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CAL-Jac Paramedic Program > Trauma > Flashcards

Trauma Flashcards

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1
Q

How much should you ventilate a pt who has signs of cerebral herniation?

A

20 breaths per min

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2
Q

What nerves originate in the thoracic spine?

A

sympathetic nerves

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3
Q

Injury of the sympathetic nerves in the thoracic spine inhibit the release of?

A

epinephrine and norepinphrine

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4
Q

A deep partial thickness burn damages what layer of the dermis?

A

basal layer of the dermis

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5
Q

What characteristics are associated with partial deep thickness burns?

A

edema, blisters and decreased sensation

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6
Q

Three types of Distrubutive Shock

A

Sepsis, Anaphylactis, neurogenc

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7
Q

How do you treat severe oropharyngeal bleed?

A

suction the airway for 15 seconds and ventilate for 2 minutes, then continue the alternating pattern until clear or until secured with an ET tube

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8
Q

Can you give pt with severe epistaxis, oxymetazoline hydrochloride or phenylephrine hydrochloride to stimulate the alpha adrenergic receptors causing localized vasoconstriction.

A

yes

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9
Q

What happens if pressure from injury to the face causes the retina out of the eye?

A

Irreparable damage or blindness

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10
Q

How do you remove rust and metal from an eye?

A

They require removal from a physcian

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11
Q

What is hyphema?

A

Bright red bleeding into the anterior chamber of the eye that obscures vision

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12
Q

Symptoms of retinal detachment, separation of the inner layers of the retina from the choroid

A

flashing lights, specks, “floaters”, cloud or shade over the pt’s vision

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13
Q

What eye injury is common in pt older than 50 years and is usually caused by thrombosis?

A

central retina vein occlusion which can cause necrosis of the retina and permanent damage to vision

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14
Q

Signs and symptoms to of acid burn to the eyes

A

cornea will appear white and opaque, loss in vision, facial skin burns

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15
Q

Alkalis is most commonly found in _________?

A

dry cleaner, lye, concrete

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16
Q

What do alkaline burns to the eyes cause?

A

liquefactive necrosis, scarring of the cornea leading to permanent vision loss

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17
Q

How do you treat chemical burns to the eye?

A

flush the eye with water or sterile saline solution

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18
Q

what is conjunctivitis?

A

Eye becomes red, inflamed and produces tears

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19
Q

What can cause superficial burns to the eyes?

A

UV rays from welding and sunlamp, snow blindness

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20
Q

Double vision usually points to trauma involved in what?

A

extraocular muscles and fracture of the orbit

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21
Q

what is dysconjugate gaze?

A

paralysis of gaze, or discoordination between the movement of the two eyes

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22
Q

Can an abrasion to the eye be more painful when exposed to the air?

A

yes

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23
Q

What topical anesthetic can relieve symptoms of corneal abrasion?

A

tetracaine

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24
Q

What is sympathetic eye movement

A

the movement of both eyes in unison

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25
Q

What should you avoid with injury to the globe of the eye?

A

Exert pressure or manipulate the globe

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26
Q

What should you do if part of the globe is exposed?

A

gently apply moist, sterile dressing

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27
Q

If you suspect hypema or rupture of the globe, you should take what kind of precautions?

A

spinal motion restriction

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28
Q

What is one thing you can do to decrease intraocular pressure?

A

elevate the pt head 40 Hdegrees and avoid activities that may increase pressure, like coughing

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29
Q

How do you treat an avulsed eye globe?

A

Cover the eye with moist, sterile dressing and stabalize both eyes, place in supine position to avoid eye fluid loss, transport

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30
Q

For folks who have trouble keeping their eyes open while irrigating, what medication can you administer to anesthetize the eye?

A

tetracaine hydrochloride

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31
Q

How do you treat for burns of the eye?

A

cover eyes with sterile, moist pad and eye shield, lay supine

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32
Q

How do you treat chemical burns of the eye?

A

Irrigate immediately with water or saline only

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33
Q

Should you remove a pt’s eye contacts if you suspect eye injury?

A

no

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34
Q

What is the only indication for removing contact lenses?

A

chemical burns to the eye

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35
Q

How long should you irrigate the eye for alkali or strong acid burns?

A

20 minutes

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36
Q

what should you do if you encounter an eye injury from the use of anhydrous ammonia (used while cooking meth)?

A

irrigate promptly

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37
Q

The carilaginous pinna is complicated by what due to it’s poor blood supply?

A

infection

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38
Q

How do you handle an avulsed tooth?

A

only touch the crown of the tooth, rinse tooth in saline or milk, don’t let the tooth dry

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39
Q

Injuries to what zone of the neck have the highest mortality rate?

A

Zone 1 ( cricoid and clavicle)

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40
Q

What is a special danger associated with open neck injuries where the jugular veins are exposed and air is sucked in during inhalation?

A

venous air embolism

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41
Q

Signs of neurogenic shock

A

hypotension, normal or slow pulse rate, warm and dry

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42
Q

what is mediastinitis?

A

inflammation of the mediastinum due to leakage of gastric content into the thoracic cavity

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43
Q

A pt may still be able to use their diaphragm but lose control of their intercostal muscles if the spinal cord is damaged ?

A

below C5

44
Q

UNequal pupils is a result of pressure against on what structures?

A

ocular motor nerve

45
Q

During a refractory period, what happens to the cardiac cell?

A

It is unable to be stimulated

46
Q

What are high levels of carbon dioxide in the blood called?

A

hypercapnia

47
Q

What are sprains?

A

stretching or tearing of ligaments

48
Q

What is a strain?

A

stretching or tearing of a muscle or tendon

49
Q

When applying a backboard, scoop stretcher, vaccuum mattress it is essential to do what?

A

check CSM’s

50
Q

Open fractures have a high or low risk of compartment syndrome?

A

high

51
Q

What do mast cells release as part of the body’s response in the early stages of inflammation?

A

histamine

52
Q

What does histamine cause?

A

Dilation of blood vessels, increasing blood flow, redding, warmth in the area, swelling

53
Q

What is epithelialization?

A

a new layer of epithelial cells being built in this region

54
Q

How do you treat degloving injuries, unraveling of the skin from the hand?

A

irrigate and

55
Q

What does occult mean?

A

hidden

56
Q

What type of injuries have a high risk of neurovascular compromise bc of the ulnar nerve’s and brachial artery location?

A

elbow injuries

57
Q

Order for tourniquet

A

direct pressure, elevate, tournequet

58
Q

What is an incision?

A

a clean linear cut

59
Q

What is a laceration?

A

a jagged wound that tears the tissue

60
Q

What is the most common injury associated with improper lifting techniques?

A

lumbar

61
Q

Signs and symptoms of shock

A

increased HR, increased RR, hypotension

62
Q

Referred left shoulder pain is caused by?

A

diaphragmatic irritation

63
Q

Difficulty seeing with a dark curtain blocking the vision

A
64
Q

What is a potential life-threatening complication of a long bone?

A

pulmonary embolism
-fat embolis

65
Q

Cushing’s Triad

A

bradycardia, irregular breath sounds, widening pulses, hypertension

65
Q

What is the disruption in the balance of procoagulants inhibitors thrombosis formation and lysis following a traumatic injury

A

disseminated intravascular coauglopathy

65
Q

Should a pt be taken to a Level 1 Trauma center is the pt has a GCS of 6 or less?

A

yes

66
Q

What type of penetrating trauma classifies for trauma level 1?

A

head, neck, torso, extremities proximal to the elbow or knee

66
Q

What respiratory rate classifies as level 1 trauma?

A

respiratory rate of less than 10 or greater than 29 breaths/min

67
Q

What systolic BP classifies as level 1 trauma?

A

70mm Hg for pt 0-9
90mm Hg for 10-64
110mm Hg for 65 yrs and older

68
Q

For high risk MVC, intrusion of what amount qualifies as trauma center?

A

12 inches for driver
18 inches for passenger/others

69
Q

What are the contraindications for aeromedical transport?

A

traumatic cardiac arrest, weather, obese, barotrauma

70
Q

Compression against the seat belt in an MVC may result in what?

A

ruptured bowl, bladder rupture, diaphragm tearing, spinal injuries

71
Q

What are the two major blood vessels in the abdomen?

A

Inferior vena cava and abdominal aorta

72
Q

What injuries can happen in a down and under pathway in an MVC?

A

fractured pelvis, femurs, hip dislocations, tibia fractures, spinal injuries

73
Q

Assume that pediatrics who follow the down and under pathway in an MCV have what?

A

pulmonary and cardiovascular injuries

74
Q

What often kills young patients in pedestrain vs driver?

A

TBI

75
Q

Lumbar spine axial loading results in what?

A

vertebral compression and burst fractures of T12-L1 and L2

76
Q

The vasomotor center of the medulla onblongata helps regulate what?

A

BP

77
Q

An artery that is incised across or transverse will often do what?

A

recoil

78
Q

What is the typical blood volume of an adult?

A

10 pints/5 L

79
Q

A femur fracture may result in a loss of how much blood?

A

2 pints/ 1 L

80
Q

What is a significant amount of blood loss for an infant>

A

3-6 ounces, 100-200mL

81
Q

What amount of blood loss in an adults causes signficant changes in vital signs, increase heart rate, decrease BP and increase respirations?

A

2 pints (1L)

82
Q

Bleeding tends to stop on it’s in own within how many minutes?

A

10 minutes

83
Q

What are the steps of Hemostatis?

A

vasocrontriction, platlet aggregation, fibrin weaving into the clot

84
Q

What is hemophilia?

A

the lack of one or more clotting factors where bleeding may occur spontaneously

85
Q

What is the trauma triangle of death?

A

hypothermia, coagulapathy, acidosis

86
Q

What is coagilopathy?

A

distruption of the blood’s ability to clot

87
Q

Hypoperfusion causes the cells to rely on what type of metabolism?

A

anerobic metabolism which releases acidic compounds

88
Q

What does acidosis in the blood cause to myocardial performance?

A

reduces performance, reduces oxygen delivery, increasing hypothermia

89
Q

What is hypovelemic shock?

A

inadequate volume -blood or fluids

90
Q

Crush injuries results in hypovelemic shock due to what?

A

blood and plasma loss from damaged vessels

91
Q

What are two examples of obstructive shock?

A

cardiac tamponade and tension pneumothorax

92
Q

What are late indications of shock?

A

hypotension and mental status

93
Q

How many minutes of direct pressure does an arterial bleeding require to form a clot?

A

5 or more minutes

94
Q

How long does TXA need to used within trauma?

A

Within 3 hours

95
Q

Do beta bloackers and calcium channel blockers, antidysrhythmic drugs interefere with the body’s ability to compensate for shock?

A

yes

96
Q

What is hematuria?

A

blood in the urine

97
Q

Coffee ground emesis is a sign of what type of bleed?

A

upper GI bleed

98
Q

In the case of an animal bite, what should you do?

A

dry sterile dressings, rapid transport

99
Q

What are some key findings of brain injury?

A

posturing, hypotension or hypertension, abnormal pupils

100
Q

Ominous signs of cerebral herniation?

A

hypertension (widening pressures), bradycardia, cushings, posturing

101
Q

anterior cord syndrome

A

flexion injuries or fractures that displaces bony fragnents into the anterior portion of the spinal cord; loss of pain, temperature and touch perception

102
Q

Brown sequard syndrome

A

penetrating trauma; half dissection of the spinal cord, damage to all spinal tracts involved on that same side

103
Q

central cord syndrome

A

hyper extension injuries to cervical area that damage the dorsal column; hemorrage and edema

CAL-Jac Paramedic Program (8 decks)

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