resistance of tissues
  2. Muscle spasms/secondary trauma from being thrown causing bony/SCI
  3. Arrhythmia particularly if chest involved
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52
Q

What type of tissue leads to the most damage when conducting high voltage electricity and why?

A

Bone because it has the highest resistance, it is the resistance that causes heat and bone can therefore become very hot and lead to further damage once the current has stopped.

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53
Q

What surgical interventions might be require of high voltage burns?

A
  • may need aggressive surgical intervention inc. fasciotomy and amputation
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54
Q

What can muscle damage related to high voltage burns lead to?

A

Myonecrosis, compartment syndrome and rhabdo with renal failure

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55
Q

What does a lightening strike lead to and what might be a protective factor?

A

Death unless it has already passed throught another object

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56
Q

Describe the palm method of assessing burns size and in what are the weakness of using it

A
  1. Palm INC. adducted fingers = around 1% TBSA (patients hand, not clinicians)
  2. Some debate as to the accuracy, particularly in small kids and obese patients
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57
Q

What burns assessment does the FPHC consensus statement recommend? (2)

A
  1. Lund and Browder chart
  2. Mersey burns app (or similar)
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58
Q

Describe superfical burns?

A

Erythema only,not included in burns calculation

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59
Q

What differentiates superficial burns from superficial dermal/superficial partial?

A

Blisters - fluid lifts dead epidermis off dermis

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60
Q

What is the difference between deep dermal/ partial and superficial dermal/partial? (3)

A

Extends into dermis

  1. Decreased sensation secondary to damage to nerve endings
  2. Hallmaark = increase CRT due to damage of dermal vascular plexus
  3. Can be ‘blotchy’ pink/red colour secondary to extravasation of the Hb from damaged vessels
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61
Q

Describe full thickness burns

A

Can include fat/fascia/muscle/bone

  • ‘charred’ or ‘leathery’
  • ‘woody’ feel
  • insensitive (but surrounding non full thickness burns with be painful)
  • non blanching
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62
Q

What questions should be asked to any burns patient? (4)

A
  1. Were they trapped and if so for how long?
  2. Did clothes catch fire?
  3. Any cooling?
  4. Any explosion/ were they thrown?
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63
Q

What level of CO is classed as severe?

A

> 30%

64
Q

Why does CO lead to hypoxia?

A

CO x 240 more affinitity to Hb than oxygen which shifts 02 dissociation curve to the left

65
Q

What will pulse oximetry be like with CO poisoning and why?

A

Normal as unable to differentiate between carboxyhaemoglobin and haemoglobin

66
Q

What is a normal value of COHB in:
1. non-smokers
2. smokers
3. heavy smokers

A
  1. < 3%
  2. <5%
  3. <9%
67
Q

What is the treatment (initially) for CO poisoning and why does it help?

A

High flow oxygen because it reduces the half life of COHb from 320mins to 80mins

68
Q

What is the mechanism of cyanide poisoning?

A

Usually from burning plastic

Poisons mitochondria and prevents further cellular oyxgen use leading to anaerobic metabolism

69
Q

What are 2 treatments available for cyanide poisoning?

A
  1. Hydroxycobalamin (Cyanokit)
  2. Dicobalt edetate (Kelocyanor)
70
Q

To what depth should an escharotomy incision be?

A

Down to unburnt skin

71
Q

What 3 lines should be made in a breast plate escharotomy?

A
  1. Mid clavicular to ant axillary line to costal margin bilaterally
  2. Transverse subcostal
  3. Transverse infraclavicular
72
Q

What are the % burn NICE in hospital thresholds for:
1. Adults
2. Kids
3. < 18months old

A
  1. 15%
  2. 10%
  3. 8 %
73
Q

What is the Parkland formula?

A

4 x wt (kg) x TBSA
3 x wt (kg) x TBSA (kids)

First half in initial 8 hours
Second half in following 16 hours

74
Q

What does JRCALC recommend for burns fluid resusitation?

A

1L warmed fluids / hr (adult)
10ml/kg/hr paeds

75
Q

What should the first steps be in with chemical burns?

A

Remove agent, removed contaminated clothes and if liquid, irrigate well

76
Q

What is the recommended to use in decontaminating both acids and alkalis?

A

Diphoterine (normalises PH more quickly)

77
Q

If Diphoterine is not available, what fluids should be use to decontaminate acids/alkalis?

A

Isotonic or hypertonic fluid because water can propagate chemical deeper into the skin

78
Q

How long should chemical burns be irrigated for?

A
  • until pain improved which is a useful crude sign that PH has improved
79
Q

How does hydrofluric acid lead to burns?

A
  • H+ ions dissociate on contact with skin and lead to liquefactive necrosis allowing acid to penetrate deeply
  • Free flouride ions bind to calcium and magnesium ions leading to systemic hypomagnesia and hypocalcaemia
80
Q

How should hydrofluric acid be treated? (4)

A
  1. Irrigate
  2. Calcium gluconate gel
  3. IV/intra-arterial calcium if extreme
  4. Specific agent = hexaflourine
81
Q

What is the specific agent for hydrofluric acid tx?

A

Hexaflourine

82
Q

How should tar/bitumen burns be treated?

A
  • they are heated to around 150 degrees and cause full thickness burns
  • cool with water to solidify and then remove with toluene or peanut/paraffin oil
83
Q

How does the FPHC consensus statement divide airways burns? (2)

A
  1. Supraglottic (nose/oropharynx and larynx) - most common
  2. Infraglottic
84
Q

How can infraglottic burns be caused? (5)

A

Steam inhalation
Aspiration of scalding liquid
Blast injury
Flammable gas under pressure
Aerosolised chemicals

85
Q

What are the features of infraglottic burns? (5)

A
  1. Impaired ciliary activity
  2. Hypersecretion
  3. Oedema
  4. Mucosal ulceration
  5. Bronchial spasm
86
Q

What 3 considerations should be made with intubation in patients with airway burns?

A
  1. Largest size tube that will be placed (bronchoscopy on ITU)
  2. Uncut (airway will swell)
  3. Careful with tube tie
87
Q

What features have been shown to correlate with need for RSI (FPHC)? (6)

A
  1. Full thickness facial burns
  2. Stridor
  3. Resp distress
  4. Swelling on larygnoscopy
  5. Smoke inhalation
  6. Singed nasal hairs
88
Q

When does FPHC recommend using cyanide antidote?

A

Suspected smoke inhalation AND:
- altered mental status
- CV instability

89
Q

What 3 categories of burns severity does FPHC recommend using pre-hospital?

A

< 20%
20-50%
> 50 %

90
Q

What does FPHC say about water cooling of thermal burns? (3)

A
  1. Water < 20 degrees (12 ideal)
  2. 20 mins
  3. Not ice water secondary to risk of tissue necrosis
91
Q

What does FPHC recommend with regards to first aid for chemical burns? (3)

A

1.Treat any chemical burn ASAP regardless of delay to presentation

  1. Use amphoteric solution as first line
  2. Irrigate for as long as possible
92
Q

When does FPHC state fluid resus should be commenced pre-hospital in:-
- adults
- paeds

A

> 20%

93
Q

Describe the FPHC ‘threshold’ method for estimating pre-hospital fluid resusitation?

A
94
Q

What analgesia should be avoided in burns?

A

NSAIDs if requiring fluid resus

95
Q

When does FPHC recommend chest escharatotomy?

A

Circumferential or near circumferential eschar with imprending or established respiratory compromise to to thoraco-abdominal burns

96
Q

What is the definition of crush injury?

A

Direct injury to a body part which has undergone a prolonged static compressive force sufficient to interfere with normal tissue metabolic function

97
Q

What is the definition of crush syndrome?

A

Systemic consequences of muscle + soft tissue trauma

98
Q

What 3 factors make crush syndrome more likely?

A
  1. Increased compressive force
  2. Increased muscle bulk
  3. Increased time
99
Q

What is suspension syncope?

A

Orthostatic hypovolaemia leads to syncope if trapped in vertical position -can lead to death

100
Q

Describe the two components that lead to progressive orthostatic shock in patients trapped vertically

  1. Orthostatic syncope
  2. Orthostatic hypovolaemia
A
  1. Orthostatic syncope
    Cerebral perfusion compromised as autonomic/humoural + local responses fail to preserve MAP. Process made worse by: pain (vagal tone), hypovolaemia, forced erect position
  2. Orthostatic hypovolaemia
    Entrapping force/harness acts a venous tourniquet and limb congests. This leads to loss local vascular tone and leaky capillaries leading to further swelling/ tightening harness. Can progress to limb ischaemia
101
Q

Describe rescue cardioplegia

A

Occurs on release of compressing force

  • cold ‘toxic’ blood released back into systemic circulation leading to a sudden and transient increased preload. Causes atrial stretch which can lead to asystole of AF
  • Simultaneous rapid drop in afterload + SVR as blood moves back into affected limb
  • both lead to acute hypotension when limb released
102
Q

What can make the affects of rescue cardioplegia worse?

A
  • blood released ‘ideal cardioplegic solution’ leading to arrhythmia
  • cold/hyptertonic/acidotic/ raised k+/ca2+/Mg2+/P04D
103
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of crush syndrome

A
  • Constant external mechanical force prevents cell wall integrity by forcing extracellular cations + fluid against normal electrochemical + osmotic gradient into cells
  • cell wall extrusion pumps become overhwhelmed allowing water with dissociated Na+/Cl-/Ca2+ into cell
  • ultimately leads to death
104
Q

When is irreversible cell death caused by crush syndrome?

A

<1 hour but no universally accepted ‘safe time’

105
Q

What is compartment syndrome?

A

Intramuscular compartment forces act continualy above DBP leading to comrpession and death of nerves/blood vessels/muscle

106
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of compartment syndrome

A

Integrity of muscle cell wall breached and intracellular components move extracellular and into damaged tissue

Cell content forced into vascular compartment lead to systemic affects

107
Q

How are kidneys damaged in compartment syndrome? (2)

A
  1. Direct damage of intracellular substances (proteases/purines)
  2. Indirect - attempt to filter acidotic plasma + myoglobin damage
108
Q

How does myoglobin damage kidney?

A
  • Myoglobin itself not nephrotoxic but when systemic acidosis lead to pH urine< 5.6 myoglobin converted to larger protein Ferrihaemate.
  • This is directly nephrotoxic and causes mechanical obstruction of nephron lumen
  • hypovolaemia and third space shift makes this worse
109
Q

What is the protein that myoglobin becomes when urine PH < 5.6

A

Ferrihaemate

110
Q

How should suspended patients be rescued?

A

ASAP and placed horizontally

111
Q

What has been shown to improved outcomes in trapped earthquake patients?

A

Systemic resus with sodium and potassium containing fluids (20ml/kg - 10ml/kg elderly)

112
Q

Describe the pain response in crush injury

A

Initially reduced due to endorphins and pressure neuropraxia but this will increase as limbs swell and endorphins wear off

113
Q

When should alkaline diuresis be considered in crush injury?

A

If evacuation time >4 hours

114
Q

How is alkaline diuresis performed?

A
  1. 50ml 8.4% soidum bicarbonate to each alternate 1L fluid
  2. If prolonged transfer alternate 5% dex to prevent sodium overload
  3. Aim urine PH >6.5

Really should be done in hospital

115
Q

Describe the pathology of tissue damage caused by projectiles?

A
  • Shockwave drives tissue radially leading to a temporary cavity
  • Contamination drawn into this cavity, which collapse once the projectile has passed leaving a permanent cavity (smaller) and traps contamination in wound.
116
Q

Why are solid organs more effected than muscle/lungs etc in terms of projectile injury?

A

Not very elastic, unable to stretch, therefore tolerate cavitation poorly and causes more damage

117
Q

Describe the physics of a blast

A
  • Rapid chemical transformation of solid/liquid into a gas.
  • Under increased pressure this gas expands rapidly outward as a wave of pressure
118
Q

What is a blast wave?

A

Air at leading edge of explosion is highly compressed

119
Q

What is a primary blast injury?

A

-Only occur in high pressure explosions
- Blast wave interacts with body tissues leading to stress/shear

120
Q

What areas/organs normal affected by primary blast injury? (3)

A
  1. Tympanic membrane
  2. Lungs
  3. Bowel
121
Q

What can severe primary blasts causes?

A

Vagally mediated bradycardia/hypotension and apnoea

122
Q

What is a secondary blast injury?

A

Fragments from device or other materials energised by the blast

123
Q

With regards to secondary blast injuries what are:
1. Primary fragments
2. Secondary fragments

A
  1. From device
  2. From other materials energised by the blast
124
Q

If fragments from other victims lead to secondary blast injuries what should be advised?

A

PEP

125
Q

What is a tertiary blast injury?

A

Blast wave displaces objects in its path (blast wind) e.g. bodies thrown agains solid objects or structural collapse

126
Q

What is a quaternary blast injury?

A

Any other explosion related injury e.g. burn, psychological trauma

127
Q

What are the 6 types of lung injury caused by blast lung?

A
  1. Interstitial haematoma/oedema
  2. Intra-alveolar injury
  3. Pulmonary oedema (can be delayed)
  4. PTX
  5. Alveolar-venous fistula
  6. Air embolism
128
Q

What are the 3 types if injury to bowel caused by blast bowel?

A
  1. Contusion
  2. Perforation
  3. Intra-luminal bleeding
129
Q

Which type of bowel is most affected by ‘blast bowel’?

A

Large bowel

130
Q

‘Blast ear’ can cause which 3 injuries?

A
  1. TM rupture
  2. Ossicle dislocation
  3. Inner ear damage
131
Q

What are the 4 C’s in terms of an explosion?

A

Police use for their initial approach

Confirm threat
Clear people away
Cordon
Control - create Incident Control Point (ICP)

132
Q

In terms of forensics post an explosion, what should we remember to do to preserve evidence? (4)

A
  1. Only touch objects to tx patients
  2. Only move bodies to tx patients
  3. When cutting off clothes try to avoid cutting through points of penetration
  4. Take limbs with patients even if unsalvageable
133
Q

In terms of triaging post explosion, what can be a useful marker of injury and why?

A

TM rupture because blast injuries can deteriorate later

134
Q

What denotes a high mortality in a patient injured during an explosion?

A
  1. Blast lung + amputation
135
Q

Following a traumatic amputation secondary to an explosion when should we use a tourniquet?

A

Always - can no bleed initially due to vasospasm/cauterisation but will start to

136
Q

In proximal amputations following an explosion, what other injury is likely?

A

Pelvic fractures - place binder emperically

137
Q

What is the mortality in penetrating head if the patient is?
Alert
Voice
Pain
Unresponsive

A

A = 11.5%
V = 33.3%
P = 7%
U = 100%

138
Q

Describe the zones of the neck?

A
  1. Clavicle to cricoid
  2. Cricoid to angle of mandible
  3. Angle of mandible to bottom of ear
139
Q

Why were the neck zones divided as they are?

A

Zone 2 more easily explored surgical, whereas 1 and 2 more likely to need CT angiography

140
Q

What does JRCALC state about giving IV fluids in paeds burns:
1. >20%
2. 10-20%
3. <10%

A
  1. Give 10ml/kg normal saline over 1 hour
  2. If journey time >30 mins given 10ml/kg over 1 hour
  3. No fluids
141
Q

What is classed as a dangerous MOI in the NICE head injury guidelines (6)?

A

1.A fall from a height of more than 1 meter or 5 stairs
2. A high-speed RTC (pedestrian, cyclist, or vehicle occupant)
3. Roll over RTC/ ejection
4. An accident involving motorized recreational vehicles
5.Bicycle collision
6. Diving accident

142
Q

What are the borders of the ‘safety triange’ for chest drains?

A
  1. Lateral aspect pec major
  2. Nipple line
  3. Lateral aspect of latissimus dorsi
143
Q

What is the causes of life threatening chest trauma in order of how frequently they occur in TARN?

A

Flail chest ( 1 in 50 )
Tension PTX (1 in 250)
Massive HTX (1 in 1000)
Cardiac tamponade (1 in 1250)
Open PTX (1 in 10,000)

144
Q

What mechanism is most commonly associated with posterior hip dislocation?

A

Unrestrained passengers with frontal impact

145
Q

What is the effect of an:
1. engine
2. tow bar

on injuries

A
  1. Protective against frontal collisions
  2. Transmits energy directly to passenger cabin and bypasses crumped zonesW
146
Q

What is Waddells triad?

A

Injury in children hit by car whilst walking:

  • contralteral head injury
  • intrathoracic or intrabdominal injury
  • fractured femur
147
Q
A
148
Q

In a self ventilating patient with suspected PTX/tension PTX what does FPHC recommend as:
1. First line
2. Second line
3. Third line

A
  1. Needle decompressoin 2nd IC space mid clavicular
  2. 5th IC space mid-axillary line
  3. Thoracostomy followed up by CD if level 6 practitioner
149
Q

What does the FPHC say about chest drains pre-hospital in their consensus statement

A
  • Should be avoided where possible due to:
  • prolongation of on-scene time
  • risks of kinking
  • blocking or falling out during transfers
  • long-term infection risks with non-sterile insertion techniques.

It is accepted that chest
drain insertion will be necessary in some circumstances eg high-altitude aero-medical retrieval.

150
Q

What is the complication rate of pre-hospital thorocostomy?

A

10-15%

151
Q

What does FPHC recommend with respects to abx and thoracostomy?

A

Should be considered for pre-hospital thoracostomy, especially in cases of penetrating chest trauma, or with transport times >3 hours

152
Q

What does FPHC recommend for treatment open PTX? (2)

A
  1. Commercial chest seal, vented preferably (3 sided dressing no longer recommended)
  2. IV abx prophx
153
Q

What is the FPHC consensus statement on massive HTX? (3)

A
  1. If no respiratory compromise then drainage should be delayed until ED
  2. Where thoracostomy has shown significant haemorrage then a chest drain maybe beneficial to monitor blood loss, however should not significantly impact of scene time.
  3. Clamping chest drain for exsanguinating chest trauma, however caution needed as high chance of co-existing PTX which could tension with PPV etc.
154
Q

What is the FPHC consensus statement recommendations on flail chest?

A
  1. Where possible, sit uo
  2. Patient may find holding their ribs helps with pain
  3. Pain score and suitable analgesia
  4. No entonox a 1/3 patients with >3 rib #s have PTX as well
155
Q

What factors associated with ribs #s have been shown to lead to worse outcomes and trigger clinicians to convey to centre with CTS? (8)

A
  1. age 65 years or more
  2. three or more rib
    fractures
  3. bilateral flail chest
  4. chronic lung disease
  5. co-existent underlying lung injury
  6. anticoagulant use
  7. BMI >25
  8. oxygen saturation <90% in the Emergency Department.
156
Q

What does FPHC consensus statement say about pre-hospital pericardiocentesis?

A
  1. No evidence for its use
  2. Can cause damage
  3. Unlikely to be able to aspirate clotted blood from needle
157
Q

What are the 4 things needed for to indicate pre-hospital thoracotomy according to FPHC?

A
  1. Stab wounds to the chest or upper abdomen
  2. Cardiac arrest with loss of vital signs ≤ 15 minutes
  3. The suspected injury is suitable for temporary repair and control
  4. A chain of survival exists for definitive management following Resuscitative Thoracotomy

DipIMC (14 decks)

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