TRAINING BULLETINS Flashcards
One of the FDNY’s many responsibilities is responding to various utility emergencies. Which characteristic about natural gas is inaccurate?
A) Natural gas is lighter than air.
B) It has an explosive range of 5-15%.
C) It has an ignition temperature of 1263 degrees Fahrenheit.
D) Natural gas is odorless, colorless, non toxic and is an asphyxiant.
C) It has an ignition temperature of 1263 degrees. (Incorrect)
*It’s ignition temperature is 1163 degrees Fahrenheit.
(TB Emergencies 2)
Members are in the kitchen discussing operations at natural gas emergencies. The members are a little rusty on the subject because they only made one correct point. Which one is correct?
A) Natural gas is delivered to NYC via pipeline at over 1400 psi.
B) Natural gas is regulated down to 300 psi for transmission gas mains.
C) Distribution gas mains run under streets and deliver either high pressure (40 psi), medium pressure (5-20 psi), or low pressure gas (1/2 psi).
D) High and medium pressure gas is regulated down to 1/2 psi before passing through a customer’s meter.
B) Natural gas is regulated down to 300 psi for transmission to gas mains. (Correct) (TB Emergencies 2)
- Gas delivered to NYC at approx 700-1400 psi
- High pressure 60 psi
Medium pressure 3-15 psi
Low pressure 1/4 psi - High and medium pressure gas is regulated down to 1/4 psi before entering customer meters.
Members of your company are operating at a utility gas emergency and take the following actions. Which action is not correct?
A) Upon encountering a white curb valve the member realizes that this valve is plastic and can be easily broken so he closes it gently.
B) Upon encountering an older curb valve the member is required to turn the valve multiple times to close. He knows it may take 7 1/2 to 15 full turns to close but should not turn the valve more than 15 times.
C) To clear an area inside of a structure of leaking gas, the Irons firefighter decides to use the department fan.
D) The Can firefighter decides to stuff a rag in the break of a low pressure gas pipe to stop or greatly diminish the leak.
C) To clear an area inside of a structure of leaking gas, the Irons firefighter decides to use the department fan. (Incorrect) (TB Emergencies 2)
- Department fans are not intrinsically safe and shall not be used during gas leaks.
- Stuffing rags in low pressure gas piping is ok, this won’t work on high pressure pipes.
Utility companies such as Con Edison and Natural Grid may require the FDNY to pull manholes and various other tasks at natural gas emergencies. Of the choices below, which one is correct?
A) Electric sewer manholes can be removed by FDNY at the request of a utility company representative or with approval of a chief officer on scene.
B) Sewer manhole covers can be removed by FDNY with approval of a chief officer on scene.
C) Round manhole covers can be removed by two firefighters utilizing manhole hooks. Each battalion vehicle carries a manhole hook for this purpose.
D) It is safe for members to pull square or rectangular manhole covers.
B) Sewer manhole covers can be removed by FDNY with approval of a chief officer on scene. (Correct) (TB Emergencies 2)
- Sewer manhole covers = may be removed with chiefs OK
Electric manhole covers = need utility AND chief OK
2 firefighters should pull manhole
BC vehicles carry 2 manhole hooks
Do not pull square/rectangular covers
Which statement about the Altair digital gas meter is incorrect?
A) The normal oxygen reading of the Altair is 23.0%
B) The indoor action level is 10% LEL (alarm will sound)
C) The outdoor action level is 20% LEL (a diff. alarm will sound)
D) 3 crosses under the O2 icon indicated the oxygen level is above 25%.
A) The normal oxygen reading of the Altair is 23.0% (Incorrect) (TB Emergencies 3)
- Crosses under the comb/ex icon indicates the atmosphere is
above 100% LEL (explosive environment) DO NOT OPERATE
except for life saving purposes. - Normal oxygen reading = 20.8%
Low oxygen alarm = 19.5%
High alarm = 23.0% - Indoor action lvl = 10% LEL
Outdoor action lvl = 20% LEL
The high rise nozzle is a relatively new piece of equipment utilized by the FDNY and can be implemented by the IC as an alternative strategy at a high rise fire. Which statement regarding the HRN is wrong?
A) It is the responsibility if the 4th due engine to bring the HRN to the Incident command post.
B) Once a window is chosen, remove impediments such as child gates and window bars but leave the window itself intact.
C) A shutoff should be placed two lengths back from the HRN. When repositioning the nozzle have this shutoff closed, them open the nozzle to bleed the line for easier movement.
D) A 1 1/8” MST is attached to the outlet of the HRN. The HRN is checked weekly during MUD and before use.
C) A shutoff should be placed two lengths back from the HRN. When repositioning the nozzle have this shutoff closed, them open the nozzle to bleed the line for easier movement. (Incorrect) (TB Tools 7)
- A shutoff should be placed one length back from the nozzle.
- It is not necessary to remove the window when implementing the
HRN. - If 4th due engine has no HRN the officer will contact dispatch to
learn the identity of the unit carrying it.
At a NFP MD fire that has spread to the cockloft, the Chief of battalion 33 has ordered the cockloft nozzle to be put into operation. This know nothing chief was only correct in one order he gave. Which order was correct?
A) The cockloft nozzle was used as the primary attack line.
B) The chief ordered the proby to collect the nozzle from his
battalion vehicle.
C) He told the members that the distance between the top of the ceiling joists to the bottom of the roof joists must be at least 4’ to enable use of the cockloft nozzle.
D) He asserted that a hole in the ceiling approx 3’ x 3’ was sufficient
enough for the nozzle to fit into and operate into the cockloft.
D) He asserted that a hole in the ceiling approx 3’ x 3’ was sufficient
enough for the nozzle to fit into and operate into the cockloft.
(Correct) (TB Tools 7)
- Cockloft nozzle NEVER used as primary attack line.
- Carried by all DIVISION vehicles
- Preferred location = immediately inside the apartment door.
- Top of ceiling joist to bottom of roof joist must be a minimum of 4”
to enable operation.
Lt. Curly is working the 9x6 tour in E-44. He is going over confined space operations and what is considered safe atmospheric conditions in regards to confined spaces. All of the following are considered safe atmospheric conditions with the exception of which choice?
A) Oxygen concentration between 19.5% and 23.5%
B) Flammable range not over 1% of the LEL.
C) Toxicity not over 35 ppm of carbon monoxide.
D) Toxicity not over 10 ppm of hydrogen sulfide.
B) Flammable range not over 1% of the LEL. (Incorrect)
*Not over 10% of LEL. This is our indoor action level. Our action levels are all very low. 10% of LEL is NOT EXPLOSIVE yet at 100% of LEL we have reached the explosive range. Don’t confuse this with percentage of gas in the air.
Which statement does not demonstrate proper technique for use of the high rise nozzle?
A) Supplied by a 2 1/2” hose line, the HRN will produce flows of 200-225 gpm at 50 psi nozzle pressure with water flowing.
B) Once the proper window is chosen and opened, impediments such as window bars and child gates will have to be removed. In most cases it is not necessary to remove the window to operate the nozzle.
C) When repositioning of the HRN is required, the supply line should be shut down at the shutoff located 1 length back and the nozzle operated to bleed the line.
D) Once in position the officer supervising the nozzle operation will order water started and nozzle to be operated.
D) Once in position the officer supervising the nozzle operation will order water started and nozzle to be operated. (Incorrect)
*The nozzle will not be operated until the IC has given approval.
(Tools data sheet 17 HRN 5.14)
Ladder 33 responds to a gas leak in apartment 3D in a 6 story “H” type multiple dwelling. After finding the source to be the stove in the apartment they pull it from the wall to find no gas shutoff on the flexible metal tubing. The next point to shut off the gas to the stove would be?
A) Master meter
B) Head of service valve
C) Exterior gas riser valve
D) Curb valve
A) Master meter
*Work your way from inside the building out. The idea is to shut it down, disrupting service to the LEAST amount of people. In this situation you would shut individual meters if available. If not you would have to shut the master meter.
(TB Emergencies 2)
Members in a study group are reviewing the Akron New Yorker and make a series of points. Which point is incorrect?
A) The range of elevation is from 90 degrees above the horizontal to 15 degrees below the horizontal.
B) The safety stoplock and release pin prevents lowering the elevation below 30 degrees above the horizontal unless the release pin is pulled.
C) When two hoses are being used to supply the two 3” female swivels, they should be brought straight back at a distance of 15 feet from the Siamese, parallel to each other before they are turned or bent in any way.
D) The max pressure the device should be subjected to is 200 psi.
B) The safety stoplock and release pin prevents lowering the elevation below 30 degrees above the horizontal unless the release pin is pulled. (Incorrect)
*This will prevent lowering the elevation 35 degrees below the horizontal.
When used in portable ground base unit should not be operated at more than 800 gpm.
Stacked tips “10-75”
1 1/4” = no more than 100 psi
1 1/2” = no more than 70 psi
2” = no more than 50 psi
If flats on spikes in portable ground base exceed 1/16” in diameter they must be sharpened or replaced.
(TB Tools 17 Akron New Yorker)
The TIF gas detector is a tool we use in the field almost everyday. Which statement about this tool is incorrect?
A) It can detect a gas source as low as 5 ppm.
B) The initial charge of this device should be 24 hours. All subsequent charged should be between 10 and 15 hours.
C) A fully charged battery supplies approximately 4 hours of continuous use.
D) Mask service unit handles distribution and repairs of this device.
B) The initial charge of this device should be 24 hours. All subsequent charged should be between 10 and 15 hours. (INCORRECT)
*Initial charge 24 hrs. Subsequent charges 12-16 hrs.
(TB Tools 29)
Which choice describes incorrectly when controlling nozzles are tested in the FDNY?
A) Annually in Spring with hose test.
B) Newly issued to a unit.
C) Repaired and returned to a unit.
D) When deemed necessary by Division commander.
A) Annually in Spring with hose test. (Incorrect)
*Annually in AUGUST with hose test.
(TB Tools 7)
You are a Lt. assigned 4th due Engine company on the transmission of a 10-77. You should know that which of the following statements are correct?
- If your company has been assigned a HRN, it is your responsibility to bring that nozzle to the command post.
- If your company has not been assigned a HRN, it is your responsibility to inform the dispatcher to special call a unit that has a HRN.
- If you are supervising a HRN operation, you must initiate contact via handle talkie with the assigned spotter on outside of building to ensure effective use of the stream.
- If you are supervising a HRN operation, you shall ensure the supply line is attached to the nozzle before the nozzle is slid out the window, and that a shutoff is placed in line two lengths back from nozzle.
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1, 2 & 4
D) 2, 3 & 4
A) 1 & 3 are correct.
Choice 2 = dispatch will tell you the identity of the unit that is equipped with the HRN.
Choice 4 = shutoff is placed in line ONE LENGTH back from nozzle.
Engine 100 is drilling with their new proby on the multiverse New Yorker. Which point made concerning the multiversal is not correct?
A) The elevation control wheel can be used to raise and lower the elevation of the nozzle. The range of elevation is 15 degrees below the horizontal to 90 degrees above the horizontal.
B) The safety stoplock and release pin prevents lowering the elevation below 35 degrees. The pin should be pulled before 35 degrees.
C) Do not release the elevation stop and operate below that point (35 degrees) unless the unit is secured in the truck mount or restrained by ropes.
D) No operation below the horizontal shall be attempted unless the unit is secured in the truck mount or secured by ropes.
D) No operation below the horizontal shall be attempted unless the unit is secured in the truck mount or secured by ropes. (Incorrect)
*No operation below the horizontal shall be attempted unless the unit is secured in the truck mount period.
(TB Tools 17 section 2)
To prevent backward movement of the multiversal nozzle, it must be secured in position by means of a utility rope. Which step was performed incorrectly while securing the multiversal nozzle?
A) Place the middle of the utility rope on top of the Siamese, over the identification plate.
B) Bring the 2 sides of the rope up over the Siamese and each side forward to the large leg of the ground base on each side of the front leg. Make a half hitch on each of these 2 legs.
C) If possible, do not connect the hose lines to the Siamese before tying the required knots, as this could slightly increase the time required to tie the knots.
D) The safety chain alone should never be relied on to secure this appliance. A rope is needed.
C) If possible, do not connect the hose lines to the Siamese before tying the required knots, as this could slightly increase the time required to tie the knots. (Incorrect)
*NOT (IF POSSIBLE) Do not do this period.
(TB Tools 17 3.3.5)
While operating at a taxpayer fire the multiversal nozzle is ordered into operation by the IC. Engine 100 was only correct in which point below regarding the supply and operation of the multiversal nozzle?
A) E-100 used two lines to supply the nozzle. Each line was brought straight back at least 10 feet before any bends or turns were taken.
B) E-100 supplied the nozzle with 2 1/2” hose lines and realized that upper end flows may not be attainable.
C) At one point the officer of E-100 called for more pressure. The gauge on the nozzle showed 210 psi. The ECC informed the officer of E-100 that 825 gpm were flowing.
D) Since the supply lines were long a 2 way gate was inserted 2 lengths from the nozzle. A member was positioned at the gate to assure proper pressure was maintained.
B) E-100 supplied the nozzle with 2 1/2” hose lines and realized that upper end flows may not be attainable.
A - 15 feet straight back before turns are made.
C - 200 psi maximum / 800 gpm
D - a single gate one length back from the nozzle
(TB Tools 17 3.4 Engine Ops ch 11)
You are a Lt. at a multiple alarm cockloft fire in a large H-type building. The Deputy Chief orders your company to retrieve the cockloft nozzle and put it into operation on the top floor. What do you need to know about this tool to effectively utilize it?
A) It can be found stored on one Engime company in each battalion.
B) It has a very large discharge rate or nearly 300 gpm due to the two nozzle tips.
C) It has a horizontal reach of the stream in excess of 60 feet.
D) A hole approximately 3’ x 3’ in the ceiling will provide space for the nozzle to fit, and the preferred location for this is underneath the main body of fire.
C) It has a horizontal reach of the stream in excess of 60 feet.
A - Stored in each Division vehicle
B - Discharge rate of nearly 125 gpm
D - Preferred location is in hallway immediately outside the apartment.
(TB Tools 7 Data Sheet 18)
Lt. Smith was explaining the TIF 8800 Combustible Gas Detector to the new proby and he made the following statements. Which of the following is incorrect?
A) Ladder companies and Battalions carry this detector.
B) A ticking signal that increases in frequency indicates the presence of a gas source.
C) The readout will indicate the amount of gas detected in parts per million (ppm).
D) The detector must be stored in its carrying case when not in use to prevent damage.
C) The readout will indicate the amount of gas detected in parts per million (ppm) (Incorrect).
*The TIF can detect a gas source but does not give a readout.
(TB Tools 29 1,5)
While operating at an alarm for an odor of natural gas Ladder 139 used the TIF 8800. Which choice shows an incorrect understanding of this tool?
A) After a 30 second warmup, a ticking sound will be heard if it’s working correctly.
B) A source as low as 5 ppm can be detected.
C) Usually it is not necessary to adjust the detector’s sensitivity.
D) At the point of the leak the tick rate will increase until a steady beeping sound is heard.
D) At the point of the leak the tick rate will increase until a steady beeping sound is heard. (Incorrect)
*The tick rate increases until a SIREN sound is heard.
(TB Tools 29 3,4)
Which is the correct point about the care and maintenance of the TIF 8800?
A) Initial charge time is 24 hours.
B) Subsequent charging time is 4-6 hours.
C) If defective it should be returned to the Meter Room at Haz-mat Operations with an RT-2.
D) The TIF 8800 should be used to detect carbon monoxide.
A) Initial charge time is 24 hours.
B - Subsequent charge time is 12-16 hrs.
C - Return to MSU if defective
D - Should not be used for CO
(TB Tools 29 2,3,5)
A new Lt. was conducting a drill on the “can”. The firefighters asked questions about his lecture. The Lt. was correct in which response?
A) If a can is found in the field with no Schrader connection, it must be put out of service with an RT-2 and sent to Tech Services.
B) The can shall be inspected after each use and at the beginning of each tour.
C) If the hydrostatic test date stamped on the can is greater than 5 years old, the can must be placed Out of Service.
D) A can left inside of a fire area can’t BLEVE, as it does not contain flammable liquid.
C) If the hydrostatic test date stamped on the can is greater than 5 years old, the can must be placed Out of Service.
(TB Tools 1)
A - Use Schrader connection/adapter
B - Extinguisher is inspected DAILY.
D - An extinguisher left inside a fire area can create a bomb.
The regulated device used to pressurize an extinguisher should never be set higher than how many PSI?
A) 100
B) 125
C) 150
D) 175
B) 125
TB Tools 1
Routine maintenance and servicing of the KO curtain must be understood by a covering Lt. aspiring to work in a ladder company. Which choice below is listed correctly?
A) It shall be inspected daily and after each use.
B) After deployment at an operation, and having it secured by the IC afterwards, the officer will prepare a report to the Chief of Operations detailing the use and any damage sustained.
C) Contact R & D for a replacement device after use at an operation.
D) Limit drilling with the device to weekly MUD to avoid unnecessary damage.
B) After deployment at an operation, and having it secured by the IC afterwards, the officer will prepare a report to the Chief of Operations detailing the use and any damage sustained.
(TB Tools 2)
A - KO inspected WEEKLY during MUD and after use.
C - DIVISION has replacement KO
D - NEVER DRILL WITH KO, use training curtain instead.
Deployments of the KO curtain have shown significant flame reduction and __________________________?
A) An immediate 50% decrease in temperatures, but an increase in the smoke condition produced by the fire.
B) An eventual 50% decrease in temperatures, with a decrease in the smoke condition produced by the fire.
C) An immediate 50% decrease in temperatures, with a decrease in the smoke condition produced by the fire.
D) An immediate 25% decrease in temperatures! but an increase in the smoke condition produced by the fire.
A) An immediate 50% decrease in temperatures, but an increase in the smoke condition produced by the fire.
(TB Tools 2)
The KO training curtain is for training purposes only. When being transported on the apparatus for any reason, the company officer make sure it is in a secure location and not used at any fire operations. How can a company officer differentiate a KO training curtain from the actual KO curtain?
A) The Training Curtain is black nylon with the top 2 feet painted white with the words “TRAINING” stenciled in fluorescent paint.
B) The Training Curtain is black vinyl with yellow stripes forming an “X”
C) The Training Curtain is red vinyl with silver stripes forming an “X”
D) The Training Curtain is red Hot-Stop 1500 L with yellow stripes forming an “X”
B) The Training Curtain is black vinyl with yellow stripes forming an “X”
(TB Tools 2)
A - Training curtain carry bag is black nylon with the top 2 feet painted white with the words “TRAINING” stenciled in fluorescent paint.
D - Actual KO curtain is Hot-Stop 1500 L with yellow stripes forming an “X”
When discussing the fire window blanket with members while supervising a drill, in which statement was a battalion chief correct?
A) The blanket is kept in a red vinyl carrying bag.
B) It is brought to the floor above the fire, two floors above, or to the roof if fire is on the top floor. If deployed from two floors above, utility ropes must be secured to the top straps to gain the necessary length.
C) The IC must make a handie talkie transmission to all units just after the blanket is put into place, and units should report back any adverse conditions caused by the blanket.
D) The top of the blanket is identified by the words “Top” stenciled on the top straps and the blanket.
D) The top of the blanket is identified by the words “Top” stenciled on the top straps and the blanket.
(TB Tools 3)
A - Carrying bag is WHITE VINYL.
B - Straps are long enough to reach two floors below. You DO NOT need to gain length by attaching utility ropes.
C - IC must make HT announcement BEFORE blanket is put into place.
You are a new captain assigned to an engine company for a very windy day tour. On arrival at a 10-77 fire, with fire being blown back into two adjoining windows, you report in to the command post. The deputy orders you to deploy the fire window blanket, which was brought to the floor above by a Squad company. You would be correct to answer him how?
A) “This is not my blanket and I don’t know how to do it”
B) “I’ll try but I don’t think I can have my members cover both windows as the blanket is not large enough”
C) “No can do Chief! I know we can cover both windows but the blanket will probably blow around due to this high wind!”
D) “Can do Chief! I’ll have one of my members be a spotter from the exterior with your binoculars, and I’ll send two members to the floor below to secure the lower straps”
D) “Can do Chief! I’ll have one of my members be a spotter from the exterior with your binoculars, and I’ll send two members to the floor below to secure the lower straps”
(TB Tools 3)
A - ANY unit or units may be used to deploy the blanket.
B - Blanket IS LARGE ENOUGH for 2 windows.
C - Blanket is WEIGHTED AT BOTTOM to prevent being blown around.
A probationary firefighter asked a new Lt. some questions regarding the use of portable power generators. The Lt. Was correct in which response?
A) All portable lights shall be operated for 5 minutes weekly during generator test to test lights and generator under load.
B) When using a portable generator to power exhaust fans, small tools or lights, the electric cord should be 50 feet or less.
C) Portable generators shall be operated for 10 minutes weekly.
D) Oil in the crankcase should be changed after 50 hours of use by firefighters at the completion of the weekly test.
A) All portable lights shall be operated for 5 minutes weekly during generator test to test lights and generator under load.
(TB Tools 4)
B - Cord should be 50 feet or less FOR FANS ONLY (not small tools or lights)
C - Portable generators operated for FIFTEEN (15) min weekly.
D - TECH SERVICES changes oil
Which is a correct statement concerning apparatus mounted generators?
A) Most ladder company apparatus are equipped with onboard generators.
B) A ladder company with a 2000 or older apparatus may encounter problems powering exhaust fans when the onboard electric cord reel is greater than 50 feet.
C) All repairs to onboard and portable generators shall be performed by Fleet Services.
D) Onboard generators shall be checked at the start of each tour.
B) A ladder company with a 2000 or older apparatus may encounter problems powering exhaust fans when the onboard electric cord reel is greater than 50 feet.
(TB Tools 4)
A - ALL ladder company apparatus have onboard generators.
C - Repairs to onboard and portable generators shall be performed by TECH SERVICES.
D - Onboard generators checked WEEKLY DURING MUD.
General safety precautions regarding the operation of generators and their related equipment are incorrectly stated in which choice?
A) Do not operate generators in a confined space where insufficient oxygen or carbon monoxide may exist.
B) Do not use electrical equipment in explosive atmospheres.
C) Do not overload generators beyond their rated capacity so as not to damage the tools being used.
D) Do not use electrical equiptment in the presence of water.
D) Do not use electrical equiptment in the presence of water. (Incorrect)
(TB Tools 4)
*Can use generators in up to THREE (3) FEET OF WATER.
When operations using a Honda portable generator require maximum power output, it’s use should be limited to?
A) 20 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 45 minutes
D) One hour
B) 30 minutes
TB Tools 4 - Data Sheet 1 - Sec 4.4
Which choice describes incorrectly when controlling nozzles are tested in the FDNY?
A) Annually in Spring with the hose test.
B) Newly issued to a unit
C) Repaired and returned to a unit
D) When deemed necessary by Division Commander
A) Annually in Spring with the hose test. (Incorrect)
(TB Tools 7)
*Annually in AUGUST with the hose test
You are a Lt. assigned 4th due engine company on the transmission of a 10-77. You should know which of the following statements is correct?
- If your company has been assigned a high rise nozzle, it is your responsibility to bring that nozzle to the command post.
- If your company has not been assigned a high rise nozzle, it is your responsibility to inform the dispatcher to special call a unit that has a high rise nozzle.
- If you are supervising high rise nozzle operations, you must initiate contact via handie talkie with the assigned spotter on the outside of the building to insure effective use of the stream.
- If you are supervising a high rise nozzle operation, you shall insure the supply line is attached to the nozzle before the nozzle is slid onto the window sill, and that a shut off is placed in lime two lengths back from the nozzle.
A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1, 2 & 4 D) 2, 3 & 4
A) 1 & 3 (CORRECT)
(TB Tools 7)
2 - The dispatcher will inform you of the identity of the company who has the HRN
4 - Shut off should be places ONE (1) length back from nozzle.
You are a Lt. at a multiple alarm cockloft fire in a large H-type building. The DC orders your company to retrieve the cockloft nozzle and put it into operation on the top floor. What do you need to know about this tool to effectively utilize it?
A) It can be found stored on one Engine company in each battalion.
B) It has a very large discharge rate of nearly 300 gpm due to the two nozzle tips.
C) It has a horizontal reach of the stream in excess of 60 feet.
D) A hole approximately 3’ x 3’ in the ceiling will provide space for the nozzle to fit, and the preferred location for this is underneath the main body of fire.
C) It has a horizontal reach of the stream in excess of 60 feet.
(TB Tools 7)
A - Cockloft nozzle is stored in EACH DIVISION VEHICLE. (The HRN is stored on one Engine company in each Battalion)
B - It has a discharge rate of ONE HUNDRED TWENTY FIVE (125) GPM due to the two nozzle tips.
D - Preferred location is IMMEDIATELY INSIDE THE APARTMENT DOOR. This is to provide members with a degree of protection provided by the public hallway.
The rabbit tools a hydraulically operated FE tool consisting of a hand pump, relief valve, high pressure hose, and a pry bar. This tool is limited to certain uses and has some limitations. Which point below correctly lists this tools used and limitations?
A) The pump is designed to be operated in the horizontal position, but may be used vertically if the hose is facing down.
B) Hold the jaws with a gloved hand, set the control lever to pressure and operate pump. The door should open in 4 to 5 pumps of the handle.
C) The tool is designed for use on doors that open inward. It has also been used successfully on sliding elevator doors and as an auto extrication tool.
D) Maintain control of the door at all times. Members should only stand in front of the lock while the operation is in progress only if absolutely necessary.
A) The pump is designed to be operated in the horizontal position, but may be used vertically if the hose is facing down.
(TB Tools 21)
B - 3 to 4 pumps
C - Not to be used as an auto extrication tool
D - Members should not be in front of lock for any reason
The portable power saw comes equipped with a variety of cutting blades. High engine speed and the availability of special blades enable to operator to cut almost any material encountered in fire and emergency operations. Which choice is incorrect concerning the different blades and their capabilities?
A) Carbide tips will cut through gravel and tar covered roofs, wood flooring, light sheet metal and similar material such as metal security doors.
B) Aluminum oxide blades (abrasive discs) will cut through variouse types of steel, auto bodies, and metal window bars.
C) Silicon carbide blades (abrasive discs) will cut through concrete and other masonry materials.
D) The carbide tip blade shall not be used on auto bodies, metal window hard and case hardened locks.
A) Carbide tips will cut through gravel and tar covered roofs, wood flooring, light sheet metal and similar material such as metal security doors. (Incorrect)
(TB Tools 9, 2.2)
*Carbide tip CANNOT cut through metal security doors.
The proby in Ladder 153 was checking the saws at the start of the 9x6 tour and should know which of the following blades should be placed out of service and which saw should be placed out of service? (More than 1 correct)
A) The carbide tip blade had 3 tips that were missing and 4 tips that were broken.
B) The saw with the carbide tip blade continued to spin slowly when the saw was at low idle.
C) The saw with the aluminum oxide blade stopped spinning when the saw was at low idle and then stalled out.
D) The aluminum oxide blade has a small nick on the end of the blade and the circumference of the blade was 9”.
E) The center hole of the yellow blade was out of round.
B) The saw with the carbide tip blade continued to spin slowly when the saw was at low idle (OOS)
E) The center hole of the yellow blade was out of round. (OOS)
(TB Tools 9 3.3, 3.4, Data Sheet 1)
A - 7 missing is OK / 8 or more OOS
B - Spin slowly while at idle (Clutch failure OOS)
C - Blade that stops spinning and stalls (Belt too tight, can be adjusted) (If belt too loose you will experience slippage)
D - Has to be BADLY nicked / Circumference has to be 8”
Members of L-100 were drilling with their new member who just transferred across the floor. Each member made a point regarding the saw and all were correct except which one?
A) During roof or floor cutting operations, everyone in the vicinity of a saw operation shall observe, as near as possible and practical, a 20 foot diameter circle of danger.
B) All members in the immediate area of cutting operations shall wear full protective clothing. This also applies while testing the saw in or around quarters, or using the saw at drills or training. For safety, goggles must be worn or eye shields should be down.
C) Whenever possible, a team of 2 members shall perform cutting operations. These members shall be equipped with complete fire clothing, gloves, and protective goggles in place.
D) The saw shall always be shut down when unattended and when moved to distant areas such as level to level. Gunning the saw while standing by or moving to a new point of operation shall not be permitted.
A) During roof or floor cutting operations, everyone in the vicinity of a saw operation shall observe, as near as possible and practical, a 20 foot diameter circle of danger. (Incorrect)
(TB Tools 9, 4.7, 4.7.3, 4.4.1, 4.8.3)
*Circle of danger for power saw is a 20’ RADIUS (40’ Diameter)
Lt. Doyle, and experienced an outstanding truck officer was supervising roof cutting operations at a top floor fire in a five-story MD. Two saws were in operation and four members were on the roof. Which action(s) should Lt. Doyle correct?
A) While starting the cut with carbide tip the firefighter using the saw kept the saw at low speed when contacting the roof and gradually increased the engine speed as the blade cut into the roof.
B ) The same member took a boxer’s stance drawing the saw to the space between his feet which were 18” to 20” apart.
C) When the second saw was brought to the roof it was started in an area with a light smoke condition close to the point of operation. When the member started cutting he stayed outside of the cut.
D) After 30 minutes of cutting the member operating the 1st saw to the roof needed to refuel. The saw was shut down, tilted away from the engine, and extreme caution was used.
A) While starting the cut with carbide tip the firefighter using the saw kept the saw at low speed when contacting the roof and gradually increased the engine speed as the blade cut into the roof. (Incorrect)
C) When the second saw was brought to the roof it was started in an area with a light smoke condition close to the point of operation. When the member started cutting he stayed outside of the cut. (Incorrect)
(TB Tools 9, 5.7)
A - Saw enters roof at FULL RPMS for carbide tip blade.
C - Start the saw in AN AREA FREE OF SMOKE and close to the point of operation.
Two roof firefighters were operating on the roof of an OLT during an all hands for a fire on the top floor. These members cut a hole over the fire room and pushed down the ceiling after the cut was opened. After this hole was cut one of the roof firefighters noticed a piece of plywood covering a broken window on the bulkhead. He called the other firefighter with the saw to come over and cut this plywood covering the window to provide additional ventilation. The firefighter with the saw lifted the saw to a vertical position and cut the plywood without incident. You should ____________ with the firefighters actions?
A) Agree
B) Disagree
B) Disagree
(TB Tools 9, section 4.14.1)
*Use saw in the horizontal position. You must be ordered or supervised by an Officer if operating the saw vertically.
Whether the power saw is being used at a cutting operation during training, or being tested, all members in the immediate area of the saw in operation shall wear full protective clothing, including goggles. In lieu of goggles, eye shields must be in the down position. “Immediate Area” in this section is defined as __________ feet.
A) 10
B) 30
C) 40
D) 20
D) 20’
TB Tools 9, 7.4
Units were discussing the use of the power saw at multi unit drill. Which point made by members should be corrected by the officer?
A) Generally the beams run the short side of the building, usually from side to side and 16” on center. The roof boards are nailed to the beams and run perpendicular to them, usually from front to rear.
B) If excessive resistance to the saw is encountered, the cut may be on the beam. Sparks are a good indication that the cut is on a beam. Move the saw to the outside of the cut, permitting a cut clear of the beam and making the section easier to move.
C) If resistance is met when cutting perpendicular to the roof beams, lift the saw, continue to cut but avoid a deep cut into the beams.
D) Fresh smoke coming from the area of the saw blade usually indicates too deep a cut through heavy material. When this occurs, remove the saw from the cut, rev up the saw to maximum RPM and begin a slightly shallower cut.
B) If excessive resistance to the saw is encountered, the cut may be on the beam. Sparks are a good indication that the cut is on a beam. Move the saw to the outside of the cut, permitting a cut clear of the beam and making the section easier to move. (Incorrect)
(TB Tools 9, 6.1.5)
*Move the saw to the INSIDE OF THE CUT
The size and location of the opening of a cut will depend on fire conditions. A suggested method is to make an expandable coffin cut. When making this cut there are a total of 7 cuts that are made and there is a proper sequence that should be followed. When following this sequence the numbers 7,8, and 9 will be formed at some point during the cut. A sharp Lt. would know that the 6’ cut would be cut # _________, the knockout cut would be cut # _______ and after the first 5 cuts are made your cut would look like the 7,8 or 9?
A) Cut 2 / Cut 3 / #7
B) Cut 4 / Cut 5 / #8
C) Cut 3 / Cut 2 / #9
D) Cut 1 / Cut 7 / #9
C) Cut 3 / Cut 2 / #9
(TB Tools 9, 6.1.10)
Cut #1 = 3’ Cut #2 = Knockout Cut
Cut #3 = 6’ Cuts #4 #5 #6 #7 = 3’ each
“7-9-8”
According to Tools 9 when examining the cockloft what is the preferable method?
A) Cutting triangular holes in the roof (the size of the saw blade)
B) Pulling ceilings from below.
C) Opening the returns of a skylight or scuttle.
D) Opening the cornice.
B) Pulling ceilings from below.
(TB Tools 9, 6.2.1)
Order of preference:
- Pull ceilings
- Cut holes in roof
- Open returns
Regarding the maintenance of the power saw, a belt adjustment should be made at all of the following times except?
A) Weekly during MUD
B) After every cutting operation.
C) When the saw is returned from being repaired.
D) When a new belt is installed.
C) When the saw is returned from being repaired.
TB Tools 9, 3.1 Appendix A 6.4
The maxi force air bag system is a valuable tool in rescue and extrication operations. When inflated with air, they are designed to lift and move heavy loads. They are relatively simple to operate, requiring only an inch of space for insertion. Which is the only correct point below about the air bags?
A) They are excellent in lifting odd shaped objects and cylindrical objects. Stabilize and shore the load after placing the air bags into position. Always exercise care to avoid injury in the event of a drop or load shift.
B) If possible, have the bag connected prior to placing it under or between loads to minimize the operators exposure to the load area and to eliminate the possibility of e operator placing the bag with the air inlet under the load.
C) Never stack more than two bags on top of each other and always place the smaller bag on top of the larger one. When stacking bags, generally inflate the bottom bag first. The bags should only be inflated to 1/2 to 3/4 of their rated height capacity.
D) Remember that when stacking bags you can add together the tonnage of the two bags to get the total lifting weight. Avoid inflating bags against sharp objects or on a surface heated to over 220 degrees.
C) Never stack more than two bags on top of each other and always place the smaller bag on top of the larger one. When stacking bags, generally inflate the bottom bag first. The bags should only be inflated to 1/2 to 3/4 of their rated height capacity.
(TB Tools 20 4.3 Note, 3.2.7 Note)
A - Stabilize and shore BEFORE placing air bags into position.
B - ALWAYS have the bag connected prior to placing it under a load.
D - CANNOT add tonnage together
During a drill the proby pulled out the 30 ton air bag which can lift up to 30 tons with a maximum lifting height of 10”. The members should instruct the proby that this 30 ton bag can lift 30 tons _____. They should further instruct him that the 30 ton bag can lift how many tons 10”?
A) 1” / 15 tons
B) 8” / 30 tons
C) 5” / 10 tons
D) 10” / 30 tons
A) 1” / 15 tons
TB Tools 20 6.9.6
Which is an incorrect statement about glow sticks used by the FDNY?
A) When activated, glow sticks provide up to 8 hours of illumination.
B) Each unit shall carry at least 10 glow sticks on their apparatus.
C) When required, units shall requisition glow sticks in packs of 5 from tech services.
D) Glow sticks require no electricity and present no danger of sparking.
A) When activated, glow sticks provide up to 8 hours of illumination (INCORRECT)
(TB Tools 30)
*Glow sticks provide up to TWELVE (12) hours of illumination.
Glow sticks can be an effective source of light in an emergency situation. Which is the correct point about this new tool?
A) Although they can tolerate high pressure, they are not waterproof.
B) The light is created when an internal glass capsule is broken, causing a chemical reaction.
C) The glow stick should not be shaken unless the temperature is below 32 degrees Fahrenheit.
D) The “triple A” battery needs to be replaced semi annually.
B) The light is created when an internal glass capsule is broken, causing a chemical reaction.
(TB Tools 30)
A - Glow sticks ARE WATERPROOF.
C - Glow stick SHOULD BE shaken.
D - Batteries ARE NOT REQUIRED to operate glow sticks
Sound powered telephones (SPT) have been a tool in the FDNY arsenal for many years and recently have been emphasized as a viable option for communication. Which is an incorrect statement made during the drill?
A) FDNY sound powered telephone equipment is used primarily in the NYC Transit system in conjunction with installed hard wired systems.
B) Sound powered telephones can be used as a standalone system in high rise buildings.
C) When the temperature is below 0 degrees Celsius, sound powered phones may not perform efficiently outdoors.
D) All battalions have been issued sound powered telephones.
C) When the temperature is below 0 degrees Celsius, sound powered phones may not perform efficiently outdoors. (INCORRECT)
(TB Tools 31)
*SPT NOT effected by temperature or humidity.
You are the Lt. of E-49, a special called engine to an all hands fire in a below grade subway station. Upon arrival the Deputy Chief orders you to establish a communications link with the operations chief on the mezzanine level utilizing sound powered telephones which are not carried by your apparatus. You know that sound powered telephones are carried by all but which of the following units?
A) All Battalions
B) All Divisions
C) High Rise units 1 & 2
D) Field Communications Unit
B) All Divisions (Do NOT carry sound powered telephones)
TB Tools 31
Which two are incorrectly included on the equipment list for the waterproof sound powered telephone box?
A) 2 headsets
B) 1 screwdriver
C) Two 1620 keys
D) 2 survivor flashlights
E) T-handle subway key
F) 1 handset
D) 2 survivor flashlights (INCORRECT)
F) 1 handset (INCORRECT)
(TB Tools 31)
- Also included on the equipment list:
- 2 amplifiers
- “Y” connector
- 2 jumper cords
- 4 glow sticks
- laminated instruction sheet
Sound powered telephones may be used with either handsets or headsets. If both are available for use members should choose ____________.
A) Handsets because they have less background noise than headsets.
B) Headsets because they allow for hands free use.
C) Handsets because they have less interference.
D) Headsets because they function like a standard telephone.
B) Headsets because they allow for hands free use.
TB Tools 31
Lt. Smith was reviewing sound powered telephone operations during drill. He was correct in all his statements except which one?
A) Specific members assigned to maintain and monitor the SPT link shall be paired with another member monitoring handie talkie communications.
B) The headset will buzz when communications are being initiated.
C) The headset and amplifier are connected to the wire after the wire is stretched to the end point.
D) When transmitting messages, the mouthpiece should be close to the speaker’s face.
B) The headset will buzz when communications are being initiated. (INCORRECT)
(TB Tools 31)
*Headset DOES NOT make noise when indicating transmission.
In preparation for an upcoming large scale exercise members of L-171 were reviewing the use of sound powered telephones in NYC Transit facilities. Which was the moly correct statement made?
A) Two types of systems are installed: street to station and street to tunnel.
B) The two systems are interconnected and permit seamless communication.
C) Only above grade SPT connectors in the Transit system, are located in locked metal boxes
D) The wire reels for the under river tunnels consist of a 500 foot long wire.
A) Two types of systems are installed: street to station and street to tunnel.
(TB Tools 31)
B - Two systems are NOT INTERCONNECTED.
C - ALL SPT CONNECTORS are located in locked metal boxes.
D - Wire reels consist of 400’ FOOT LONG WIRE.
Which two are the correct statements about the locations of the sound powered telephone outlet and standpipe cabinets?
A) On a subway platform the SPT outlet is located in metal boxes inside the red standpipe cabinet.
B) If there is no SPT outlet in the standpipe outlet box, search the surrounding area for a small individual cabinet.
C) On the mezzanine level the standpipe cabinet is identified by a sign showing a white hose on a red background.
D) On the platform level the standpipe outlet will only be located on a column.
B) If there is no SPT outlet in the standpipe outlet box, search the surrounding area for a small individual cabinet.
C) On the mezzanine level the standpipe cabinet is identified by a sign showing a white hose on a red background.
(TB Tools 31)
A - On platform level the SPT outlet is located in a RED METAL BOX inside of the STAINLESS STEEL STANDPIPE CABINET.
D - On platform level, standpipe outlet MAY BE located on a column.
Where is the SPT connector typically located in a “street to tunnel” system?
A) Track level at entrance to the tunnel.
B) Track level at emergency exit closest to tunnel exits
C) Street level at Siamese of closest subway station
D) Street level at Siamese closest to the emergency exits
D) Street level at Siamese closest to the emergency exits (on both sides)
(TB Tools 31)
During a familiarization drill in an under river tunnel FF Smith, who is studying for Lieutenant, made the following statements. Which one is incorrect?
A) In under river tubes the SPT connectors are found at the standpipe outlets.
B) The SPT connector on the platform level may require a subway exit key and/or the 1620 key to open.
C) The SPT system from the nearby station will usually have no connection to the SPT system of any under river tunnel regardless of proximity.
D) In under river tunnels the standpipe outlets are about 200 feet apart and numbered for location identification.
B) The SPT connector on the platform level may require a subway exit key and/or the 1620 key to open. (INCORRECT)
(TB Tools 31 4.1.2)
B - Subway exit key opens the stainless steel cabinet.
1620 key opens SPT connector.
The Amplifier is an integral component of the SPT system. Which is the only correct point about the amplifier?
A) The amplifier increases the volume of verbal transmissions and must be installed at specific points in the system.
B) The “push to amplify” button must be pressed whenever the user wants to hear a transmitted message.
C) The 9-volt battery in the amplifier must be changed twice a year.
D) If the amplifier does not work properly at any time immediately remove from service and contact Research and Development.
C) The 9-volt battery in the amplifier must be changed twice a year.
(TB Tools 31, 2.6)
A - The amplifier IS NOT REQUIRED to be installed in the system.
B - The member who TRANSMITS A MESSAGE presses the “push to amplify” button
D - If amplifier isn’t working, check the battery first before removing it from service and sending it out.
Positive pressure fans are carried by several units of the FDNY. Which is not a stated intended use of these positive pressure fans?
A) Keep heat and smoke from entering stairwells in fireproof MDs.
B) Pressurize the attack stairwell in a fireproof MD.
C) Ventilate a building with high CO readings
D) Pressurize the fire area in the early stages of a private dwelling fire
E) Ventilate a large structure of smoke to assist in search operations.
D) Pressurize the fire area in the early stages of a private dwelling fire. (INCORRECT)
(TB Tools 32, 2.1)
*Fans are used for controlling smoke and CO.
You are the Lt. working in L-62 and are special called to a 10-77 for use of the positive pressure fans. You know which of the following to be the only correct statement about the Tempest Power Blower PP fans carried by your unit?
A) If starting with a full fuel tank and operating at full throttle, the run time is 60-90 minutes.
B) The fan has wheels and is highly mobile; lifting requires only one member.
C) Stairwell pressurization shall not be initiated unless authorized by the fire sector supervisor, operations chief, or incident commander.
D) Although eye and ear protection is required, members shall limit their time directly in front of an operating fan.
D) Although eye and ear protection is required, members shall limit their time directly in front of an operating fan.
(TB Tools 32, section 3.2)
A - Full tank (total run time is 2-3 hours)
B - Lifting unit requires TWO (2) members. 1 member can wheel the unit.
C - ONLY THE IC can authorize PPFs
“Always” and “never” are absolute terms that are not frequently used in the FDNY books. Which of the following “always or never” statements are correct?
A) The PPF should never be transported while in operation
B) Fuel levels shall always remain full to allow for maximum operation
C) Fans shall never be refueled inside of a structure
D) An operating fan must always have an exhaust hose attached
E) All are correct
E) All are correct
(TB Tools 32, section 3.2-3.5)
*Also never leave unattended
While discussing the inspection and maintenance of the PPV fans during study group Joe Knownothing made the following statements. Which was his only correct statement?
A) Fans are inspected each tour
B) Fans must be removed from the apparatus to test the fans
C) During MUD fans shall be run at full RPM for at least 5 min.
D) When repairs are necessary the unit should call research and development to schedule a pick up.
B) Fans must be removed from the apparatus to test the fans
(TB Tools 32, 4.1)
A - Fans inspected DAILY AT START OF 9x TOUR
C - Run at full RPMs at MUD for FIVE (5) MINUTES
D - repairs made by TECH SERVICES
Chain saws can save time and energy. They are also extremely dangerous. Which of the following is an incorrect statement concerning chain saw usage?
A) The chain saw is never to be used for ventilation or overhauling of structural fires.
B) The chain saw may be utilized at emergencies or non structural fires only if the safety and operational procedures of TB Tools 24 are followed.
C) While operating the chain saw, the operator shall wear the following NFPA compliant and FDNY approved protective equipment: Long sleeve work duty shirt or bunker coat, helmet, eye protection, ear protection, saw protected gloves, bunker boots, and saw protected chaps.
D) The control person shall wear the following NFPA compliant and FDNY approved protective equipment: Long sleeve work duty shirt or bunker coat, helmet, eye protection, ear protection, saw protected gloves, bunker boots, and saw protected chaps.
A) The chain saw is never to be used for ventilation or overhauling of structural fires. (INCORRECT)
(TB TOOLS 24)
A - EXCEPT FOR PIER FIRE OPERATIONS.
C & D = Both operator and control man have to wear same PPE
There are several general rules that must be followed at all times when using the chain saw. Which choice is incorrect concerning these rules?
A) Keep the body to the left of the chain. Never straddle the saw or lean across the chain.
B) Do not over extend or it while off balance. Do not attempt cutting above chest height.
C) Maintain steady footing while gripping the saw firmly with both hands. When operating on slopes, the chain saw operator must always stand on the downhill side of the tree/log when cutting.
D) When cutting downward you will experience a pulling reaction. When the saw breaks through the wood the pull will increase. During upward cutting a pushing reaction will be felt.
C) Maintain steady footing while gripping the saw firmly with both hands. When operating on slopes, the chain saw operator must always stand on the downhill side of the tree/log when cutting. (INCORRECT)
(TB TOOLS 24)
C - *Stand on UPHILL SIDE
D - Pulldown/Pushup
Which of the following correctly describes the circle of danger for chain saw operations?
A) A circle of danger of a diameter of at least 10’ will be established before commencement of cutting. The saw operator, control person and officer will be the only personnel in this area.
B) A circle of danger of a radius of at least 10’ will be established before commencement of cutting. The saw operator, control person and officer will be the only personnel in this area.
C) A circle of danger of a diameter of at least 10’ will be established before the commencement of cutting. The saw operator and co tell person will be the only personnel in this area during cutting. Officer is to monitor conditions and relay orders received from the officer in command. If possible, the officer is positioned as to permit visual contact with the control person.
D) A circle of danger of a radius of at least 10’ will be established before the commencement of cutting. The saw operator and co tell person will be the only personnel in this area during cutting. Officer is to monitor conditions and relay orders received from the officer in command. If possible, the officer is positioned as to permit visual contact with the control person.
D) A circle of danger of a radius of at least 10’ will be established before the commencement of cutting. The saw operator and co tell person will be the only personnel in this area during cutting. Officer is to monitor conditions and relay orders received from the officer in command. If possible, the officer is positioned as to permit visual contact with the control person.
(TB TOOLS 24)
D is only correct answer (ONLY OPERATOR/CONTROL allowed in circle which has a RADIUS OF TEN FEET)
In addition to general rules, there are several operational precautions to follow when using a chain saw. Which operational precaution is stated incorrectly?
A) Cutting an object which has fallen against a structure and is now supported by it requires the object to be stabilized by lashing or shoring prior to cutting it.
B) If a branch, tree section or other object is hanging, leaning or otherwise damaged, members are to prevent access to the danger area by unauthorized persons. If practical, the object should be stabilized by lashing or shoring. Cutting it down is not to be attempted.
C) Kickback potential of the chainsaw is very dangerous. Never make plunge cuts with the tip of the blade. Never use the tip of the saw blade for cutting.
D) The most dangerous kickback zone is the upper 90 degree quadrant of the saw blade.
A) Cutting an object which has fallen against a structure and is now supported by it requires the object to be stabilized by lashing or shoring prior to cutting it. (INCORRECT)
(TB TOOLS 24)
- DO NOT cut object AGAINST A STRUCTURE.
The chainsaw can be used for a multitude of cutting operations, including cutting logs resting on one or two fulcrum points, limping, bucking or cutting trees blown uprooted. Choose the incorrect point about these operations.
A) When cutting on the overhanging end of a log (past the fulcrum point) cut straight through the log (rip cut). The log will hinge to the ground.
B) Wood on the ground or standing timber which is under tension has first to be cut on the tension side. Thereafter the cross cut must be finished on the compression side.
C) Limbing is the removing of branches from a fallen tree. Start Limbing by leaving the lower limbs to support the log off the ground. When under bucking freely hanging limbs, a pinch may result or the limb may fall, causing loss of control.
D) When cutting trees blown uprooted, start cutting from topside, working towards the stump, this will help lighten the load on the pressure points.
B) Wood on the ground or standing timber which is under tension has first to be cut on the tension side. Thereafter the cross cut must be finished on the compression side (INCORRECT)
(TB TOOLS 24)
- Wood on ground under tension = cut on COMPRESSION side 1st
Thereafter the cross cut finished from TENSION side.
“C before T”
Which safety requirement concerning chainsaw usage is incorrect?
A) The saw shall not be operated from a ladder.
B) Chaps must be worn by the operator, control person and officer over shorts, long pants or bunker pants.
C) Members must wear saw protective gloves whenever testing or operating the chainsaw. Saw protective gloves are not approved for firefighting purposes.
D) Do not walk roughen stable areas cluttered with brush, logs, vines or heavy underbrush with a running chainsaw. Carry the saw with the guide bar to the rear when climbing uphill and to the front when going downhill.
B) Chaps must be worn by the operator, control person and officer over shorts, long pants or bunker pants. (INCORRECT)
(TB TOOLS 24)
- Chaps only worn by OPERATOR & CONTROL PERSON
Chaps CANNOT be worn over shorts
The Hydra Ram is a hydraulically operated forcible entry tool that does not have the same usage limitations as the Rabbit Tool. Which point about is tool is correct?
A) It’s main purpose is for forcible entry of inward doors only. Other applications can be to provide an opening from the side of a vehicle hood or trunk for placement of an extinguishment agent.
B) The Hydra Ram can’t be used underwater.
C) The tool is designed to operate in the horizontal position only.
D) The Hydra Ram, unlike the Rabbit Tool, can be struck with a tool to gain a purchase.
E) Once the Hydra Ram reaches its maximum opening of 4 inches, additional strokes of the control arm will cause the piston to overextend which may lead to rupturing the piston seal causing hydraulic fluid to spray out under pressure.
F) Both the piston under the operating arm and the working end piston should be lubricated with “3 in 1” oil (obtained through Tech Services)
E) Once the Hydra Ram reaches its maximum opening of 4 inches, additional strokes of the control arm will cause the piston to overextend which may lead to rupturing the piston seal causing hydraulic fluid to spray out under pressure.
(TB TOOLS 24)
A - Can be used on both INWARD & OUTWARD opening doors
B - CAN BE USED UNDERWATER
C - CAN OPERATE IN ANY POSITION
D - NEVER STRIKE RAM WITH TOOL
E - Correct
F - OIL OBTAINED THROUGH FIREHOUSE EXPENSE FUND
Thermal Imaging Cameras (TIC) are carried by Ladder, Rescue, Squad and HazMat Company 1. TICs provide a pictorial representation of temperature differences that are unaffected by smoke. Choose the incorrect point about this tool.
A) Visible light is blocked by the solid carbon particles in smoke. Infrared Energy (IR) wave length, which is detected by TICs, is unaffected by smoke.
B) A thermal image is a pictorial representation of temperature differences. Black indicates the presence of the least amount of heat of the coolest object in the scene.
C) White indicates the presence of the most heat in the scene. Black and white are relative to the overall image viewed.
D) Shades of grey represent the temperature difference between Black and White. These shades of white, black and gray and their difference in colorization are the only colors that will be viewed on the TIC.
D) Shades of grey represent the temperature difference between Black and White. These shades of white, black and gray and their difference in colorization are the only colors that will be viewed on the TIC. (INCORRECT)
(TB TOOLS 27)
- RED & ORANGE may also be seen on the TIC
The operator of the TIC must be familiar with its features in order to effectively use the tool. Which of the following is an incorrect understanding of the TIC?
A) Low contrast may occur in cooler areas where images may be difficult to view due to the lack of heat present, and all objects being close in temperature.
B) High contrast will occur where the more heat is present. The more heat present, the clearer and sharper the image will appear, until the area being viewed reaches the point of thermal saturation.
C) When everything on the viewing area is heated to temperatures beyond the capacities of the TIC being used (Thermal Saturation), the overall area being viewed will lose all contrast and appear black and featureless.
D) Changing thermal contrast will cause the image viewed by the TIC to change when conditions change from cooler to hotter back to cooler. This may be an indication of fire being in close proximity.
C) When everything on the viewing area is heated to temperatures beyond the capacities of the TIC being used (Thermal Saturation), the overall area being viewed will lose all contrast and appear black and featureless. (INCORRECT)
(TB TOOLS 27)
- THERMAL SATURATION = viewing area is WHITE & FEATURELESS
TICs shall be carried and used at all structural fire operations by all units equipped with this tool. Choose a correct tactical application or limitation of the TIC.
A) Operators should begin at the floor level and use a side to side scanning motion, slowly working their way to the ceiling.
B) Thermal imaging does not see through plastic or water. However it will see through clear glass. Shiny surfaces will conceal the heat source preventing the, from being viewed with the TIC.
C) Average field of view of a TIC is approximately 50 degrees. Focal point of the TIC is approximately 3 feet from the camera lens.
D) Thermal imaging camera is intrinsically safe, however radio transmissions may cause the TIC to malfunction.
E) The TIC is waterproof, however it should not be submerged if possible.
C) Average field of view of a TIC is approximately 50 degrees. Focal point of the TIC is approximately 3 feet from the camera lens.
(TB TOOLS 27)
A - Begin at CEILING and work slowly to FLOOR
B - TIC DOES NOT SEE THROUGH GLASS
C - Correct
D - TIC IS NOT INTRINSICALLY SAFE
E - TIC IS NOT WATERPROOF
The Cordless Rebar cutter is carried by all Ladder, Squad, and Rescue companies. Which of the following can this tool cut?
A) Window and door gates
B) Wrought iron fences up to 5/8” in radius
C) Case hardened steel rods
D) Case hardened locks
A) Window and door gates
(TB TOOLS 28)
- Can also cut wrought iron fences up to 5/8” in DIAMETER
CANNOT be used on case hardened locks or steel rods.
The cordless rebar cutter is simple to use and requires no lengthy training period to familiarize the member. However, there are several limitations that the operator should be familiar with. Which choice is correct concerning this tool?
A) Position the tool head parallel to the bar to be cut and secure it by adjusting the screw provided.
B) Caution must be exercised when cutting an object with a free unsupported end. To avoid injury, material being cut should be secured.
C) The tool can be operated in an explosive atmosphere, e.g. Flammable liquids, gases or dusts as long as proper safety precautions are followed.
D) The tool will work well in all temperature conditions due to its sealed hydraulic assembly.
E) A fully charged battery will last for approximately 60 cuts.
B) Caution must be exercised when cutting an object with a free unsupported end. To avoid injury, material being cut should be secured.
(TB TOOLS 28)
A - Position tool head PERPENDICULAR (at right angle) to bar
B - Correct
C - DO NOT operate tool in explosive atmosphere
D - Below 32 degrees = tool must WARM UP
E - Fully charged battery = 40 CUTS
An Engine company should have its pumps in the Pressure Position to facilitate water supply during what type of operation?
A) Standpipe operation
B) Brush fire operation
C) Cellar fire
D) Subway operation
A) Standpipe Operation
TB APPARATUS P-3, 1.5
Select the incorrect statement regarding flowmeters on an Engine apparatus.
A) Designed to measure the rate of flow of water in a confined space as it passes a given point at a given time.
B) Registers readings whether water is flowing or not flowing
C) Displays are represented in gallons per minute (GPM)
D) Used by ECCs to determine problems with operating handlines.
B) Registers readings whether water is flowing or not flowing.
(INCORRECT)
(TB APPARATUS P-3, 1.12)
- Only registers reading when WATER IS FLOWING.
What type of hose must be used when drafting operations are indicated?
A) 35 foot soft hydrant connection
B) 10 foot small hydrant connection
C) 10 foot hard suction connection
D) Length of 3 1/2” hose
C) 10 foot hard suction connection
TB APPARATUS P-3, 4
What statement below accurately describes the Pro-Pressure Governor (PPG) device on department Engine Apparatus?
A) Controls the discharge pressure of the pump
B) Enables the pump to operate in either Pressure or Volume position
C) Positive displacement pump
D) Indicated negative or vacuum pressure.
A) Controls the discharge pressure of the pump
TB APPARATUS P-3, 9.1
FDNY standard operating procedures require the Pro Pressure Governor to be operated in what mode?
A) Idle
B) Pressure
C) Volume
D) RPM
B) Pressure
(TB APPARATUS P-3, 9.2)
- DO NOT CONFUSE with pumps pressure position
The Ross Relief Valve is used whenever a hose line is stretched and in operation. Select the exception to this statement.
A) Supplying an 1 3/4” line with a 15/16” nozzle
B) Supplying a 2 1/2” line with a 1 1/8” nozzle
C) Supplying a 2 1/2” line with a 1 1/4” nozzle
D) Supplying a booster line
D) Supplying a booster line (INCORRECT)
(TB APPARATUS P-3, 11.1)
- The Ross Relief Valve is used whenever a line is stretched and in
operation, EXCEPT FOR booster line operations.
The function of the Ross Relief Valve is to give a measure of protection to operating handlines against pressure surges, which can cause injury to members or burst hose lengths.
Ross Relief valves found in Engines before 1997
An Engine company lieutenant should instruct his ECC to notify the IC at a fire operation when hydrant pressure at the apparatus inlet drops below how many pounds per square inch?
A) 5 PSI
B) 10 PSI
C) 15 PSI
D) 25 PSI
C) 15 PSI
TB APPARATUS P-3, 12.3.4 Notes
The 100 foot Aerial Ladder operates by utilizing two double action hydraulic lift cylinders. What is the load capacity range of this ladder?
A) 200-1050 lbs
B) 250-750 lbs
C) 300-1250 lbs
D) 350-1300 lbs
B) 250-750 lbs
TB APPARATUS L-7, 1.4
What is the distance needed in each side of the apparatus for clearance when utilizing the 100 foot Aerial Ladder’s “H” frame stabilizers?
A) 5’ 2”
B) 6’ 10”
C) 7’ 4”
D 8’ 6”
A) 5’ 2”
TB APPARATUS L-7, 1.6
Where on the 100 foot Aerial Ladder apparatus are the stabilizer controls located?
A) Inside the cab
B) Behind the rear wheels
C) At the back
D) On the pedestal
C) At the back
TB APPARATUS L-7, 3.1
What is meant by the term “short-jacked” when discussing “H” frame stabilizers on the 100 foot Aerial Ladder?
A) Ground stabilizer pad is not level
B) Green stabilizer Down Indicator Light is illuminated
C) Locking pin is inserted into the highest peg hole on the jack
D) Stabilizer is not fully extended horizontally
D) Stabilizer is not fully extended horizontally
TB APPARATUS L-7, 3.3
Choose an incorrect statement concerning Aerial Ladder Extension footage numbers:
A) Located on the inside of the Aerial Base section
B) Located on the Base section of the vertical struts
C) Located on the bright colored corresponding vertical strut of the 2nd section
D) when colored strut is lined up with a footage number,mother ladder is extended to that respective length.
A) Located on the inside of the Aerial Base section (INCORRECT)
(TB APPARATUS L-7, 4.4)
Why is it important to match up the Extension Footage and Inclinometer numbers on the 100 foot Aerial Ladder when it is in use?
A) Determine rung alignment
B) Determine if Aerial Ladder section are locked
C) Determine proper load capacity
D) Determine if the Aerial Ladder is fully extended
C) Determine proper load capacity
TB APPARATUS L-7, 4.5
A confined space is defined as any area that is not designed for continuous human occupancy; and is large enough and so configured that a person can enter and perform work; and has limited means for entry and escape. Which one of the following is not a confined space?
A) Manhole
B) Basement
C) Sub-cellar
D) Chimney
E) Storage building with windows
E) Storage building with windows.
(TB CONFINED SPACE 1.1.2, TB SCBA)
- Building with NO WINDOWS is a confined space
If a confined space poses a danger to anyone that enters it, it is designated a Permit Required Confined Space (permit space). Which point about Permit Spaces is incorrect?
A) It contains or has the potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere.
B) It contains material that could potentially engulf a person.
C) It is shaped in a way that a person could be caught or asphyxiated by inwardly tapering walls, or floors that slope downward, tapering into a smaller cross section.
D) It contains any recognized serious health or safety hazard.
E) A non-permit space will not be as deadly as a permit space, and therefore does not require a sign to warn of the dangers.
E) A non-permit space will not be as deadly as a permit space, and therefore does not require a sign to warn of the dangers. (INCORRECT)
(TB CONFINED SPACE 2)
- A non-permit space CAN BE JUST AS DEADLY as a permit space, it
just does not have a sign to warn you of the dangers.
Atmospheric hazards can be Asphyxiants, Toxic, or Explosive. Which is the correct action to take to deal successfully with atmospheric hazards?
A) The only safe way to detect a lack of oxygen is through the use of an oxygen meter carried by Rescue Companies and HazMat.
B) Due to the potential for life threatening atmosphere, all members entering any confined space must be breathing air from their SCBA at all times, throughout the entire operation.
C) The only accurate way to test for the presence of all possible toxic materials in the field is through the use of DEPs Mobile Lab or HAZ Mat Company 1 meters.
D) Materials will be either flammable or toxic, but will not be both flammable and toxic.
A) The only safe way to detect a lack of oxygen is through the use of an oxygen meter carried by Rescue Companies and HazMat.
(TB CONFINED SPACE 2.1.1)
A - Correct
B - All members must be breathing air out of their SCBA at all times,
UNTIL ATMOSPHERE IS VERIFIED SAFE.
C - The only safe way to detect a lack of Oxygen is through the use of
an oxygen meter carried by Rescue and HazMat.
D - Materials can be BOTH FLAMMABLE & TOXIC.
Physical hazards also pose dangers to members at Confined Space operations. Which of the following is not correct concerning Fire Department precautions taken to combat physical hazards?
A) Members entering these spaces should always use a Fire Department ladder due to the likelihood that the ladders built into these spaces have deteriorated significantly.
B) Members should be protected against sudden falling by tying off their life line around a substantial object to allow them to be lowered into the space.
C) Members should remain attached to their lifeline at all times while operating in the space.
D) The lifeline may act as a guideline for retreat, guide reinforcements to the member’s position, or be used to pull additional equipment in or out of the space.
A) Members entering these spaces should always use a Fire Department ladder due to the likelihood that the ladders built into these spaces have deteriorated significantly. (INCORRECT)
(TB CONFINED SPACE 2.2.1)
- IF CONDITIONS PERMIT use a FD ladder when entering a confined
space.
As a bare minimum, the rescuer who is entering a confined space must know all of the following except?
A) The hazards within the space, including signs of danger and symptoms of exposure to materials in the space.
B) How to escape the space in an emergency.
C) How to communicate with the attendant outside.
D) How to use the equipment needed to perform the rescue, especially the rescuers personal protective equipment and patient handling equipment.
E) All CFR-D procedures
E) All CFR-D procedures (INCORRECT)
(TB CONFINED SPACE 3.1.1)
- NOT ALL CFR (First Aid & CPR only)
Engine 333 arrives at the scene of a worker trapped in a chemical storage tank. Which action taken by Engine 333 was incorrect?
A) Engine 333 established a control perimeter and posted two radio equipped members with necessary tools at each location which controls the flow inside space.
B) Contacted the victim by entering the space and establishing physical contact with the victim.
C) Ensured the response of the nearest Rescue Company, Haz Mat Company 1, a Battalion Chief, a SOC Support Ladder Company and CFR-D Engine, and an ALS ambulance.
D) Began ventilation of the chemical tank, and explored the possibility of using positive pressure venting.
B) Contacted the victim by entering the space and establishing physical contact with the victim. (INCORRECT)
(TB CONFINED SPACE 3.1.1)
- They should contact victim WITHOUT ENTERING SPACE.
(Call out to them)
Several precautions must be followed when members enter a confined space. Which is the wrong action to take at a confined space incident?
A) As a general rule, each member operating with a 30 minute cylinder must be withdrawn to fresh air in 15 min.
B) Entry into confined spaces with 30 minute cylinders must be strictly limited where rescuers can be seen and removed from the outside.
C) Each member entering a confined space must be secured in a bowline on a bight and slippery hitch to a life saving rope.
D) Members may enter the confined space prior to a retrieval system being set up is Rescue has not arrived on scene yet.
D) Members may enter the confined space prior to a retrieval system being set up is Rescue has not arrived on scene yet. (INCORRECT)
(TB CONFINED SPACE 4.2, Data sheet 1)
- Retrieval system must be set up PRIOR to members entering
confined space.
A very stable, easily created high point anchor is a Tower Ladder, or if there is no better alternative, an aerial ladder. Which is the incorrect point about using these as high point anchors?
A) The TL is preferred due to its greater weight supporting capacity, at least 800 pounds.
B) The weight supporting capacity of the aerial ladder is 250 - 750 pounds, depending on elevation.
C) The Aerial or Tower Ladder shall never be used as a crane to lift a person.
D) Once the boom or ladder is in position, all personnel shall be removed from the turntable and the apparatus kept running in case rapid repositioning of the high point is needed.
D) Once the boom or ladder is in position, all personnel shall be removed from the turntable and the apparatus kept running in case rapid repositioning of the high point is needed. (INCORRECT)
(TB CONFINED SPACES 4.4, TB Apparatus L-7)
- All members removed from turntable and SHUT OFF ENGINE to
prevent accidental movement.
Treatment of injured victims in dangerous confined spaces is a difficult task. Which is the correct medical treatment at confined spaces?
A) If the victim is breathing but the atmosphere is a threat, establishing an airway and placement of a mask face piece is the highest priority. The rescuers shall never remove their face pieces.
B) Use of the resuscitator and performing CPR in a hazardous atmosphere are never to be performed in a confined space.
C) Any victim that is unconscious for any reason should be treated as having spinal injuries. Even under extreme conditions, patients should always be immobilized to prevent further injuries.
D) At the very least, one rescuer must have access to the patients head, and another rescuer must be positioned at the patient’s feet to facilitate a smooth removal.
A) If the victim is breathing but the atmosphere is a threat, establishing an airway and placement of a mask face piece is the highest priority. The rescuers shall never remove their face pieces.
(TB Confined Space 5.1 - 5.6)
A - Correct
B - Use of resuscitator in a hazardous atmosphere may not be possible
and REQUIRES CAREFUL EVALUATION PRIOR TO USE. CPR IS
GENERALLY DISCOURAGED.
C - It MAY BE NECESSARY TO FOREGO IMMOBILIZATION.
D - At the very least, rescue must have access to PATIENTS HEAD.
Which of the following would be considered an unsafe atmospheric condition?
A) Oxygen concentration between 19.5% and 23.5%
B) The flammable range not over 10% of LEL
C) Carbon Monoxide Readings of 40 PPM
D) Not over 10 PPM of Hydrogen Sulfide
C) Carbon Monoxide Readings of 40 PPM (INCORRECT)
(TB CONFINED SPACE, Data Sheet 1)
- Over 35 PPM IS UNSAFE/DANGEROUS.
A captain is at the scene of a structure fire at 0300 hours. The occupant states he was asleep in bed at the time of the fire, and was forced to flee with no time to spare. The occupant is wearing shoes that are laced and he has on several layers of clothes. The captain becomes suspicious of the story. Upon further investigation the captain finds rolled up newspaper leading away from the initial fire area. Which would be a correct action?
A) Record the names and addresses received from this occupant and any witnesses.
B) After the occupant stops talking freely, try to get additional information by asking questions related to the fire.
C) Put the names of and the statements received from witnesses on the fire report.
D) Notify the IC that a plant was discovered, and this fire should be declared incendiary.
C)
A) Record the names and addresses received from this occupant and any witnesses.
(TB Arson, 1.2.4)
A - Correct
B - Only TRAINED INVESTIGATOR can interrogate further.
C - DO NOT put names/statements of witnesses on fire report.
D - Notify IC that a TRAILER was found. FIRE MARSHAL declares it
incendiary.
A fire victim is found at the scene of a 10-75. The body is lying prone and the entire backside of the body is red in color, while the front of the body appears white. This could indicate which choice below?
A) The victim was alive at the time of the fire and suffered CO poisoning
B) The victim was breathing during the fire.
C) The victim was moved after death and placed at the fire scene.
D) The victim had severe allergic reaction to being in a fire.
C) The victim was moved after death and placed at the fire scene.
(Red indicates that Lividity has set in)
(TB Arson, 4.5)
A - CO poisoning (victim appears pink/cherry red)
B - Victim breathing in fire (soot in nose/mouth)
C - Victim moved after death and placed at fire (Lividity - red)
Lividity usually starts ______ after death and is completed after ______?
A) 20-30 min / 1-2 hours
B) 1-2 hours / 2-3 hours
C) 1-2 hours / 3-4 hours
D) 2-3 hours / 3-4 hours
C) 1-2 hours / 3-4 hours
TB Arson, 4.5
A fire victim found in a pugilistic position and with outward damage to the skull. How many choices are correctly stated?
- Skull damage can normally occur from internal pressure with the appearance that the skull exploded outward.
- The victim was probably a victim of a crime as indicated by the damaged skull.
- A defensive posture does not indicate violence or struggle as this occurs due to contraction of muscles during a fire.
- The victim was probably assaulted prior to the fire as they are in a defensive position.
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
B) 2 (Choices #1 & #3 are correct)
(TB Arson, 4.6)
Defensive position = DOES NOT indicate assault or struggle
Once a fire line is established at a prolonged fire investigation, who may authorize members of the department to cross?
- Assigned Fire Marshal
- Chief Officer
- Chief of Operations
- Chief of Department
A) 2 & 3 B) 1 & 2 C) 3 & 4 D) 1 & 3
D) 1 & 3 (Assigned Fire Marshal & Chief of Operations)
(TB Arson, 4.1)
Members were discussing how to best handle evidence of arson at the scene of an operation. Which is a correct choice?
A) Since evidence is usually contaminated during the collection process, it is important to follow certain procedures for packaging.
B) The first choice to package evidence would be a used, but clean, 1 gallon paint can.
C) If no cans are available, only a new, clean glass jar may be used.
D) While plastic containers should be avoided, new, heavy gauge plastic bags may be used in pairs.
D) While plastic containers should be avoided, new, heavy gauge plastic bags may be used in pairs.
(TB Arson, 5.2)
A - Evidence is SELDOM CONTAMINATED during collection process
B - 1st choice would be a NEW, clean 1 gallon paint can.
C - If no cans are available, new clean glass jar may be used (not only)
D - Correct
Continuity of evidence at a suspected arson fire is critical. Which choice is correct?
A) The photo unit shall be requested to respond to photograph evidence at all fires deemed incendiary.
B) Evidence shall be labeled and marked to identify the location found prior to the arrival of the photo unit.
C) Evidence can be removed to the firehouse, as long as it is stored on the desk in the company office.
D) In order to maintain FD control of a scene, one firefighter with an extinguisher may be left at the scene.
D) In order to maintain FD control of a scene, one firefighter with an extinguisher may be left at the scene.
(TB Arson, 5.1.1)
A - Photo unit will be requested IF MARSHAL ISNT RESPONDING.
B - Evidence labeled AFTER arrival of photo units
C - Evidence can be removed to firehouse as long as it is LOCKED in
the company office.
D - Correct (Do not leave only PD there to safeguard evidence)
A BC was examining the fire scene to determine cause and origin. In which assumption was he accurate?
A) When he noted multiple points of origin, he knew this was an incendiary fire.
B) When he noted perpendicular burns on the walls, rather than the normal “V” pattern, he knew this indicated an accelerant might have been used.
C) When he noted heavy smoke stains, remote from the point of origin, he knew this usually indicates a rapid fire build up.
D) When he noted the large crazing of glass, he knew this indicated the glass was located close to the point of origin and was subjected to rapid heat build up.
B) When he noted perpendicular burns on the walls, rather than the normal “V” pattern, he knew this indicated an accelerant might have been used.
(TB Arson, 6.5.4)
A - Multiple points of origin = indicates arson
B - Absence of “V” pattern = accelerant may have been used
C - Heavy smoke stains / remote from point of origin = slow fire buildup
(Heavyweight fighter stays remote from opponent, throws slow
bombs)
Light smoke stains / close to point of origin = rapid buildup (Lightweight fighter stays close to opponent, throws rapid punches)
D - Large crazing = far from point of origin subject to slow heat buildup
Small crazing = close to point of origin subject to rapid heat buildup
(Large fighter, far away, slow punches)
(Small fighter, close up, fast punches)
Half-moon effects or marks on glass results from water being applied to heated glass, and is called?
A) Crazing
B) Checkering
C) Spalling
D) Mooning
B) Checkering
TB Arson, 6.7.3
Depth of charring can be used as an indicator or fires travel and point of origin. Which is a correct statement?
A) Wood structural members may burn approximately one inch every 60 minutes.
B) Very large blister type charring may indicate longer burning and hot fires.
C) Fire burning over a large floor area, lower part of walls, or under doors could indicate an accelerant was used.
D) The deepest char will always be found at the point of origin.
C) Fire burning over a large floor area, lower part of walls, or under doors could indicate an accelerant was used.
(TB Arson, 6.8)
A - Wood members may burn approx. 1” every 45 MINUTES
B - VERY SMALL blister type charring may indicate longer burns and
hot fires.
C - Correct
D - Deepest char MAY BE found at point of origin. Could also be found
above the point of origin.
What does a deceased victim of a fire presenting with pink to cherry red color of the lips, eyelids, or skin indicate?
A) Lividity and death prior to the fire.
B) 4th degree burns and death prior to the fire.
C) CO exposure and the victim was alive at the time of the fire.
D) A severe allergic reaction and the victim died during the fire.
C) CO exposure and the victim was alive at the time of the fire.
(TB Arson, 4.4)
Lividity (red)
CO poisoning (pink to cherry red)
Which is an incorrect description of a lobby key switch for an elevator bank?
A) The key switch is required to be within 2 feet of the lobby call button.
B) The key switch is operated by use of the Fire Department 1620 key, or by citywide standard elevator 2642 key.
C) Three position key switch - Normal, fireman service and door open.
D) Two position key switch - Normal and fireman service with a door open button. Door open button is only operable when the key switch is in the Fireman Service position.
E) The Normal and Fireman Service position in the keyed switch permit the removal of the key. The key is not removable in the door,open position.
A) The key switch is required to be within 2 feet of the lobby call button (INCORRECT)
(TB ELEVATOR OPS 5.2.1)
- Key switch required to be within FOUR (4) feet of lobby call button.
If an elevator car is equipped with a “Hold” position within its keyed switch the “Hold” position will function in all of the following ways except which?
A) Permits the firefighter to remove the 1620 key from the switch.
B) Allows the firefighter to leave the car without the danger of an individual, without a key, moving the car to another location.
C) A firefighter with a 1620 key can move the car by changing the switch position from “Hold” to “Fireman Service”
D) Elevator cars equipped with a two position switch are required to be retro-fitted with a three position switch, this should be identified on building inspection and DOB should be notified.
D) Elevator cars equipped with a two position switch are required to be retro-fitted with a three position switch, this should be identified on building inspection and DOB should be notified. (INCORRECT)
(TB ELEVATOR 5.2.2)
- Elevators with 2 position switch are NOT REQUIRED to be retro-fitted
with a 3 position switch.
If Phase I (elevator recall) has been initiated before a units arrival and all elevator doors are closed, units should determine if Phase I was initiated manually or automatically and then be guided by the following: Which choice is correct?
A) If Phase I was initiated manually the Fireman Service lobby key switch will be found in the Fireman Service position. Place the Fireman Service lobby keyed switch momentarily in the “Normal” (OFF) position. Then return it to the Fireman Service position. This will cause all elevator car doors in this bank to open.
B) When Phase I is initiated automatically (by lobby smoke detectors, HVAC detectors, or sprinkler water flow) place the lobby keyed switch in the “Door open” position. The doors of the Fireman Service cars will then open. In some older installations the doors of the non-Fireman Service cars will not open and must be opened by use of the emergency hoist-way door key.
C) Both A & B are incorrect
D) Both A & B are correct
A) If Phase I was initiated manually the Fireman Service lobby key switch will be found in the Fireman Service position. Place the Fireman Service lobby keyed switch momentarily in the “Normal” (OFF) position. Then return it to the Fireman Service position. This will cause all elevator car doors in this bank to open.
(TB Elevators 5.3.1)
B - HVAC DETECTORS WILL NOT RECALL ELEVATORS.
During Phase I (elevator recall) an elevator traveling away from the street floor or from its lowest landing floor will reverse direction at the next landing without opening its doors, and return non stop to the street lobby or terminal floor. When the elevator car reaches its terminal floor, one of the following will occur: which is the most correct answer?
A) All car and hoist-way car doors open. The doors remain open for at least 8 seconds and no more than one minute.
B) All car and hoist-way car doors open. The Fireman Service elevator car and hoist way doors remain open with the car lights remaining off. Non Fireman Service elevator car and hoist-way doors close between 8 seconds and one minute after opening.
C) All elevator car and hoist-way doors open and remain open in the Fireman Service cars. The car lights in the Fireman Service elevator cars remain on and the doors to the Non-Fireman Service cars do not open.
D) All of the above are correct
A) All car and hoist-way car doors open. The doors remain open for at least 8 seconds and no more than one minute. (One of three things that will happen)
(TB Elevators 5.3.1)
Other two options:
B - Fireman Service & hoist way doors remain open with car lights ON.
Non-Fireman Service car and hoist-way doors close between 8
seconds and 1 minute after opening.
OR
C - The car lights in Fireman service elevator car WILL GO OFF and
doors to Non-Fireman Service cars do not open.
- Choice “C” as corrected is required for all installations for which plans
were filed after 1980.
A Gal Drop Key is a hand tool used to open _________ elevator hoist-way doors to gain access to the elevator shaft or an inoperable elevator car.
A) Sliding Type
B) Hinged Type
C) Can be used on either Sliding or Hinged types
D) Can be used on neither Sliding or Hinged types.
A) Sliding type
TB Elevators ADD 6
How many emergency elevator keys in the FDNY arsenal are used for swing type doors?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
B) 4
(TB Elevators, Addendums)
- 3 for Sliding type doors
- 4 for Swing type doors
Which is an incorrect operational procedure when using elevators?
A) When it is confirmed that the fire is on the 7th floor or below, units should avoid the use of elevators. It is safer to utilize the stairway to reach the fire floor.
B) A service elevator shall not be used until it is declared safe for use by the officer in command of the fire.
C) There must be a member equipped with a HT in each car whenever the elevator is in use.
D) Not more than four members are to be permitted in any elevator car.
D) Not more than four members are to be permitted in any elevator car. (INCORRECT)
(TB Elevators, 6.1)
- No more than SIX (6) MEMBERS in any elevator car.
Which is a correct operational procedure when using elevators from the list below?
A) Elevators should be stopped every 7 floors (precautionary stops) to confirm that the elevator will respond to the selected floor At each stop a new selection must be made.
B) Before leaving the lobby and only at the first and last precautionary stop, direct a flashlight up between the elevator car and the hoist-way shaft to determine if there is any accumulation of smoke in the elevator shaft.
C) The relationship of the elevator to the stairway should be noted. This should be done at every precautionary stop. Floor configurations may change.
D) First arriving units should, if possible, initially avoid a Fireman Service elevator which is capable of stopping at all floors.
D) First arriving units should, if possible, initially avoid a Fireman Service elevator which is capable of stopping at all floors.
(TB Elevators, 6.1 & 6.4.3)
A - Every FIVE (5) stops (precautionary stops)
B - Before leaving lobby and AT EVERY precautionary stop, direct a
flashlight up shaft to determine if there is any smoke.
C - Relationship of stairway to elevator shaft should be noted at the
FIRST AND LAST precautionary stop.
D - Correct (Only after the officer in command has determined that the
fire is not adjacent to the shaft should these elevators be
utilized)
You have just arrived as the 1st due truck officer at a fire in a 26 story HROB. The Fire Safety/Emergency Action Plan Director tells you that “the fire is on the 14th floor and there is a new access stair servicing floors 13 and 14.” Elevator Bank A services the Lobby to the 10th floor. Elevator Bank B services floors 11 to floor 19. Elevator C services floors 20 to 26. Based on this information, which bank of elevators to which floor would you take?
A) Elevator Bank B to floor number 13.
B) Elevator Bank B to floor number 12
C) Elevator Bank B to floor number 11
D) Elevator Bank A to floor number 10
D) Elevator Bank A to floor number 10
(TB Elevators 6.1.3)
A/B/C - DO NOT take elevator that services the fire floor. Take a lower bank if it reaches the fire floor within FIVE (5) floors.
The NYC Housing Authority is in the process of installing car door zone locks on all NYC Housing Authority elevator cars. Which is an incorrect item from the list below in regards to these car door zone locks?
A) The zone lock is a mechanical device which prevents the elevator car door from opening if the car does not stop level with the floor at the elevator landing.
B) Zone locks are being installed on the outside of the elevator car doors on hinged type and sliding type doors.
C) In order to disengage Sliding Type doors, depress the level to release the zone lock device. For Hinged Type doors, lift the rod straight up to release the zone lock device.
D) After opening the hoist-way door, the zone lock will be visible on the front side of the elevator car towards the top of the door.
C) In order to disengage Sliding Type doors, depress the level to release the zone lock device. For Hinged Type doors, lift the rod straight up to release the zone lock device. (INCORRECT)
(TB Elevators ADD 8)
- Sliding doors = LIFT rod straight up
Hinged doors = DEPRESS lever
A Gal Vandal Resistant Key is a hand tool used to open “Sliding Type” elevator hoist-way doors to gain access to the elevator shaft or inoperable elevator car. Which choice listed below is incorrect regarding the use of this key?
A) Insert key into keyhole until obstruction is encountered.
B) Turn key a 1/2 turn to disengage hoist-way.
C) Open hoist-way door by pushing away from its leading edge.
D) On elevators equipped for use of the GAL Vandal Resistant Key, attempt to open the hoist-way door by use of the key before resorting to forcible entry.
B) Turn key a 1/2 turn to disengage hoist-way. (INCORRECT)
(TB Elevators ADD 7)
- Turn key ONE QUARTER (1/4) turn
A lieutenant conducting drill on natural gas emergencies and fires was incorrect when he stated that?
A) Natural gas is explosive when confined. It’s explosive range is 5% to 15%.
B) Natural gas is lighter than air and odorless, but mercaptan added to it gives it a distinct rotten egg odor.
C) Gas service piping may be steel, plastic, or copper but plastic and copper gas pipes are not allowed inside structures.
D) Most gas valve shut offs are of the 1/4 turn variety and require a 1/4 turn clockwise to turn the valve to the off position.
D) Most gas valve shut offs are of the 1/4 turn variety and require a 1/4 turn clockwise to turn the valve to the off position. (INCORRECT)
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas 2, 5, 7, 8)
- Gas valves require 1/4 turn COUNTERCLOCKWISE.
You are a lieutenant that has just arrived at a gas emergency at a stove in a building where you are unable to shut the appliance valve because it is damaged. You then determine that the building has a low pressure master meter with interior gas riser valves above coming off of the master meter. In this situation it would be preferable to next attempt to shut the?
A) Head of service valve
B) Interior gas riser valve
C) Master meter
D) Curb valve
B) Interior gas riser valve
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 4-5)
- Priority order of shutdown:
1) Appliance valve2) Meter valve or Master meter (BUT if a master meter has an
INTERIOR GAS RISER VALVE it is preferable to shut the interior
gas riser valve instead of the master meter)3) Head of service valve (building valve)
4) Exterior gas riser valve
5) Curb valve
6) Street valve (only shut down by FDNY in extreme circumstances)
Regarding exterior gas riser valves, it would be inaccurate to state?
A) They are all located on the gas rise outside the building before any exterior meters.
B) All external meter installations will have a riser valve installed prior to the meter.
C) If a curb valve is found, look for the exterior riser valve.
D) Exterior riser valves will not be present outside when meters are installed inside of a building.
D) Exterior riser valves will not be present outside when meters are installed inside of a building. (INCORRECT)
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 6)
- Exterior riser valves MAY BE PRESENT OUTSIDE even if meters are
located on the inside.
A company officer arrives on the scene as an extra ladder above the 2nd alarm where the IC instructs the unit to locate and close the curb valve because there is a gas fed fire in the commercial building. In this situation, the officer would be correct to think that?
A) Curb valves are always found on the sidewalk side of the curb.
B) In all cases, the “U” shape or square end of the gas key should be used to turn the curb valve a 1/4 turn clockwise.
C) When looking into the curb valve box, a yellow operating nut means that it is a plastic valve and plastic valve stops are easily broken with excessive force.
D) National Grid’s “Long Service” sometimes has its curb valve located across the street, sometimes found in the street. They will have an arrow on the concrete or steel cover pointing to the building they supply.
D) National Grid’s “Long Service” sometimes has its curb valve located across the street, sometimes found in the street. They will have an arrow on the concrete or steel cover pointing to the building they supply.
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 7)
A - Curb valves USUALLY found on sidewalk side of curb.
B - In MOST CASES “U” shape or square end of gas key turns the curb
valve 1/4 turn clockwise.
C - A WHITE operating nut means that it is plastic
D - Correct (Curb valve 1/4 clockwise)
(Gas appliance valve 1/4 turn counter clockwise)
A company officer arrives on the scene as an extra ladder above the 2nd alarm where the IC instructs the unit to locate and close the curb valve because there is a gas fed fire in the commercial building. Unable to locate the curb valve immediately the company officer now finds the street valve. In this situation he would be correct to think that?
A) Street valves may never be operated by FDNY members.
B) Do not operate street valves except under extreme circumstances when directed by the FDNY IC after consult with a utility representative.
B) Do not operate street valves except under extreme circumstances when directed by the FDNY IC after consult with a utility representative.
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 8)
Members respond to the scene of an outdoor gas odor where they find a broken plastic gas pipe in a street excavation. In this situation, they would be correct to take which action?
A) Use a tool to crimp the piping to stop the flow of gas.
B) Fold the piping to stop the flow of gas
C) Fill the excavation area with water to stop the flow of gas.
D) Use a fog stream to dissipate the escaping gas.
D) Use a fog stream to dissipate the escaping gas.
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 9)
- Plastic pipe = don’t touch or go near.
A Captain conducting drill for gas leak emergencies was correct in which point(s) below? (More than 1 correct)
A) Non-FDNY issued flashlights are NOT intrinsically safe.
B) FDNY issued flashlights and thermal imaging cameras are intrinsically safe.
C) If you cannot find the source of an indoor gas leak, take readings at sewers and manhole covers.
D) Power to a gas filled building should be shut only by opening breakers. Never shut power to a gas filled building by pulling an electric meter.
E) When a building has an emergency power or generator, have it disabled before cutting power to a building.
F) A leak or break in low or high pressure gas piping may be stopped or greatly diminished by stuffing rags into the break.
G) Allow a leak of burning gas to burn until the gas supply is shut.
A) Non-FDNY issued flashlights are NOT intrinsically safe.
C) If you cannot find the source of an indoor gas leak, take readings at sewers and manhole covers.
E) When a building has an emergency power or generator, have it disabled before cutting power to a building.
G) Allow a leak of burning gas to burn until the gas supply is shut.
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 10-12)
B - TIC is NOT intrinsically safe.
D - Power to a gas filled building SHOULD NOT BE SHUT.
F - A leak or break in LOW pressure gas piping only may be stopped by
stuffing rags into the break.
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a block of 11 attached 2 story row frame buildings with a heavy odor of gas and high readings on the DCGI meter in the middle building indicated below. They also get positive gas readings in exposure 4. In this situation, they must insure they check at least which buildings besides the middle building and exposure 4?
2D | 2C | 2B | 2A | 2 | Major Leak | 4 | 4A | 4B | 4C | 4D
A) Exposure 2, 2A, 4A
B) Exposure 2, 2A, 4A, 4B
C) Exposure 2, 2A, 2B, 4A, 4B
D) Exposure 2, 2A, 2B, 4A, 4B, 4C
D) Exposure 2, 2A, 2B, 4A, 4B, 4C
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 13)
- Must check at least 3 exposures on both sides of the incident (where
gas readings are detected).
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a block of 11 attached 2 story row frame buildings with a heavy odor of gas and high readings on the DCGI meter in the middle building indicated below. They also get positive gas readings in exposure 4. If the gas levels are above the flammable limits in the 2 story frames, units should start venting on the?
2D | 2C | 2B | 2A | 2 | Major Leak | 4 | 4A | 4B | 4C | 4D
A) First floor
B) Second floor
C) Either first or second floor regardless of order.
B) Second floor
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 13)
- Above 15% = Vent 2nd floor and work your way down.
A high pressure outdoor gas leak is indicated by which two size up points listed below?
A) Heavy gas odor in the area
B) Opaque cloud rising from the ground
C) Dirt and debris blowing into the air from excavation
D) A loud roaring sound
C) Dirt and debris blowing into the air from excavation
D) A loud roaring sound
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 14)
- Heavy gas odor and opaque cloud rising from the ground are
indications of outdoor gas leaks and not necessarily high pressure
leaks.
In order to reduce the infiltration of an outdoor gas leak into surrounding properties, members may be ordered by a BC to remove only what kind of covers in the street?
A) Sewer covers and any manhole cover found free of stray voltage by the utility company gas rep.
B) Sewer covers and round manhole covers found free of stray voltage by the utility company gas rep.
C) Sewer covers and round or square manhole covers found free of stray voltage by the utility company electric rep.
D) Round and square manhole covers found free of stray voltage by the utility company electric rep.
B) Sewer covers and round manhole covers found free of stray voltage by the utility company gas rep.
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 15)
- ONLY remove sewer covers AND ROUND manhole covers at gas
emergencies.
You are a lieutenant using a DCGI meter at a major indoor gas leak where you see your meter read 10% LEL. In this situation, you would be correct to think that the actual percent of gas in the air is?
A) 5% and you are at the FDNY indoor action level
B) 50% and you are at the FDNY indoor action level
C) 5% and you are not at the FDNY indoor action level
D) 50% and you are not at the FDNY indoor action level
B) 50% and you are at the FDNY indoor action level.
TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 18
The code 5-R-25 found on the Peck Vent in the Con Ed system indicates the location of the?
A) Curb valve, 5 feet from the left hand corner of the house, then 25 feet measured off at a right angle to the sidewalk.
B) Curb valve, 5 feet from the right hand corner of the house, then 25 feet measured off at a right angle to the sidewalk.
C) Street valve, 5 feet from the left hand corner of the house, then 25 feet measured off at a right angle to the sidewalk.
D) Street valve, 5 feet from the right hand corner of the house, then 25 feet measured off at a right angle to the sidewalk
A) Curb valve, 5 feet from the left hand corner of the house, then 25 feet measured off at a right angle to the sidewalk.
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 19-20)
- Read as if you are looking out the front door.
- 5-R-25 looking straight out front door to the right of the door would
actually be the LEFT SIDE OF THE HOUSE.
In the National Grid Coding System, which two sets of letters found on a Peck Vent would indicate that there is no curb valve present?
A) NCV
B) NC
C) EFV
D) EXC
B) NC & C) EFV (Excess Flor Valve)
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 21)
- Both indicate there in no curb valve.
Regarding the use of the MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter, it would be correct to state that?
A) It has only one sensor for combustible gas.
B) The action level for both indoor and outdoor operations is 10% LEL.
C) A series of crosses under the COMB/EX icon indicates the atmosphere is above 50% LEL and that members should not operate except for life saving purposes.
D) If indoor levels continue to climb and ventilation procedures fail to lower the LEL readings, evacuation procedures should be initiated.
D) If indoor levels continue to climb and ventilation procedures fail to lower the LEL readings, evacuation procedures should be initiated
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas ADD 1)
A - 2 sensors = 1 combustible gas / 1 for O2
B - Indoor action level = 10% LEL
Outdoor action level = 20% LEL
C - Crosses under the COMB/EX icon indicates the atmosphere is
above 100% LEL (above 5% gas in air)
D - Correct
Regarding the use of the oxygen sensor on the Altair Digital Gas Meter, it would be incorrect to state that?
A) The normal oxygen reading on the meter is 20.8%.
B) The low,oxygen alarm is set at 19.5% and high alarm is set at 23.0%
C) Upon activation of the oxygen sensor, members shall don their SCBA face pieces and notify the IC of abnormal oxygen readings.
D) A series of three crosses across the screen under the O2 icon indicates the atmosphere is above 23.0% oxygen.
D) A series of three crosses across the screen under the O2 icon indicates the atmosphere is above 23.0% oxygen. (INCORRECT)
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas ADD 1)
- Three crosses across screen under O2 = atmosphere above 25%
Members of a Bronx study group are discussing Thermal Imaging Cameras (TICs). They correctly choose which choice below?
A) TICs average field of view is approximately 70 degrees.
B) TICs are capable of detecting all haz-mat vapor clouds.
C) When operating with the TIC, stay low and slowly scan the area beginning at the floor, using a side to side scanning motion, working your way to the ceiling.
D) The focal point of the TIC is approximately 3 feet from the camera lens.
D) The focal point of the TIC is approximately 3 feet from the camera lens.
(TB Tools 27 4.5)
A - Average field of view approx. 50 DEGREES
B - TIC can detect SOME vapor clouds
C - Start at CEILING and work your way down to FLOOR.
D - Correct
According to the new search bulletin, if the engine does not have a charged hose line at the door to the fire area, the door should be closed after the search team enters. Which tool shall the interior team leave outside the doorway to indicate the apartment they are searching?
A) 6’ hook
B) Ax
C) Hydraulic Forcible Entry Tool
D) Hallagan
C) Hydraulic Forcible Entry Tool
TB Search 9.10.1 B
During drill on fire extinguisher use, the Proby asked about extinguishing fires in a mailbox. The following statements were made, which are correct?
- The only acceptable extinguishing agent is water
- Dry chem should not be used
- Large parcel post mailboxes (greater than 9 cubic feet) can be
extinguished with 3 short blasts from a carbon dioxide extinguisher. - Purple K extinguishers can be used
- The mailbox should be forced open to ensure complete
extinguishment, do not use an extinguisher though the mail slot.
A) 3,4
B) 1,2,4
C) 2,3
D) 1,2
E) 2,3,5
C) 2,3
(TB Fires 1)
Mailbox fires:
- Water AND Carbon Dioxide are OK to use
- DO NOT use Dry Chemical extinguisher or Purple K
- Large parcel post mailboxes (greater than 9 cubic feet) can be
extinguished with 3 short blasts from a Carbon Dioxide extinguisher. - Should operate a THROUGH mailbox slot WITHOUT forcing
Firefighters may encounter various types of hazards while operating at fires and emergencies and while conducting building inspections. Dogs are one of those hazards. Which statement concerning dogs is not correct according to FDNY publications?
A) Attack dogs are trained to attack on command of their trainer.
B) The actions of Security dogs are generally predictable and they appear vicious.
C) Household pets usually do not present a problem.
D) Members should assume that all dogs are vicious.
A) Attack dogs are trained to attack on command of their trainer. (INCORRECT)
(TB Fires 2.1-2.4)
- COMMAND DOGS are trained to attack on command of their trainer.
Attack dogs will attack anyone but the trainer.
When encountering dogs at fires, members are recommended to take certain actions. Which action is incorrect?
A) You may be able to intimidate a dog with loud authoritative commands.
B) When a dog that appears dangerous is encountered, a water or CO2 extinguisher can be directed at the dog’s face.
C) A hose line should be stretched and charged as a backup when encountering dangerous dogs.
D) Only the Center for Animal Care and Control should be called to assist with a dog, an ETA should be requested.
D) Only the Center for Animal Care and Control should be called to assist with a dog, an ETA should be requested. (INCORRECT)
(TB Fires 4.5)
- NYPD can also be called for help with dogs.
- Other times to request an ETA
- Con Ed manhole
- EMS critical or unstable patient
While conducting BISP at a vacant building, a member is bitten by a dog on the roof of the building. The dog is on a chain secured to the bulkhead but there is no owner or other responsible person on scene. You consider the dog to be a stray. Besides transmitting a 10-44, you would be correct to have the dispatcher notify which of the following? (More than 1 correct)
A) Center for Animal Care and Control
B) NYPD
C) Medical Officer
D) Safety Battalion
E) Board of Health
A) Center for Animal Care and Control
B) NYPD
C) Medical Officer
E) Board of Health
(TB Fires 2, 4.3)
Center for Animal
Care and Control = if dog is a stray. If dog is not a stray (owner present)
you do not need to contact CAC&C.
10-44 = Request ambulance (request reason and type)
CUPS / age / chief complaint / pulse & resp / if CPR initiated
You do not have to indicate the sex of the patient
“PBA-ME”
PD / Bureau of Health / Animal Control (if stray) / Medical Officer / EMS
